200 EIWS Series Flashcards

1
Q

Discuss how imagery was first recognized as an advantage in battle:

A

American Civil War from 1861 - 1865

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2
Q

State the primary imagery systems on CVN/LHD/LHA

A

DCGS-N (Distributed Common Ground System - Navy)

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3
Q

State the first imaging system to provide all weather, near real time imagery

A

KH-11

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4
Q

Define the mission and responsibility of the following TYCOMs (AIRFOR/SURFOR/CYBERFOR)

A

AIRFOR - man, train, equip and maintain Naval Air Force that immediately employable, forward deployed and engaged.

SURFOR - Commander Naval Surface Force, US Pacific Fleet (COMNAVSURFPAC) is comprised of surface ships, and support and maintenance commands, provides operational commands with well-trained, highly effective, and tech superior surface ship and Sailors.

CYBERFOR - Navy Type Commander (TYCOM) for cryptologic/signals Intelligence, Cyber electronic warfare, information operations, intelligence, networks and space.

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5
Q

Discuss the operational chain of command from the level of elements to the Fleet Commander using Task Force Organization designator (OPCON)

A

USS BONHOMME RICHARD -> PHIBRON 11 -> CTF76 -> C7F -> PACFLT

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6
Q

State the function of the following departments within a staff (ADCON)

A
N0 - Commander
N1 - Manpower and Personnel / Manpower Management 
N2 - Naval Intelligence 
N3 - Operations
N4 - Logistics
N5 - Plans and Policy
N6 - Communications 
N7 - Training
N8 - Capabilities and Resources / Comptroller
N9 - Strategic Planning
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7
Q

State the role of N2/N6 with respect to ref (a)

A

TYCOM - in its TYCOM role CYBERCOM provides systems and trained personnel and the support to both to effectively operate, maintain, and defend the Navy’s information networks

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8
Q

State and discuss the mission of (CVN/LHD)

A

CVN - US Navy power projection: Furthering the efforts and objectives of US diplomacy, sustainability and endurance, speed, air strike capability

LHD - Multi-purpose Amphibious Assault ships are the largest amphibious ships in the world. LHD mission is to conduct prompt, sustained, combat operations at sea, as a part of the Navy’s amphibious strategy.

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9
Q

Identify the IDC work centers onboard a LHD

A

SESS - Ships Signals Exploitations Space
JIC - Joint Intelligence Center
IPIC - Imagery Production Intelligence Center
XPOLT - Expeditionary Plot
ADP - Automated Data Processing
METOC - Meteorology and Oceanographic
CIC - Combat Information Center (Only because the AN/SLQ 32(V)3 is manned by CTTs in CIC)
RADIO

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10
Q

Define the following (SIO/ASIO/EWO/SIWO/CSIO/CSO/CSMO/ADPO)

A

SIO - Ships Intelligence Officer
ASIO - Assistant Ships Intelligence Officer
EWO - Electronic Warfare Officer
SIWO - Ships Information Warfare Officer
CSIO - Combat Systems Information Officer
CSO - Combat Systems Officer
CSMO - Combat Systems Maintenance Officer
ADPO - Automated Data Processing Officer

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11
Q

Explain the adjudication process to include (Investigations/Appeals/LOI/LOD/JCAVS)

A

Investigation - start of the adjudication process once completed SF-86 is received by DONCAF
Appeals - Can be made in person or in writing the Personnel Security Appeals Board (PSAB)
LOI - Letter of intent; issued to a member with the intent to revoke a security determination. Member will have 15 days to issue a response and appeal within 30 days.
LOD - Letter of Denial; issue by DODCAF upon determination that member’s security clearance and access to classified materials, member can appeal within 30 days of the appeal
JCAVS - Joint Clearance Access Verification System; Also referred to as JPAS, used to verify current members access to classified materials

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12
Q

Discuss JIC integration with the following (CIC/TAO/Weather)

A

CIC - Provides fused analysis, via organic and non-organic intelligence, on tracking data of red forces via GCCS-M in support of indications and warning for the ship and readiness group/strike group

TAO - Provides immediate threat indications and warning from organic and non-organic fused analysis via Fleet Information Warfare Officer

EW - Uses ELINT derived from SLQ-32 fused with non-organic sensors to correlate/identify tracks

Weather Office - Monitors environmental conditions affecting the battlegroup and provides data to use weather for possible tactical advantage. Provide forecasts of radar effectiveness and acoustic propagation conditions to aid in optional positioning and use of accompanying ships and aircraft.

SESS - Cryptologic operations play a key role in supporting naval expeditionary operations. Naval cryptologic personnel, afloat and ashore, employ tactical sensor systems that provide the commander time-sensitive combat information and an adversary composition, disposition, locations and intent.

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13
Q

Describe the three imaging systems and type of imagery they provide:

A

EO (Electro-Optical) - Detects reflected Electromagnetic energy and requires an illumination source (i.e. Sun or artificial light) to detect useful information; similar to a human eye requiring a light source to see; affected by weather conditions; day use only; black and white imagery.

IR (Infrared) - Imagery produced as a result of Electromagnetic radiations emitted or reflected from a given target surface (ex. Warmer objects appear darker than color objects) affected by weather conditions; day/night use.

RADAR (SAR) - Detects the presence of objects and determines their location by using radio waves; can operate at day/night; used in all weather conditions.

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14
Q

Describe the purpose of the Image Product Library (IPL):

A

Used to story, query, and retrieve imagery to support individual organizations.

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15
Q

Describe the purpose of the Precision Targeting Workstation (PTW):

A

Strike analyst use for targeting purposes

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16
Q

Define the following acronyms (IPIPR/IPL/IMINT/NGA/PTW/DCGS-N)

A

IPIPR (Initial Photo Interpretation Report)
IPL (Image Product Library) - used to store, query, and retrieve imagery to support individual organizations
IMINT (Imagery Intelligence) - A gather discipline which collects information via satellite and aerial photography
NGA (National Geospatial Agency) - Provides geospatial intelligence in support of national security
PTW (Precision Targeting Workstation) - strike analyst use for targeting
DCGS-N (Distributed Common Ground System - NAVY) program provides the Navy’s primary intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance and targeting (ISR&T) support capability. Afloat or ashore, DCGS-N tools are critical for operational commander’s battlespace awareness and net-centric operations.

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17
Q

State the first attempt to satisfy requirements for a space-based satellite imaging system:

A

KH-4 CORONA

CIA’s first attempt to satisfy requirements for a space-based satellite imaging system

Electro-Optical (EO) reconnaissance satellite

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18
Q

Discuss the roles and responsibilities of the following organizations (NGA/NRO/NSG).

A

NGA (National Geospatial Agency) - Provides timely, relevant and accurate geospatial intelligence in support of nation security. Fulfills POTUS national security priorities to protect the nation.

NRO (National Reconnaissance Office) - Builds and operates US Reconnaissances satellites for the US government and provides satellite intelligence to several government agencies; mainly supports NSA, NGA, and DIA.

NSG (National Support for Geospatial Intelligence) - The technology, policies, capabilities, doctrine, activities, data and people needed to produce Geospatial intelligence; overseen by NGA.

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19
Q

Discuss the phases of imagery exploitation

A

First Phase - (Bean Counting): Time dominant; exploitation of newly acquired imagery within a specified time from receipt.

Second Phase - (Pattern Analysis): Non-time dominant; detailed exploitation of imagery scheduled within the bounds of analytic requirements and timelines of need.

Third Phase - (Predictive Analysis): In depth, long range analysis; most detailed reports; timeliness not bounded and typically exceed one week after receipt of imagery.

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20
Q

Discuss the importance of Full Motion Video:

A

STRENGTHS:
- Allows the intel community to discern patters of life and behaviors associated with people and the networks they operate in which often leads to an opportunity to conduct a raid

WEAKNESS:

  • Massive amount of data
  • Hours of video that may not be used
  • Mis-interpretation of data
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21
Q

Discuss the importance of UAVs:

A
  • Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
  • Also known as a drone
  • Unpiloted and or remotely piloted
  • Use primarily for military and special operation missions; may also be used in civil applications
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22
Q

Define and discuss the following Geospatial tools and systems (IPL and NIL)

A

IPL (Image Product Library) - local storage and archive for afloat/shore units; users can access and pull imagery into their own workstations; smaller version of the NIL

NIL (National Image Library) - central repository for all imagery

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23
Q

Define and discuss grid systems and coordinates used on different maps and charts:

A

Geographic coordinates

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24
Q

State the procedures for sanitizing a SCIF for un-cleared visitors

A
  • Turn off all SCI and or SECRET monitors
  • Secure classified information
  • Remain vigilant and advise cleared personnel using common areas not to discuss classified material
  • Stay with visitor and keep “eyes on” at all times
  • Ensure visitor is logged and appropriate badge is issued
  • Ensure all badges are returned to appropriate office when visitor departs
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25
Q

Discuss the Navy’s policy on PED within classified spaces.

A

Not authorized within SCIF or Secure Areas (i.e. Radio, ADP, CIC)

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26
Q

Explain Security Challenge Procedures

A

Immediately upon noticing a person with the proper badge displayed or escort present, escort individual out of space an report to Command Security Manager (CSM - ??) and SSO

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27
Q

Define the following classification designation/release ability statements, handling and storage:

A

Top Secret - Info if released would cause exceptionally grave damage to national security
Secret - Info if released would cause serious damage to national security
Confidential - Info if released would cause damage to national security
NATO - Info relation to NATO
CMFC - Info pertaining to Combined Maritime Forces Command
FVEY - Classification representing FIVE EYES
ACGU - Classification representing FOUR EYES
Sensitive But Unclassified: info not classified but could cause harm
FOUO - Info that is unclas but could impact OPSEC
PII - Personally Identified Information
NOFORN - Info not to be share with foreign nationals
Controlled Unclassified Information
Unclassified- No classified information

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28
Q

State the responsibility of the person discovering a compromise or suspected compromise.

A

Notify Command Security Manager. If it is believed that either of those persons are involved, the individual shall report it to the next higher person

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29
Q

Define/discuss the following terms: (Access/Compromise/Personal For/Physical Security)

A

Access: the ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information
Compromise: Exposure of classified information to an unauthorized person
Personal For: a message or information that has specific recipient
Physical Security: measures taken to preclude unauthorized access to a mechanism/facility/information

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30
Q

Discuss the requirement for transporting classified materials

A

Personnel must have a valid courier card or courier letter on hand in order to transport information. Proper wrapping should be verified with SSO prior to transporting any information

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31
Q

State the reasons a Security Clearance could be revoke or suspend:

A
  • Reoccurring pattern of questionable judgment
  • Emotionally unstable behavior
  • Dishonorable discharge
  • Unreported financial problems
  • Using unlawful controlled substances
  • Mentally incompetent
  • Convicted of a crime in U.S. Courts and consequently serve one year incarcerated
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32
Q

Discuss the procedures for creating classified working papers.

A
  • Must be dated when created and marked with working papers
  • Must be marked with highest classification
  • Must be protected as a finished document at the same classification
  • Must be destroyed when no longer needed
  • Control and mark as final document when sent from BHR, retained for more than 90 days from date of origin, or filed permanently
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33
Q

State the requirements for storage, control, safeguarding of each classification level of material.

A
  • Sensitive compartmented information
  • TOP Secret
  • SECRET
  • SECRET
  • CONFIDENTIAL
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34
Q

State how to properly dispose of the following

A

SCI hard drives
GENSER hard drives
UNCLASSIFIED hard drives

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35
Q

State the purpose of an SF86

A

Questionnaire for National Security Positions; background investigation to determine suitability for sensitive positions

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36
Q

Discuss the procedures for the following

A
  • Destruction of burn bags that contain classified material: depends on the classification level of the bag
  • Destruction of classified CD/DVDs: CD shredder
  • Reporting a security violation or compromise: Report to Supervisor, CMS, SSO, Self-reporting
  • Unofficial foreign travel while holding a SCI clearance: Conducted by SSO and noted in file
  • SAER (Security Access Eligibility Report) report incidents via JPAS
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37
Q

What is the Navy Mobile Diving and Salvage?

A

Conduct harbor clearance operations in rivers, harbors and coastal areas providing diving services to surface ships.

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38
Q

What is an Explosive Ordnance Disposal?

A

The primary mission is to disarm and render safe any explosive devices, conventional or improvised.

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39
Q

What is the MEU?

A

Provides a forward deployed flexible Sea Based Marine Air Ground Task Force (MAGTF) capable of conducting Expeditionary Operations, Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) and other supporting operations as required

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40
Q

What is Navy Special Warfare?

A

Designated naval warfare specialty that conducts operations in the coastal, riverine, and maritime environments. These operations are characterized by stealth, speed, and precise, violent application of force.

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41
Q

What is a high priority target?

A

A target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission.

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42
Q

What is a high pay off target?

A

A target who’s loss to the enemy will significantly contribute to the success of the friendly course of action.

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43
Q

What are the eight categories of cultural?

A
  1. Racial Background
  2. Country of origin
  3. Religious belief
  4. Type of work
  5. Family Values
  6. Age Group
  7. Gender issues
  8. Other common interest factors
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44
Q

What is the mission and function of EMIO?

A

Expanded Maritime Interdiction Operations - EMIO broadens VBSS operations to intercept targeted personnel or material that poses an imminent threat to thee Unite States.

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45
Q

What are the types of amphibious operations?

A
Amphibious Assault
Amphibious Raid
Amphibious Demonstration
Amphibious Withdrawal 
Amphibious Support to other operations
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46
Q

What are the types of SECDEF, CJCS, COCOM orders?

A
OPLAN - operational plan
OPORD - Operational order
WANORD - Warning Order
PLANORD - Planning Order
EXORD - Executing Order 
CONPLAN - Contingency Plan
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47
Q

What are the planning phases of amphibious operations?

A
Mission Analysis
COA - Course of action
Development
COA war-game COA comparison
Decision; Orders development 
Transition
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48
Q

What is the mission & function of maritime interception operations (MIO)?

A

MIO is a military mission that can be used across the spectrum of military operations from peacetime to international armed conflict. Ex. Sending armed boarding parties to visit merchant ships bound to, through, or out of a defined area

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49
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of amphibious warfare?

A

Advantages:
- Reduce risk to amphibious task force ships
- Simplified air defense
- Reduced mine threat to amphibious task force ships
Disadvantages:
- Extended vulnerability of landing craft
- Lost or reduced availability of naval surface fire support
- Greater susceptibility to sea state

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50
Q

State the parent agency responsible for each intelligence discipline

A

a) HUMINT – DIA (Defense Intelligence Agency)
b) SIGINT – NSA (National Security Agency)
c) IMINT – NGA (National Geo-Spatial Intelligence Agency)

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51
Q

State what types of intelligence U.S. Navy ships can collect and exploit.

A

a) CG / DDG / LPD – SIGINT
b) CVN – IMINT, SIGINT
c) LHD / LHA – IMINT, SIGINT

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52
Q

State one example of intelligence collection platform for the following

A

a) Tactical imagery – SHARP Pod

b) National – Satellite

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53
Q

Explain why Intelligence Oversight was established

A

The need for a Department of Defense (DoD) Intelligence Oversight (IO) program came about as a result of certain activities conducted by DoD intelligence and counter-intelligence units against U.S. persons involved in the Civil Rights and anti-Vietnam War movements. During the 1960s and 1970s, the United States experienced significant civil demonstrations from protesters associated with these movements. Some of these demonstrations were believed to be beyond the ability of civilian authorities to control, and military forces were used to assist in the restoration of order. Units deploying for this purpose discovered they needed basic pre-deployment intelligence to perform their missions. The Army, designated as executive agent for providing aid to civilian authorities, requested assistance from the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI). When the FBI was unable to provide the information needed, the Army began collecting it. Over time, this collection mushroomed and led to abuse of the Constitutional rights of our citizens. Eventually, DoD intelligence personnel were using inappropriate clandestine and intrusive means to collect information on the legitimate political positions and expressions of U.S. persons, accumulating that information in a nationwide data bank, and sharing that information with law enforcement authorities.

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54
Q

Explain who to report questionable intelligence activity to

A

According to Procedure 15 of DoD 5240.1-R, one reports what they believe is a questionable intelligence activity to any of the following: your supervisor, (any) intelligence oversight officer, commander, unit legal advisor (either the judge advocate general or general counsel) and/or your unit’s inspector general. Although we prefer that you use your chain of command, this is not always practical. In those situations, you may contact either the Assistant to the Secretary of Defense for Intelligence Oversight or the DoD General Counsel’s office directly.

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55
Q

Describe the purpose and applicability of the Intelligence Oversight Program

A

Applies to all DON intelligence components and governs all intelligence activities undertaken by personnel assigned to those components. This instruction also applies to non-intelligence personnel, engaged in any intelligence activity (e.g., collection, research, analysis, production, retention, dissemination), as well as all other DON components and personnel when that component conducts intelligence and/or intelligence-related activities.

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56
Q

Describe the purpose of the following publications: (USSID SP0009, USSID SP0018, and USSID SP0018 Annex A)

A

a) USSID SP0009 (ref. d) Exception to disseminate SIGINT on host nation
b) USSID SP0018 (ref. e) Exception to disseminate SIGINT in reference to a US Person
c) USSID SP0018 Annex A (ref. c) Legal Compliance

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57
Q

Describe the Task Force structure established during HUMANITARIAN ASSISTANCE / DISASTER RELIEF (HA/DR)

A

Joint Task Force
o The Joint Task Force organization for HA/DR is similar to traditional military organizations with a commander, command element and mission-tailored forces. However the nature of HA/DR usually results in combat support and combat service support forces serving more prominent roles than combat elements.

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58
Q

Describe how the following intelligence disciplines play a role in conducting HA/DR

A
  • HUMINT -Primary Collection Means
  • IMINT - Secondary Collection Means
  • OSINT- Used to determine host nation’s agendas and patterns of operation
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59
Q

Describe the capabilities of U.S. Navy shipboard assets as it pertains to HA/DR

A

Expeditionary Strike Groups (ESG) - Provide health services where members are brought aboard.
Carrier Strike Groups (CSG) - Airlift Support
Hospital Ships - USNS Mercy and USNS Comfort provide 12 operating rooms and 1,000 beds etc.

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60
Q

State the purpose of METOC in supporting the HA/DR mission

A

Joint forces depend on timely, accurate, and reliable METOC information to plan and direct HA/DR operations.

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61
Q

Describe the four Maritime Operations Center readiness levels

A
  • Policy Level - President/SECDEF/Joint Staff
  • Strategic Level - Combatant Commander
  • Operational Level - Naval Combatant Commander/Fleet Commander
  • Tactical Level - Carrier Strike Group/Expeditionary Strike Group
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62
Q

Define the purpose of EXPLOT

A

All-source intelligence plot (Fusion Center). ). EXPLOT on a LHD monitors the geopolitical situation, provides I&W support to the flag plot and CIC, and updated situation information to mission planning on a regular basis..

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63
Q

Define BMD and state the purpose of BMD missions worldwide (provide example)

A

BMD is Ballistic Missile Defense. Strategic positioning of point defense capable assets to detect, engage, and destroy ballistic missiles launched by hostile nations and organizations. Example: The announced deployment of four Aegis-equipped US Naval vessels to Rota, Spain, in 2013.

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64
Q

What comprises a CSG and ESG

A

A carrier strike group (CSG) is typically comprised of one CSG staff, one aircraft carrier (CVN), one air wing (CVW), and one destroyer squadron (DESRON). Each of the organizations maintains it’s own intelligence structure. If a requirement exists that a flag or general officer command an ARG/MEU, the formation is referred to as an expeditionary strike group (ESG), which includes an embarked flag or general officer and their associated command element (CE) staff. Regardless of the Service orientation of the commander, the CE consists of both Navy and Marine Corps personnel. Additional surface combatants may or may not be assigned to an ARG/MEU or ESG.

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65
Q

Define the EXPLOT watch positions. (SICOR/NOA/RDBM/FIWO/CASE)

A

a) SICOR/BFCA – Signals Intelligence CORelator/Battle Force COMINT Analyst: Analyzes Communications Intelligence (Rate: CTR)
b) NOA/BFEA – National Opelint Analyst/Battle Force ELINT Analyst: Analyzes Electronic Intelligence (Rate: CTT)
c) RDBM – Red DataBase Manager; Track/manage foreign military contact/track data. The analyst will operate the GCCS workstation, managing the database of forces, and maintain a manual plot. (Rate: IS)
d) FIWO – Fleet Intelligence Watch Officer; Responsible for overseeing and managing all intelligence activities within EXPLOT. (Rate: IS)
e) CASE – Cryptologic Augmentation Support Element; provides analysts to fill SICOR/NOA/NODAL Analysis (optional position) positions in EXPLOT. Also serves as oversight of cryptologic and electronic warfare operations of the ESG/ARG under the cryptologic resource coordinator. (Rate: CTR)

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66
Q

Explain the purpose of the CWC doctrine.

A

It enables the officer in tactical command (OTC) to wage combat operations against air, surface, and subsurface threats, while carrying out the primary mission of the force. (Command by negation)

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67
Q

State the Navy’s Counter-piracy Task Force.

A

CTF-151

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68
Q

Explain the difference between the levels of intelligence:

A

a) Strategic – National strategic intelligence is produced for the President, Congress, SECDEF, senior military leaders, and the CCDRs. It is used to develop national strategy and policy, monitor the international situation, prepare military plans, determine major weapon systems and force structure requirements, and conduct strategic operations.
b) Operational – Used to describe intelligence support to theater operational forces.
c) Tactical – Focuses on combat intelligence, which is used by commanders, planners, and operators for planning and conducting battles, engagements, and special missions.

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69
Q

Define and discuss OPINTEL and the intelligence cycle

A

Intelligence required for planning and conducting campaigns and major operations to accomplish strategic objectives within theaters or areas of operations. The process of gathering, evaluating, and using intelligence is known as the intelligence cycle. The cycle consists of 5 phases. (Planning and direction, collection, processing, production, and dissemination)

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70
Q

List and describe the Intelligence Disciplines used by OPINTEL Analysts and what do they provide.

A

ELINT (electronic intelligence), COMINT (communications intelligence), ACINT (acoustic intelligence), HUMINT (human intelligence), IMINT (imagery intelligence)

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71
Q

Describe the difference between Information and Intelligence.

A

Intelligence is processed information, meaning that several pieces of information are needed to be able to produce credible, reliable intelligence.

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72
Q

Describe how the three levels of warfare are applied to OPINTEL

A

1) Strategic: Assist in developing national strategy and policy, monitor the international situation, assist in developing military plans, assist in determining major weapon systems and force structure requirements, and support the conduct of strategic operations.
2) Operational: Focus on military capabilities and intentions of enemies and adversaries, monitor events in the Joint Force Commander’s area of interest, support the planning and conduct of joint campaigns, and identify adversary centers of gravity.
3) Tactical: Support planning and conducting battles and engagements, provide commanders with information on imminent threats to their forces, and provide commanders with obstacle intelligence.

73
Q

Describe the role of the GCCS in performing OPINTEL

A

GCCS is used as the COP (common operating picture), able to disseminate information in real time to all units connected to the link.

74
Q

Explain the purpose of a tear line

A

A tear line is a method of removing information that would cause intelligence to be classified at a certain level. i.e. removing information that would classify an item as Top Secret to allow it to be used in a Secret brief.

75
Q

Explain the purpose of IIR’s

A

Intelligence Information Reports are human intelligence (HUMINT) informational reports written to forward photographs/videotapes/brochures/documents, report information obtained from human sources, and/or convey information obtained as a result of official liaison with friendly foreign country (bilateral) representatives.

76
Q

Define and discuss (IO/IW)

A

a) IO
Information Operations is the actions to control friendly force’s use of information and the actions to mitigate the effects of adversary use of information and information systems. IO includes Military Information Support Operations, Electronic Warfare, Military Deception, Computer Network Operations, and Operational Security

b) IW
Information Warfare is the military actionable tactics for use and counter-use of the electromagnetic spectrum performed for IO missions to support and defend friendly operations while deterring adversary IW actions

77
Q

List the primary responsibilities of an Information Operations Officer

A

Under the cognizance of the Deputy Intelligence Warfare Commander provides current/future intelligence environment information for tactical relevance to support command, operation, and/or theater objectives

78
Q

Discuss the content of the Navy-Wide OPTASK Information Operations

A

Direction of operational tasking for entities that conduct/support information operations to include EW module, SSES, CVIC, and RADIO. Tasking includes authorities in defensive and offensive operations, circuits for communication/coordination, and electronic support requirements.

79
Q

State the authority required to conduct the following

A

a) Electronic Warfare
Secretary of Defense -> Joint Chiefs of Staff -> Theater/Fleet Commander
b) Tactical military deception
Secretary of Defense -> Joint Chiefs of Staff -> Theater/Fleet Commander
c) Operations Security
All DOD personnel, overall responsible is designated authority, E7/GS-11 or above
d) Military Information Support Operations
Secretary of Defense -> Joint Chiefs of Staff -> Theater/Fleet Commander
e) Computer Network Defense
National Security Agency –> Commander TENTH Fleet -> Navy Computer Defense Operations Command
f) Computer Network Attack
National Security Agency –> Tailored Access Operations
g) Computer Network Exploitation
National Security Agency –> Tailored Access Operations

80
Q

Describe the purpose of EW

A

Any military action involving the use of electromagnetic and directed energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum or to attack the enemy.

81
Q

Define and state the purpose of the following EW components

A

a) EP – Passive and active means taken to protect personnel, facilities, and equipment from any effects of friendly or enemy employment of EW that degrade neutralize, or destroy friendly combat capability.
b) EA – The use of EM energy, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment with the intent of degrading, neutralizing, or destroying enemy combat capability.
c) ES – Actions tasked by, or under direct control of, an operational commander to search for, intercept, identify, and locate or localize sources of intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy for the purpose of immediate threat recognition, targeting, planning and conduct of future operations.

82
Q

Describe the three basic components of RADAR.

A

a) Transmitter – An electronic device, with the help of the antenna produces radio waves.
b) Receiver – Collects RF from the antenna then amplifies it before it is demodulated and converted into video pulses that are then routed to the radar display.
c) Antenna – Routes RF energy pulses from the transmitter and radiates it in to a directional beam. It also picks up the returning echo and passes it to the receiver with a minimum of loss.

83
Q

State the meaning of the acronym SONAR

A

Sound Navigation And Ranging, however sonar is no longer referred to as an acronym. Sonar systems are used to detect, classify, localize, and track acoustic energy radiated from surface ships and submarines. There are two types of systems: Active and Passive.

84
Q

List the tactical data processors utilized to manipulate OPELINT information:

A

a) GALE

b) GCCS-M (COP - Common Operating Picture)

85
Q

Describe the data received from GALE

A

Think of ELINT

86
Q

Define and state the purpose of HULTEC

A

Hull-To-Emitter Correlation is the equation of a unique electronic emission to an identifiable platform.

87
Q

Define and state the purpose of UMOP

A

Unintentional Modulation On Pulse is used to identify unique signatures radiated from a platform.

88
Q

Describe the following:

  • IBS Network
  • IBS Simplex
  • IBS Interactive
  • IBS Line of Sight
A

a) IBS Network – Enables wide area network dissemination of data.
b) IBS Simplex – Provides multiple UHF SATCOM simplex broadcast channels of uniquely ordered and prioritized data.
c) IBS Interactive – Provides an interactive, full-duplex, UHF
d) IBS Line of Sight – Adds line-of-sight UHF broadcast capabilities (37 NM)

89
Q

Describe the characteristics of the following missile guidance types

A

a) ARH – AntiRadiation Homing missile guidance designed to home on an operating RF transmitter. This type of seeker is simple, cheap, and has an excellent long-range capability. The use of EMCON is the best countermeasure.
b) IR – InfraRed missile guidance homes on a heat source or on an object that has a discernible difference in temperature from the ambient background.
c) Laser – Laser guided missiles look for reflected energy from a laser beam dot on a target. This seeker is relatively inexpensive, extremely precise, and allows third party targeting.
d) EO/TV – Electro Optical/Television guidance seeker logic uses contrasting shades of visible light to see images. Advantages to this type of seeker are precision, a human in the loop selects targets, and he/she has the ability to overcome deception tactics such as camouflage.

90
Q

Discuss the following EA terms

A

a) Electromagnetic jamming – The deliberate radiation, reradiation, or reflection of electromagnetic energy for the purpose of preventing or reducing an enemy’s effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum, and with the intent of degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability.
b) Electromagnetic deception – The deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy in a manner intended to convey misleading information to an enemy or to enemy electromagnetic-dependent weapons, thereby degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability.
c) Comms EA – Communications Electronic Attack may make a frequency or system entirely unusable to the enemy, or simply degrade communications or reduce ranges to a desirable level.
d) Countertargeting – The denial, degrade, or deception of the targeting capabilities of adversary reconnaissance and weapons delivery platforms.

91
Q

Identify the host platforms and describe the general characteristics of the following CSG/ESG IO systems

A

SURFACE:

1) AN/SLQ-32A/B(V) – All surface platforms. Used for ASMD and ES for ELINT production.
2) AN/ULQ-16 – All surface platforms. Performs precision measurement of emitter characteristic detected by AN/SLQ-32.
3) GCCS-M – Three components; ashore, afloat, tactical/mobile. Single integrated C4I system that receives, processes, displays, maintains, and assesses the unit characteristics of own, allied forces.
4) AN/SLQ-25A/B/C (NIXIE) – All surface platforms. Provides Torpedo countermeasures.
5) BEWT/BFTT – Provides watch standers with simulated tactical environment to train pre planned responses, changes in weapon posture, and all aspects of tactical competence.
6) MK-36 DLS – All surface platforms except CVN. SRBOC(super rapid blooming off board chaff). Used to combat different missile variants utilizing both distraction and seduction techniques.
9) SSEE INC E/F – INC E is the primary COMINT system for Navy platforms while INC F is only available on a select few Navy surface platforms.
11) HITS – GEOlocation system used to locate emitters
12) GALE-Lite – Computer application that displays and manipulates intelligence information used by the ELINT analyst.
13) JTT – Utilizes IBS to disseminate critical intelligence and targeting information.
14) AIS – Purposes is safe navigation. Interfaces with vessel’s navigation tool to provide highly accurate and useful information to the user.

AIR:

1) AN/ALQ-99 – EA system onboard EA-6B Prowler/EA-18G Growler
2) AN/USQ-113 – CES/CEA system onboard EA-6B Prowler; known as Counter Communication System (CCS) onboard EA-18G Growler.
3) AN/ALQ-142 – ES system onboard SH-60B LAMPS Mk III Seahawk
4) AN/ALR-73 – ES system onboard E-2C Hawkeye
5) AN/ALE-39/43/47 – Countermeasure Dispensing System (CMDS) for chaff and/or flares. AN/ALE/47 is the latest version.
6) AN/USQ-146 – Legacy CEA tool used by Navy and Marine Corps Platforms, replaced by SSEE systems with IO weaponry capabilities on Navy platforms.

92
Q

Define and discuss the following EW terms

A

a) EMI – ElectroMagnetic Interference. A disturbance that affects an electrical circuit due to either electromagnetic induction or electromagnetic radiation emitted from an external source
b) ASMD – Anti Ship cruise Missile Defense.
c) JRFL LOD- Joint Restricted Frequency List. Time oriented and geographically oriented listing of taboo, protected, and guarded functions, nets, and frequencies.
d) HERO – Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance. System designed to prevent an inadvertent activation of an ordnance system’s electro explosive device.
e) Technical ELINT – Describes the signal structure, emission characteristics, modes of operation, emitter functions, and weapons systems associations of such emitters as radars, beacons, jammers, and navigational signals.
f) Operational ELINT – Concentrates on locating specific ELINT targets and determining the operational patterns of the systems; commonly refer to as Electronic Order of Battle (EOB).
g) EEFI – Essential Elements of Friendly Information are key questions likely to be asked by adversary officials and intelligence systems about specific friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities, so they can obtain answers critical to their operational effectiveness.

93
Q

Define and discuss each RADAR function.

A

a) AI – Air Intercept
b) EW – Early warning
c) FC – Fire Control
d) MF – Multi Function
e) MG – Missile Guidance
f) TA – Target Acquisition
g) TT – Target Tracking
h) SS/NA – Surface Search/Navigation

94
Q

Define and discuss the CED

A

Combined Emitter Database (CED) is NSA’s National TechELINT Database. It replaced the EPL and KILTING databases.

95
Q

Discuss the purpose of REGS

A

Rapid Evaluation Guidelines. A list of parametric boundaries that allows the operator to ascertain the function of a certain radar based on where the data from the radar fits in those boundaries. (Watchstander aide / a quick reference for fast threat)

96
Q

Discuss the following: (Electronic Attack Authority & Fire by negation)

A

a) Electronic Attack Authority – Also referred to as the Jamming Control Authority (JCA) is appointed by the fleet commander to conduct on-station real-time coordination of jamming efforts, some duties consist of: Coordinates EA operations with ISR assets in order to deconflict intelligence gain-loss priorities; Coordinates/directs all CEASE BUZZER requests and disseminates validated CEASE BUZZER calls to theater EA platforms; Provides input for JRFL. (For example IWC)
b) Fire by negation – Authorizes EW supervisor or operator to utilize EA for defense of ship (For example - CHAFF)

97
Q

Discuss the purpose of the MISO Broadcast

A

Military Information Support Operations are planned to convey selected information and indicators to foreign audiences to influence their emotions, motives, objective reasoning, and ultimately, the behavior of foreign governments, organizations, and individuals in a manner favorable to the originator’s objectives.

98
Q

Discuss the purpose of RAS

A

Reprogramming At Sea allows for EW systems to be loaded with settings to defeat threats.

99
Q

State duties and responsibilities of the following (IQ Watch, TAO, EWO, EW Control Ship, EW Sup, EW OP)

A

a) OQ Watch – Responsible to the SG commander for integration of IO into all force plans and evolutions, coordinating this effort with MHQ IO planners, and disseminating relevant data to the force.
b) TAO – Tactical Action Officer. Has weapon’s release authority granted by the CO for ship’s defense.
c) EWO – Electronic Warfare Officer. Officer/Chief in charge of promulgating all EW bills and doctrine for a ship. In charge of ensuring that training and qualifications are up to date. Ensure that the everyday operations for the EW module are in accordance with correct guidance and directives.
d) EW Control Ship – Correlate EW support intercepts by organic and non-organic sensors assigned to the SG. ELINT data base manager. Guard on primary and secondary net. Monitor and enforce EMCON. Monitor IO equipment readiness.
e) EW SUP – Ensures the flow of information to CDC and EW control ship is accurate and up to date. Charged with following all directives assigned by EWO and Control ship. Ensure the mechanics of each watch is IAW bills and doctrines.
f) EW OP – Utilize REGS to evaluate and disseminate all signals found via SLQ-32.

100
Q

State the purpose and procedure of the ULM-4 range

A

Gives an environment to conduct PMS on secret systems // Located in YOKO

101
Q

Define the following reports (TACREP/TACELINT)

A

a) TACREP – Principal reporting tool that supports tactical warning, targeting, indications and warning, and maneuvering.
b) TACELINT – Provide ELINT data to theater and national agencies

102
Q

Define the following terms associated with AIS

A

a) AIS – Automated Identification System is a commercial, international system carried on ships that meet the criteria by the International Maritime Organization. This system transmits information between participants for purposes of safe navigation.
b) MMSI – A unique reference identification

103
Q

What does the JTT provide the OPELINT watch?

A

Utilizes IBS for UHF tactical intelligence terminal that provides the capability to disseminate time sensitive C4I and battlefield targeting information to tactical commanders and intelligence nodes. The intelligence information that is provided to the analyst is received in near real-time. (For example - time sensitive ELINT ballistic missle ID/Tracking)

104
Q

Define the information derived from a SATVUL Report and how to use it

A

Windows of time that the ship is vulnerable/visible to friendly and non-friendly satellite surveillance

105
Q

Define and discuss six principles of MILDEC

A
  1. focus
  2. objective
  3. centralized control
  4. security
  5. timeliness
  6. integrity
106
Q

Describe the purpose of MILDEC.

A

To deliberately mislead adversary decision makers about operations, movement, mission to include disguising the capabilities and intent of friendly forces

107
Q

Discuss the three categories of means of deception

A

a) Physical – use of a solid material to convey force multiplication or change in structure of an object in order to deceive ISR assets
b) Technical – military material resources and associated employed technology used to convey or deny selected information to foreign power
c) Administrative – resources, methods, techniques used to convey or deny physical evidence to foreign power. This includes use of Information Systems.

108
Q

Discuss the following categories as related to deception tactics

A

a) Acoustic – sonic deception, aural deception; simulate or conceal forces of movement
b) Visual – human observation and electrical optical systems used to mislead a target and prevent detection and identification
c) Electromagnetic – use of changing radar parameters or operating modes to mislead adversary from detecting and identifying friendly operations
d) Communication – use normal non-military tone and low power in communications systems to mislead adversary from detecting friendly military operations

109
Q

Discuss tactical MILDEC capabilities.

A

Plan and execute by and in support of tactical commander for battles and engagements.

110
Q

Discuss counter-deception

A

Methods to actively counter adversary use of deception tactics.

111
Q

Discuss the five phases of the MILDEC planning process

A
  1. Initiation
  2. concept development
  3. plan development
  4. plan review
  5. support plans
112
Q

Discuss the differences between MISO and MILDEC

A

MISO is used to induce or influence foreign attitudes and behaviors favorable to the initiators objectives whereas MILDEC is actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military decision makers as to intent of friendly military mission.

113
Q

Describe and state the purpose of an ASI.

A

a. Authorized Service Interruption is a coordinated downtime/maintenance window for infrastructure related activities with the potential of impacting the operation and/or availability of WAN services provided by DISA.
b. Three types: Emergency, Urgent, Routine

114
Q

Define Automatic Private Internet Protocol Addressing (APIPA).

A

With APIPA, DHCP clients can automatically self-configure an IP address and subnet mask when a DHCP server isn’t available.

115
Q

Explain the restrictions and ramifications of disclosing critical information.

A

Facts about operational indicators, capabilities, activities such as ships movement, operations, missions causes unacceptable consequences to friendly mission accomplishment.

116
Q

Explain what OPSEC Countermeasures are and state effective examples.

A

Prevent adversary from detecting critical information, cause adversary to act on alternative misleading critical information, and deny adversary ability to collect friendly information. Effective examples are to safeguard documents, limit distribution, and shred periodically.

117
Q

Define and describe the OPSEC roles, responsibilities and support provided by each of the following:

A
  1. NOST – Naval OPSEC Support Team: a systematic analytic process to identify, control & protect generally unclassified information.
  2. IOSS – The Interagency OPSEC Support Staff [IOSS] carries out national-level interagency Operational Security [OPSEC] training for executives, program and project managers, and OPSEC specialists; acts as consultant to Executive departments and agencies in connection with the establishment of OPSEC programs and OPSEC surveys and analyses; and provides an OPSEC technical staff, as required, for the National Security Council [NSC].
  3. JCMA – Joint COMSEC Monitor Activity: The mission of the JCMA is to conduct COMSEC monitoring (collection, analysis, and reporting) of DOD elecommunications signals (encrypted and unencrypted) and automated information systems and monitoring of related noncommunications signals. The purpose is to identify vulnerabilities exploitable by potential adversaries and to recommend countermeasures and corrective actions.
  4. NCIS – The Naval Criminal Investigative Service (NAVCRIMINVSERV) will support Navy OPSEC programs through the conduct of counterintelligence perations to detect, deter, neutralize or exploit foreign intelligence collection activities against Navy organizations and activities.
118
Q

Describe the purpose and service provided by the OPSEC Red Team Vulnerability Assessment process.

A

Team exploits IT risks in an organization to identify and assist in correcting the IT vulnerabilities across the network and system.

119
Q

Discuss DoN website restrictions

A

Adherence to non-access to online sites that compromise IT security including use of web-based email, use of websites that reflect adversely on the Navy and personnel good conduct, and use of websites that violate statutes or regulations.

120
Q

Explain the role of the following positions: (CWO/Tech CTR SUP/ COMM Watch SUP)

A

a) CWO: Officer in charge of executing the Communications Plan.
b) Technical Control Supervisor: Supervises the setup, troubleshooting and quality assurance of all voice and data circuits.
c) Communications Watch Supervisor: Supervises all aspects of technical control and incoming and outgoing message traffic.

121
Q

Define and state the purpose of the following: (VoIP/DSN/VTC/POTS/STE)

A
  • a. VoIP : Voice over IP. Converts analog phone signals to a digital medium for transmission over a network.
  • b. DSN : Defense Switched Network. Phone system designed for DoD only to provide long distance and secure capabilities to units.
  • c. VTC : Video Tele Conference. Allows video meetings via network application.
  • d. POTS : Plain Old Telephone System. Ordinary analog telephone network via phone switchboard.
  • e. STE : Secure Telephone Equipment. Allows secure calls to be made.
122
Q

Define the purpose of Minimize.

A

Limits the overall flow of record message traffic to keep critical lines open or reduce the risk of compromise.

123
Q

. State the purpose of the following: (COMMSHIFT / DUAL ROUTING)

A
  • a. COMMSHIFT : Shifts communications guard to another unit or system of delivery of message traffic.
  • b. Dual-Routing : Routes message traffic to two guarding units
124
Q

Define and state the purpose of a/an:

a. PLAD
b. AIG
c. CAD
d. OSRI
e. DSRI
f. OIX

A
  • a. PLAD : Plain Language Address. Shortened name of commands used to deliver messages.
  • b. AIG Address Indicator Group An address designator that represents a collection of 16 or more frequently occurring groups of Plain Language Address Designators
  • c. CAD Collective Address Designator (CAD) – An address designator group that represents a collection of four or more Plain Language Address Designators where all PLADs within the group share either a common operational, and/or administrative chain of command.
  • d. OSRI : Originating Station Routing Indicator.
  • e. DSRI : Destination Station Routing Indicator.
  • f. OIX : Official Information Exchange.
125
Q

State the purpose of Fleet Routing Indicators

A

A routing indicator is a unique grouping of four to seven letters that is used within an automated communications system to deliver a message to the appropriate addressees.

126
Q
State the purpose of the following common modified ACP 126 message format lines: 
FL2
FL5
FL6
FL7
FL8
FL11
FL12
A
  • a. 2 : The header of the message. Indications class, precedence, originator, destination, dtg, Julian date -and format.
  • b. 5 : FL 5 is the Date Time Group line.
  • c. 6 : This is the line that designates the Plain Language Address of the station that drafted the message.
  • d. 7 : List of action or “TO” addressees.
  • e. 8 : List of information or “INFO” addressees.
  • f. 11: Break Text or “BT” It provides a break between the heading of a message and the actual text of the message.
  • g. 12: The Text portion of the message or body.
127
Q

State the purpose of Operating Signals.

A

Operating signals are a set of prowords used to communicate with other DoD and allied units for the sake of brevity and OPSEC.

128
Q

Describe the following: (CIA/CIB/FTP/NTP/SOP)

A
  • a. CIA / CIB : Communications Information Advisory/ Bulletin. Gets critical information out to the fleet regarding specific communications systems and/or practices.
  • b. Fleet Telecommunications Procedures (FTP) : Generic operating procedures for communications systems fleet wide.
  • c. Naval Telecommunications Procedures (NTP) : Specific operating procedures for detailed operation of communications subsystems.
  • d. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) : Platform specific operating procedures.
129
Q

State the purpose of IRIDIUM phones.

A
  • Iridium phones provide an emergency phone line that can be used nearly anywhere on the planet using a direct satellite link. They can also be used to make secure calls.
130
Q

Define the following and state the differences of the following (Directed Net and Free Net)

A
  • a. Directed Net is a net that has a single net control station that manages its operation for a given session.
  • b. Free Net is an open net with no control station.
131
Q

Describe the information that can be found on the TCF status board?

A

Circuit names, circuit designators, frequency, type of encryption and keymat, guard and channel no.

132
Q

Define and explain the concept of DAMA

A

Demand assigned multiple access, or multiplexer is a device that allows multiple communications circuits to share one communications path.

133
Q

Describe the purpose of GBS.

A

GBS augments other Military Satellite Communications (MILSATCOM) by providing a high speed, one way information flow of high volume data to users ashore, afloat or supporting special operations.

134
Q

Define bandwidth allocation

A

Bandwidth allocation is the prioritized management of bandwidth for Naval applications.

135
Q

List the advantages of the following (EHF/SHF):

A
  • a. EHF: Low probability of detect/intercept, EMP hardened (nuclear event), military only.
  • b. SHF: High data rate, joint interoperability, commercial availability.
136
Q

Define and state the purpose of the following (CBSP/DSCS):

A
  • a. CBSP: Commercial internet service readily available for use by anyone.
  • b. DSCS: DoD owned internetworking architecture only used by DoD assets.
137
Q

Define the following acronyms that pertain to Radio Wave Propagation: (MUF/LUF/FOT)

A
  • a. MUF: Maximum usable frequency.
  • b. LUF : Lowest useable frequency.
  • c. FOT: Frequency of optimal transmission. “Best usable frequency”.
138
Q

State the purpose of EKMS.

A
  • EKMS is an interoperable collection of systems, facilities, and components developed by the government to automate the planning, ordering, filling, generation, distribution, accountability, storage, usage, destruction and management of electronic key and other types of COMSEC material.
139
Q

State the responsibilities of the following:

A
  • a. EKMS Manager : The EKMS manager is the CO’s primary advisor concerning the physical security and handling of COMSEC material and is responsible for the proper administration of the EKMS account.
  • b. Alternate EKMS Manager : Alternate EKMS Managers are responsible for assisting the EKMS Manager in the performance of their duties and assuming the duties in their absence.
  • c. Local Element: The Local Element (LE) Custodian and EKMS User are responsible to the BONHOMME RICHARD EKMS Manager for the proper safeguarding, control, and destruction of all COMSEC material they handle whether or not they have signed for the material.
140
Q

. Define the following: (Comsec incidents/Reportable PDS/Non-reportable PDS)

A
  • a. COMSEC incidents: Security violations of COMSEC material consisting of a potential compromise, mishandling or loss of cryptographic items.
  • b. Reportable PDS: Practices which have increased potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material.
  • c. Non-reportable PDS: Practices which have the potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material.
141
Q

Define the following areas of COMSEC:

A
  • a. CRYPTO Security: Encryption of information for the sole purpose of protecting vital information.
  • b. Transmission Security: Protection of external comms links from interception and exploitation.
  • c. Emission Security : Control of potentially compromising emanations .
  • d. Physical Security: Physical protection of COMSEC material .
142
Q

State how often a CO is required to conduct an EKMS Spot Check.

A

The CO must conduct spot checks quarterly.

143
Q

Define and state the purpose of DWTS.

A
  • DWTS is a high-speed Line of Sight (LOS) connection between two ships and/or a shore site. It allows the exchange of IP datagrams among DWTS-equipped ships.
144
Q

Define SSES

A

Where specialized enlisted cryptologic personnel monitor, collect, identify, and exploit signals of interest to produce COMINT. Exploited COMINT is passed along to pertinent users in the strike group for use in support of operations to include indications and warning of threats.

145
Q

Define EXPLOT (same as SUPPLOT)

A

The function of SUPPLOT is to gather indications and warning (I&W) information and pass it quickly to the pertinent warfare commander(s). SUPPLOT can be thought of as an afloat information correlation center; fusion analysis watchfloor. SUPPLOT provides tactical indications and warning, intelligence support to the ship, air wing, embarked CARGRU/CRUDESGRU staff, and to the composite warfare commanders.

146
Q

Define CVIC

A

It is considered to have two major functional groups; Mission Planning (MP) and Multi Sensor Interpretation (MSI). Overall, the CVIC must be responsive to the air wing, ship, and embarked staff(s). This involves a great deal of coordination with other functional areas including Operations, Weapons, Strike Operations, EW, SSES, and many other non-organic sources to be effective.

147
Q

Define SIGNALS ANALYSIS

A

Analysis of foreign signals to recover parameters and/or intelligence from said signals.

148
Q

Define CRYPTANALYSIS

A

Analysis of foreign ciphers to recover intelligence

149
Q

Define TRAFFIC ANALYSIS

A

Analysis of foreign communications frequency usage and information inside signaling to determine operational trends and recover network infrastructure.

150
Q

Define FUSION ANALYSIS

A

Multi-source, multi-intelligence analysis to provide operational commanders and decision makers accurate Indications and Warning (I&W) information, tailored product reports, and to help refine further analysis in response to customer demands.

151
Q

Define RASIN Manual

A

RAdio SIgnals Notation (RASIN) Manual: A technical document used in the exploitation of signals of interest. Contains external and internal parameter information and standardizes the classification of signals.

152
Q

Define USSID

A

United States Signals Intelligence Directives: Directive documents for conducting and reporting on the performance of Signals Intelligence.

153
Q

Describe LOS communication

A

Require that the transmitter and receiver be within visual range of one another for effective communication. There are two types of LOS, Natural Horizon and Radio Horizon. Natural horizon follows the natural curvature of the earth while radio horizon bends around the curvature of the earth extending the reach of LOS communications by 1/3 greater than natural LOS.

154
Q

Define the Doppler Effect

A

The apparent change in frequency (phase shift) of a signal based on the movement of the transmitter as compared to the receiver.

155
Q

Discuss how the layers of the Ionosphere affect collection operations

A

a) D Layer
The D layer ranges from about 30 to 55 miles. Ionization in the D layer is low because it is the lowest region of the ionosphere. This layer has the ability to refract signals of low frequencies. High frequencies pass right through it and are attenuated. After sunset, the D layer disappears because of the rapid recombination of ions.

b) E Layer
The E layer limits are from about 55 to 90 miles. This layer is also known as the Kennelly-Heaviside layer, because these two men were the first to propose its existence. The rate of ionic recombination in this layer is rather rapid after sunset and the layer is almost gone by midnight. This layer has the ability to refract signals as high as 20 megahertz. For this reason, it is valuable for communications in ranges up to about 1500 miles.

c) F1/F2 Layer
The F layer exists from about 90 to 240 miles. During the daylight hours, the F layer separates into two layers, the F1 and F2 layers. The ionization level in these layers is quite high and varies widely during the day. At noon, this portion of the atmosphere is closest to the sun and the degree of ionization is at maximum. Since the atmosphere is rarefied at these heights, recombination occurs slowly after sunset. Therefore, a fairly constant ionized layer is always present. The F layers are responsible for high-frequency, long distance transmission.

156
Q

Define Morse Code.

A

A telegraph code formerly used internationally for transmitting messages; it was superseded by satellite technology (the Global Marine Distress and Safety System) in 1999. Letters, numbers, etc., are represented by groups of shorter dots and longer
dashes, or by groups of the corresponding sounds, dits and dahs, the groups being separated by spaces Named after Samuel Finley Breese Morse (1791-1872), US inventor of the first electric telegraph.

157
Q

Explain Direction Finding and Geo-Location.

A

Direction Finding
Uses passive detection systems to estimate the location of an emitter based on the emitter’s signal strength. Visual displays Lines of Bearing on a geographic map for estimated bearing of emitter. Three LOBs, from three DF sites, crossing each over at the same point are required for a proper FIX of the emitters location. A running fix can only be conducted on a stationary emitter of a course of time dependent upon the DF platforms speed and heading.

Geo-Location
Provides the rough location for a signal transmitter by calculating the Time Difference Of Arrival (TDOA) or the Frequency Difference Of Arrival (FDOA) of an emitters signal at multiple receivers at different geographic locations. A minimum of three Geo-Location nodes are required in order to locate an emitter properly.

158
Q

Discuss the difference between Offensive and Defensive IO.

A

Offensive IO: involve the integrated use of assigned and supporting capabilities and activities, mutually supported by intelligence, to affect adversary decision makers and achieve or promote specific objectives

Defensive IO: integrate and coordinate policies and procedures, operations, personnel, and technology to protect and defend information and information systems

159
Q

Discuss the two types of warfare planning

A

Deliberate planning
The Adaptive Planning and Execution system process involving the development of joint operation plans for contingencies identified in joint strategic planning documents.

Crisis action planning
The Adaptive Planning and Execution system process involving the time-sensitive development of joint operation plans and operation orders for the deployment, employment, and sustainment of assigned and allocated forces and resources in response to an imminent crisis. Also called CAP.

160
Q

Define the six phases of the targeting cycle. (

A
  1. End State and Commander’s Objectives (Missions Analysis)
  2. Target Development and Prioritization (COA Development)
  3. Capabilities Analysis (COA Analysis)
  4. Commander’s Decision and Force Assignment (Orders Production)
  5. Mission Planning and Force Execution
  6. Assessment (BDA, MOP, and MOE)
161
Q

Define the following terms: (Hard Kill & Soft Kill)

A

a) HARDKILL (Kinetic)
Is making a target non-capable physically, typically through whole or partial destruction. An example would a 500 pound bomb strike from an FA-18E.

b) SOFTKILL (Non-kinetic)
Is making a target non-capable through a means that leaves no physical damage. An example would be a Denial of Service attack versus a computer.

162
Q

Discuss the difference between MOE and MOP

A

Measures of Effectiveness (MOE)
Used to assess changes in system behavior, capability, or the operational environment. They are tied to measuring the attainment of an end state, achievement of an objective, or creation of an effect.

Measures of Performance (MOP)
Criteria for measuring task performance or accomplishment. MOPs are generally quantitative, but also can apply qualitative attributes to task accomplishment.

163
Q

State the position with overall authority of a NEO and how are they conducted?

A

The Department of State is responsible for the protection or evacuation of US citizens and nationals abroad and for safeguarding their overseas property abroad. NEOs usually involve swift insertion of a force, temporary occupation of an objective, and a planned withdrawal upon completion of the mission.

164
Q

Discuss how MISO supports a NEO

A

Efforts can facilitate the passage of pertinent information to noncombatant evacuees. Means include loudspeaker over-flights from aircraft, air dropped pamphlets, tv/radio broadcasts, etc.

165
Q

Define IDS and describe the two types

A

Intrusion Detection System (IDS) – A device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activity or policy violations and produces reports to a management station.

Active
IDS auto-responds to the suspicious activity by resetting the connection or by reprogramming the firewall to block network traffic from the suspected malicious source.

Passive
IDS detects a potential security breach, logs the information and signals an alert on the console or owner.

166
Q

State the responsibilities of the following IA Team (IAM/IAO/ISSO)

A

State the responsibilities of the following:
Information Assurance Manager (IAM)
In addition to satisfying all responsibilities of an Authorized User, he/she shall oversee all IAO’s, ensure security instructions, guidance and SOP’s are maintained ands implemented. Oversees all IAVA’s, security measures, evaluations, and accreditation.

Information Assurance Officer (IAO)
In addition to satisfying all responsibilities of an Authorized User, he/she shall assist the IAM in meeting the duties and responsibilities of network security.

Information System Security Officer (ISSO)
In addition to satisfying all responsibilities of an Authorized User, he/she shall configure and operate IA and IA-enabled technology in accordance with DoD information system IA Policies and establish and manage authorized user accounts for DoD information systems.

167
Q

Define the following malicious activities reportable to NCDOC

A

Zombie
A computer that has been compromised and used to perform malicious tasks under remote direction.

Bot
Used to spread email spam and launch Denial-of-Service attacks.

Zero Day Exploit
A threat or attack that exploits a previously unknown vulnerability in a computer application or operation system that developers have not had time to address and patch.

Spyware
Software that aids in gathering information about a person or organization without their knowledge. Used to send information to another entity or assert controls over a computer without knowledge.

Logic Bomb
A code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met.

168
Q

State the instruction that governs all computer network incident responses:

A

BHRINST 5239.1E

169
Q

State the application provided by NIAPS

A
eSOMS (Tag-out Module)
SKED 3.2 (3M Program)
FSM (Food Service Management)
TORIS (Training Officer Database)
Web ATIS (Equipment Publication)
FEDLOG (Federal Logistics)
CTA (Career Tools Afloat)
     -NKO Afloat
     -ETJ Afloat
     -FLTMPS Afloat
170
Q

Describe the functionality of RADMERC and how it interfaces with the SIPR network:

A

Radiant Mercury (RADMERC) - It classes and declasses information allowing users to transfer data between NIPR, SIPR, and JWICS.

171
Q

Describe the capabilities of GCCS-M infrastructure

A

COMMS1
Controls the input and output of all tracks

COMMS2
Backup of COMMS1

INTEL
Utilizing INTEL apps

WEBSVR
How you connect to the apps

172
Q

Describe the purpose of the following logs:

A

Firewall
To identify any traffic that passes through it by recording the information from packets that pass through or drop

Router
To identify any traffic that passes through by recording the on/off ship information

Server
To record a list of activities it performs

173
Q

Define and state the purpose of RAID:

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

Provides data redundancy or performance improvement

174
Q

State the purpose of the following basic DOS commands

A

Ping
Signal sent to test connectivity

Trace Route
Like a PING, but it shows all the different hops or routers in route

IPCONFIG
Used to list TCP/IP configurations

Telnet
Used to access a computer remotely

175
Q

List the four IP classes and range used by DoD:

A
Class A
IP Range: 1.X.X.X – 127.X.X.X
Class B
IP Range: 127.X.X.X – 191.X.X.X
Class C
IP Range: 192.X.X.X – 223.X.X.X
Class D
IP Range: 224.X.X.X – 254.X.X.X
176
Q

State the purpose of MIRC:

A

Microsoft Internet Relay Chat (MIRC):

Used on SIPR for Ship to Ship and Ship to Shore Live-Time Chat

177
Q

Define a loopback and default gateway

A

Loopback – Reroutes packets back to its source without intentional processing. Sometimes utilized to test a workstation’s NIC.

Default Gateway – A network point that acts as an entrance to another network.

178
Q

What is a private IP address?:

A

A private IP address cannot be used or accessed on the public Internet, but can be used on local networks

179
Q

Discuss the relationship between targeting and BDA

A

Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) – the estimate of damage resulting from the application of lethal or nonlethal military force. Battle damage assessment is composed of physical damage assessment, functional damage assessment, target system assessment.