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Reproductive and Sexual Health > STIs > Flashcards

STIs Flashcards

To be able to list common presentations, investigations and treatment options for common STIs in the UK

1
Q

What causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

This is caused by an imbalance in the bacteria within the vagina (due to increased lactate production)

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2
Q

What signs can show bacterial vaginosis?

A

Positive KOH ‘whiff test’ - fishy odour on discharge Discharge may have bubbles, homogenous Increase in vaginal pH

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3
Q

What would a wet mount show?

A

Wet mount is when a sample of vaginal discharge is inspected under the microscope. There will likely be ‘CLUE CELLS’ - these are cells with a coccobaccilli coating (may make them look blurred) Lack of leucocytes - if there are some then think co-existent infection

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4
Q

Is bacterial vaginosis an STI?

A

no - so does not require treatment of partner

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5
Q

What can be complications of BV?

A

pelvic pain, upper reproductive organ inflammation, premature rupture of membranes, miscarriage, can increase risk of HIV

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6
Q

How is bacterial vaginosis treated?

A

Oral metronidazole for 7 days

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7
Q

What is the organism causing chlamydia? (give types)

A

chlamydia trachomatis (gram -ve)

A-C - affect eyes

D-K - affect genitals

L1-L3 = lymphgranuloma venereum (affects the lymph nodes)

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8
Q

What is the most common bacterial STI in the UK?

A

Chlamydia

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9
Q

How will chlamydia present?

A

70% of females and 50% of males are asymptomatic

Females: white mucopurulent cervicitis, intermenstrual/post-coital bleeding, dysparenuria (painful sex) and lower abdominal pain

Males: urethral discharge, urethritis, proctitis

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10
Q

What are complications of chlamydia?

A

PID - pelvic inflammatory disease

(if left untreated then a complication called Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome can develop - this is when there is inflammation of the liver capsule and adhesions form)

Cervicitis, endometritis, saphlingitis Can cause tubal damage (leading to infertilify and ectopic pregnancy) Reactive arthritis Congenital (pass to baby during delivery - born with conjunctivitis)

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11
Q

How is chlamydia diagnosed?

A

HVS or VV swab (self-obtained) or first pass urine +/- rectal swab MUST BE DONE 14 DAYS AFTER POSSIBLE INOCULATION

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12
Q

How would lymphogranuloma venereum present?

A

PR bleeding, proctitis, abdominal pain, lymphadenopathy, rectal discharge

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13
Q

How is chlamydia treated?

A

Azithromycin (1g dose) OR Doxycycline for 7 days (100mg BD)

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14
Q

What is a fungal infection that can affect the genitals?

A

Candida infection (most commonly C.albicans)

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15
Q

How will C.albicans look on microscopy?

A

Will have budding fungal cells with hyphae extensions

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16
Q

How will candida infection present?

A

Present with increasing itch and change to discharge in females Males will have a spotty rash

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17
Q

How is candida diagnosed?

A

Mainly a clinical diagnosis but can also be swabbed if necessary

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18
Q

How is candida treated?

A

Clotrimazole cream or Fluconazole oral (look for AZOLE in the name and think fungal treatment)

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19
Q

What are some risk factors for developing candida infection?

A

Poorly controlled diabetes, immunocompromised patients, recent antibiotic therapy (allows for opportunistic infection) and high oestrogen levels (pill or pregnancy)

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20
Q

What organism causes gonorrhoea?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea (gram negative diplococci)

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21
Q

How is gonorrhoea likely to be seen on gram film stain?

A

intracellularly as it is easily phagocytosed

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22
Q

What is the incubation period for Gonorrhoea?

A

2-5 days

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23
Q

How may someone present with gonorrhoea?

A

Females: pelvic pain, change to dicharge, dysuria

Males: purulent discharge and dysuria

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24
Q

What are coplications of gonorrhoea infection if untreated?

A

PID

tubal damage (infertility and ectopic)

miscarriage

passing to baby - conjunctivitis on delivery

proctitis

painful injection into testes

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25
Q

Where can both gonorrhoea and chlamydia infect?

A

Eyes, throat, rectum, urethra, endocervix

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26
Q

How do you treat gonorrhoea?

A

ceftriaxone (IM) and an antibiotic e.g. azithromicin (single dose no longer recommended)

(test of cure is recommended)

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27
Q

How is gonorrhoea diagnosed?

A

can be diagnosed via culture (endocervical swab or urethral swabs) - this will allow you to test against ABs to find appropriate treatment. Has 90% specificity for males but less for females (endocervical swab is also more invasive)

Can also be diagnosed via NAAT (urine or self-obtained vaginal swabs) - has higher sensitivity but cannot test against ABs

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28
Q

Describe the organism that causes syphilis

A

this is a spirochete shaped organism called Trepenoma Pallidum. It does not stain on gram stain so requires PCR, microscopy or serology for diagnosis.

It is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusion, trans-placental or can be contracted in health work

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29
Q

What are the stages of syphilis infection?

A
  1. Primary (chancre) - there will be a primary lesion at the site of infection called the chancre, may be asymptomatic
  2. Secondary - this occurs a few weeks after initial infection and may have symptoms of generalised flu, lymphadenopathy, snail trail ulcers, patchy alopecia, condylomata lata (genital warts)
  3. Latent - infection lays dormant and can reactivate - may self-cure at this point
  4. Late - coplications in the nervous system e.g. meningitis, stroke or dementia
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30
Q

Which is the most infective stage of syphilis infection?

A

Secondary - lesions will be oozing with t.pallidum

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31
Q

How is diagnosis of syphilis made?

A

Dark ground microscopy - look for spirochetes

PCR

Specific and non-specific serological testing

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32
Q

Describe indications for specific and non-specific serological tests?

A

Specific - to confirm diagnosis (include TPPA and TPHA)

Non-specific - to assess response to treatment (RPR)

ELISA IgM and IgG for screening tests

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33
Q

How is Syphilis treated?

A

penicillin (need this for a long time so can get long acting injectable preparations but need to be cautious of resistance)

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34
Q

How do you measure response to penicillin treatment in syphilis?

A

Measure the RPR (serological test)

should decrease 4 fold in 3-6 months

if reactivation of infection then will increase by 4 fold

35
Q

What is genital herpes caused by?

A

Caused by the HSV1 (also causes cold sores) or HSV2 virus.

36
Q

What are the symptoms of genital herpes? why?

A

Small very painful vesicles in the epithelium of genitals - this is because the virus will extend down autonomic sensory nerves to the surface, cause irritation and inflammation (why they are very painful)

37
Q

Why can genital herpes reactivate?

A

As it will lay dormant in the sacral root ganglion - more likely in HSV2 than HSV1

38
Q

What is key information about HSV2?

A

It will cause a more mild form of the disease (shorter duration - 5-7 days rather than 14-21 days) with less painful vesicles but it is more likely to reactivate

39
Q

How do you treat genital herpes?

A

Aciclovir +/- lidocaine for pain relief

40
Q

What is trichomonas vaginalis?

A

this is a single-celled protozoan parasite that will devide by binary fission

41
Q

How is trichomonas vaginalis diagnosed and treated?

A

HVS for microscopy (will have symptoms of irritation and change to vaginal discharge/urethritis)

oral metronidazole

42
Q

What is the presentation of pubic lice?

A

Will have increased itch in the pubic area - lice will bite and drink blood (causing irritation) and will lay eggs at the base of hair follicles

43
Q

How do you treat pubic lice?

A

malathion lotion

44
Q

What is the most common viral infection in the UK?

A

HPV

45
Q

Give examples of the main low and high risk forms of HPV?

A

low = 6, 11

high = 16, 18

46
Q

What can HPV infection cause?

A

anogenital warts, palmar/plantar warts, cellular dysplasia, endothelial neoplasm

47
Q

What is the incubation period for HPV infection?

A

anywhere between 3 weeks and 9 months

48
Q

>90% of anogenital warts are caused by….

A

HPV 6,11

49
Q

What are the clearance rates of HPV?

A

34% will clear spontaneously

60% will clear with treatment

20% will have persistent infection

50
Q

How do you treat HPV related warts?

A

podophyllotoxin (wartcon) or imiquimod or cryotherapy

51
Q

If a male <35 presents with prostitis what should you inspect for?

A

STI screen - prostitis is a rare complication of untreated STIs

52
Q

What causes HIV and what is targetted?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus targets CD4 protein which is primarily expressed on CD4+ helper T cells (although will also be present on macrophages, dendritic cells and microglia)

53
Q

What caused the global HIV pandemic?

A

HIV2

54
Q

If CD4 proteins are targetted by HIV what is the downstream effect?

A

CD4 proteins become inactive/dysfunctional so there is decreased activation of the helper T-cells. These are required in the activation of CD8 cytotoxic T-cells and will lead to impaired cytokine release and lack of adaptive immune response.

55
Q

What is the immune system like in HIV?

A

it is in a constant state of activation but will have impaired adaptive response. It will also be more susceptible to viral infections due to the reduction in activation of cytotoxic t-cells

56
Q

What are normal levels of CD4 t-cells and what is an abnormal level?

A

500-1600 cells/mm3

<200 will leave a person open to opportunistic infection

57
Q

When are viral replications of HIV at their highest?

A

in very early and very late stages of the disease

Initial infection occurs and viral load is high, then there will be a period of clinical latency where the CD4 t-cell count will grandually decrease. When the CD4 levels become <200 this allows for opportunistic infection and the HIV viral load to rocket.

58
Q

What is the first destination of HIV virus and where will it go?

A

HIV will enter the body through mucosal lymphoid tissue (attached to langerhans and dendritic cells). it will then be carried to the lymph nodes and within 3 days there will be widespread disseminated disease.

59
Q

When will symptoms set in and what symptoms will present?

A

2-4 weeks after initial infection

Fever, myalgia, rash (maculopapular), pharyngitis

very high rate of transmission

60
Q

What is an opportunistic infection?

A

An infection that would not normally illicit an infection

61
Q

Give example of some opportunistic infections experienced in late-stage HIV.

A

Pneumocystic pneumonia caused by pneumocystis jiroveci

TB

CMV

cerebral toxoplasmosis

neurological impairment (more common in HIV1)

62
Q

What is ‘slim’s disease’?

A

This is wasting associated with HIV and is due to a number of processes e.g. increased metabolism, malabsorption, anorexia (due to infection) and hypogonadism

63
Q

Give example of 3 AIDs related cancers

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma

Cervical cancer

64
Q

What is Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

This is cancer of the skin and internal organs caused by human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8)

Only affects HIV, immunocompromised or those with genetic predisposition

Small painles lesions purple in colour on the skin or mucosal surfaces

Symptoms of internal organs (SOB, chest pain, lymphoedema, nausea etc)

65
Q

What is non-hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

this is a cancer of the lymphocytes that is caused mainly by EBV. There will be painless swelling of lymph nodes in the neck, groin and armpits. also night sweats, SOB, weight loss, itching of skin, bleeding problems

66
Q

What is required for diagnosis of Non-hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Biopsy of lymph node, Blood, CT/MRI

PET and lumbar puncture may be indicated

67
Q

How is non-hodkin’s lymphoma (associated with HIV treated?)

A

Chemo +/- biological (rituximab) and HAART

68
Q

Why does cerival cancer increase in prevalence in HIV?

A

persistent HPV infection

69
Q

What are the modes of transmission for HIV?

A

Sexual (96%) - anoreceptive, ulceration, trauma or concurrent STIs will increase chance of contraction

Parenternal - shared needles, blood products

Mother to child - in-utero or through delivery or breast milk, 1 in 4 will contract and 33% of these will die before first birthday

70
Q

When is screening appropriate?

A

In high risk populations (MSM, TOP clinics, drug dependent)

Areas of high prevalence

Clinical symptoms suggest

71
Q

Explain the life cycle of HIV virus

A
  1. attaches onto the CD4 receptor of host cell
  2. Release RNA into host cell which is then transcripted by reverse transcriptase into DNA
  3. integrates into host cell DNA by integrase
  4. Host cell now makes the viral proteins, these can be cleaved (into virians) and pass into other cells to infect further
72
Q

Which step gives HIV a survival advantage?

A

Transcription by reverse transcriptase as there is no modulation of mistakes (proof reading) so these mistakes can sometimes give a survival advantage

73
Q

What are some targets of HIV treatment?

A

Reverse transcriptase (NRTI or NNRTI)

Integrase (inhibitors)

Proteases (inhibitors)

Entry (CCr5 receptor on cell - prevents HIV from binding to the cell) (inhibitors)

74
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly active anti-retroviral treatment - this is a combination of 3 medications from at least 2 different drug classes. This is to try avoid resistance.

75
Q

Which is the most potent class of HIV drug?

A

protease inhibitors - have more side effects (mainly GI)

76
Q

What is imperitive to HIV treatment?

A

COMPLIANCE - as soon as there are missed pills then there is opportunity to build up resistance

If you know someone will not be compliant then put on a protease inhibitor as these are the least likely to cause resistance.

77
Q

What can increase compliance?

A

formulations of drugs into one tablet

78
Q

What can be used when had sex with an HIV positive person NOT being treated?

When would this be ineffective?

A

PEP - post-exposure prophylaxis

Ineffective after 72 hrs (like the morning after pill but for HIV)

79
Q

What is the rate of transmission if on treatment?

A

If undetectable viral load then virtually zero

80
Q

How is pregnancy and conception affected by HIV treatment?

A

Without treatment risk of transmission to child is 1 in 4, with treatment then risk of transmission is less than 1 in 100 . (<1%)

Some HIV drugs can be teratogenic so need to have medication review before conceiving

81
Q

What is given to neonates of HIV positive mothers?

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis for 4 weeks after birth

if mum has detectable viral load then 3 drugs

if mum has undetectable viral load then 1 drug

82
Q

What can be done to prevent infections in HIV positive patients apart from HAART?

A

STI screening

Smoking cessation

Vaccine (hep, hpv, flu etc)

Encourage smoking of drugs over injection (prevents sharing of needles)

83
Q

How long can an HIV virus lay latent for?

A

around 8 years

84
Q
A

Reproductive and Sexual Health (27 decks)

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