Structural Birth Defects Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common congenital brain defect & what outcomes are seen in children

A

Agenesis of the corpus callousum, mild learning difficulties & normal intelligence to more severe such as cerebral palsy, intellectual disability, seizures, more severe learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a dandy walker malformation & what symptoms are seen in children

A

Brain malformation with cerebellum & fourth ventricle - underdevelopment of middle part of cerebellum & cystic enlargement of fourth ventricle & posterior fossa
Developmental delays, hypotonia, spasticity, ataxia, seizures, respiratory issues, microcephaly ( ID in about 50%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes a dandy walker malformation

A

Anueploidy, CNVs, single gene disorder, or unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is holoprosencephaly & what symptoms are seen in children

A

Failure of forebrain to develop & separate into two halves
ID, seizures, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, tooth abnormalities, clefts, endocrine abnormalities, most severe with cyclopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can cause holoprosencephaly

A

Maternal diabetes, anueploidy most commonly t13, single gene disorders, unknown
1/3 with chromosome anomalies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What symptoms are associated with microcephaly & what causes it

A

Delays or ID, failure to thrive, poor feeding, ataxia, abnormal muscle tone, speech delays, seizures, facial deformities, vision or hearing
Aneuploidy, CNVs, single gene disorders, infection , maternal PKU, trauma, unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a neural tube defect & what symptoms are associated

A

Opening in spine due to failure to close in development

Loss of feeling, weakness or paralysis in legs, bladder or bowel control problems, hydrocephalus, learning difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes neural tube defects

A

Usually multi factorial, aneuploidy, CNVs, poor folic acid intake, diabetes or obesity, teratogens, maternal fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When does cleft lip occur in development

A

4-7 weeks gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What fetal sex is more likely to have isolated cleft palate

A

Females 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes cleft lip with or without cleft palate

A

Usually multi factorial, can be caused by aneuploidy & single gene disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of cleft lip is associated with which aneuploidy

A

Median cleft lip is associated with trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What conditions are associated with cleft lip & palate

A

Stickler syndrome, trisomy 13 & 18, van Der woude syndrome, teacher collins, Pierre robin sequence, 22q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What percentage of cardiac defects are picked up on general ultrasound

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What percent of babies with t21, t18, t13 have birth defects

A

50%, 85-90%, 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is congenital pulmonary airway malformation

A

Rare abnormal bronchial proliferation that results in cysts or masses - micro cystic or macro cystic

17
Q

What is a congenital diaphragmatic hernia & what is it associated with

A

Hole in diaphragm allowing abdominal organs into chest
30% have other anomalies
Fryns syndrome, pallister killian syndrome, trisomies

18
Q

What is tracheoesophageal fistula associated with

A

VACTERL, CHARGE, pallister hall, 22q, trisomy 18/13/21

50% have another birth defect

19
Q

What is duodenal atresia & what is it associated with

A

Duodenum isn’t formed correctly, also called double bubble sign
20-30% associated with t21, also seen with other birth defects, polyhydramnios, low birth weight, premature birth

20
Q

What is meconium ileus & what is it associated with

A

Obstruction of bowel because meconium is thicker & sticker than normal & gets stuck in ileum
20% have cystic fibrosis

21
Q

When are abdominal wall defects usually diagnosed

A

10-14 weeks gestational age

22
Q

What are the differences between omphalocele & gastroschisis

A

Omohalocele -usually in center, membrane covered, 50% aneuploidy, 1/3 BWS
gastroschisis - usually to right, no membrane, rarely associated with other birth defects or conditions

23
Q

What are the differences between multi cystic & polycystic kidney disease

A

Multi- usually large cysts that do not connect, no renal pelvis present on exam, not usually inherited, kidneys do not work & often lethal if bilateral, can be associated with other anomalies
Poly- usually appears echogenic & enlarged on ultrasound, single cysts not identifiable, varying onset, can be PCKD, potter sequence, Mencken gruber

24
Q

What percent of renal agenesis has a genetic cause

A

1-2% chromosome anomaly, 10% genetic condition: Fraser, VACTERL, MURCS association

25
Q

What type of twins can have twin to twin transfusion syndrome & why

A

Monochorionic twins, because they share a placenta

26
Q

What symptoms do the receipt & donor twins have in TTTS

A

Recipient-polyhydramnios, cardiac enlargement or failure, hydrops, thickened blood, overall worse outcome
Donor - oligohydamnios, risk of organ failure, growth restriction