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Penn Foster > Sterile Processing > Flashcards

Sterile Processing Flashcards

1
Q

The sterile processing department may be known by many names such as?

A

Sterile department
Central Service (CS)
Central Service Supply (CSS)
Surgical supply and processing

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2
Q

The patient is our highest concern. We ensure that every instrument that’s decontaminated, assembled, packaged, sterilized, is done?

A

Strictly according to basic practices and principles

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3
Q

What is strictly prohibited in the sterile processing department?

A

Shortcuts

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4
Q

As a sterile processing technician, you will be exposed to

A

Hazardous chemicals
Thermal equipment
Microorganisms
Bloodborne pathogens

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5
Q

Ensuring that you follow proper procedures and protocols is necessary to prevent

A

safety issues

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6
Q

the sterile processing department is responsible for

A
  • Quality patient care
  • providing services in medical facilities
  • Supplies, equipment, instruments, and other products to all departments in need.
    *
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7
Q

The workflow in the sterile processing department is designed to prevent

A

cross-contamination

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8
Q

Typically, sterile processing departments have three main areas:

A

Decontamination
Preparation, packaging, and sterilization
Sterile storage

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9
Q
A

Soiled area
Clean area

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10
Q

Proper flow within the sterile processing department is critical to providing

A

safe patient care

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11
Q

The systematic flow (Decontamination, Assembly/Preparation, and Sterile Storage) can reduce the risk of , or , from occurring

A

nosocomial
healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)

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12
Q

These are infections that occur after a patient has been admitted into a hospital, typically developing after a surgical or medical procedure, such as a catheter insertion.

A

nosocomial or healthcare-associated infections

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13
Q

If a patient gets an infection while in the hospital, Medicaid or Medicare will pay the hospital for treating it. So, the hospital doesnt have to cover the cost themselves. True or False

A

False, they wont pay the hospital and the hospital has to pay

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14
Q

Infection is spread through three routes:

A

Airborne transmission
Direct physical contact transmission
Droplet transmission

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15
Q

Airborne illness spreads from person to person through the air. Influenza and colds are very common during the winter months, and exposure is almost certain.

A

Airborne transmission

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16
Q

Illnesses that you can get from Airborne transmission

A

Measles
Chicken Pox
Common Cold
Tuberculosis

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17
Q

Illnesses that you can get from Direct Physical Contact

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli)
Conjunctivitis (pink eye)

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18
Q

Some diseases are caused by microorganisms that are spread by person-to-person contact or indirect contact with contaminated objects.

A

Direct Physical Contact Transmission

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19
Q

Illnesses that you can get from droplet transmission

A

Influenza
Strep Throat

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20
Q

Droplets are within the infected person’s sputum (saliva and mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract). If the person sneezes or coughs, contaminated droplets are released into the air and can then be inhaled by another person.

A

Droplet transmission

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21
Q

The most serious airborne pathogen found in the healthcare setting is , which usually affects the lungs.

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

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22
Q

What type of bacteria is dispersed into the air when an infected person coughs, sneezes, laughs, or sings.

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

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23
Q

Close contact with a person who has untreated or undiagnosed TB increases the risk that a healthy person might be

A

infected

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24
Q

All healthcare workers with patient contact are required to receive blank at a minimum annually.

A

TB Skin Test

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25
Q

TB SKin Test confirms if the healthcare worker has potentially been

A

exposed or obtained the infectious diseaase

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26
Q

Fecal matter can contain the bacteria

A

E. Coli

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27
Q

Only proper handwashing after exposure to E. Coli can prevent

A

the spread from person to person

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28
Q

practicing what is critical for patient care?

A

Morals and Ethics

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29
Q

Showing good morals means the ability to practice

A

good behavior

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30
Q

Workplace bullying through the use of physical force, intimidation, or emotional bullying.
is this good or bad behavior in the sterile processing department

A

Bad Behavior

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31
Q

Treating your peers with dignity and respect while communicating in a manner to boost productivity and efficiency within the workplace.
Is this good or bad behavior in the sterile processing department?

A

Good behavior

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32
Q

apply to the individual’s internal beliefs of what’s right or wrong

A

Morals

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33
Q

guiding principles of what’s universally known to be right or wrong behavior

A

Ethics

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34
Q

Sterile processing technicians can ensure they’re practicing good morals and professional ethics in several ways, including include:

A

Keeping patient information confidential
Ensuring that work is completed efficiently and accurately
Demonstrating accountability for wrongdoings by not blaming others for one’s mistakes
Complying with policies, standards, and regulations
Behaving in a dignified, responsible, considerate, honest, and professional way

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35
Q

All employees should behave in a courteous and ethical manner toward one another, regardless of any cultural differences. True or False

A

True

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36
Q

Some facilities does not require mandatory professional development on cultural compliance.

A

False, they do require mandatory professional development on culture compliance.

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37
Q

It’s unethical to discuss patient information with anyone, even fellow employees, unless it’s specific to the patient’s care. True or False

A

True

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38
Q

Not following proper maintenance of patients confidentially guidelines can result in termination, legal fines, and/or imprisonment. True or false

A

True

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39
Q

It’s unethical to steal hospital items or damage the facility’s property. If you see anyone stealing, it should be reported immediately to a supervisor. True or False

A

True

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40
Q

Never clock anyone in or out. You’re only responsible for clocking yourself in. Clocking your coworkers in and out is considered unethical behavior. This is prohibited within the workplace and can lead to termination of both employees involved. True or False

A

True

41
Q

Not wearing the correct personal protection equipment when appropriate
Accepting favors from outside vendors in exchange for the purchase of their products
Distributing patient information for the purpose of selling it
These are examples of c

A

Unethical practices

42
Q

set of rules enforceable for a group, mandated by law.

A

Regulations

43
Q

Organizations that issue regulations that the sterile processing department must follow include:

A

Environmental Protection Agency
HIPAA
US Food and Drug Administration

44
Q

determined by opinion, research, or a collection of thoughts based on a hierarchy group of personnel to establish certain protocols and procedures within an industry.

A

Standards

45
Q

Standards are not mandated by

A

The law

46
Q

An example of a professional organization that issues national standards that apply to sterile processing is the

A

Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI)

47
Q

A federal agency that issues standards for sterile processing departments to follow is the

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

48
Q

procedures that have been determined to be the best in ensuring the highest quality of patient care and safety based on scientific data

A

Recommended practices

49
Q

Are recommended practices mandated by the law?

A

No

50
Q

Professional organizations that establish recommended best practices include the

A

Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI)
Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)
Healthcare Sterile Processing Association (HSPA)
Society of Gastroenterology Nurses and Associates (SGNA)

51
Q

responsible for establishing and issuing regulations that protect the environment.

A

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

52
Q

The EPA is responsible for regulating the use of environmental disinfectants such as , chemicals used to sterilize instrumentation, and sporicides.

A

Ethylene oxide (EO)

53
Q

Before any of these products can be sold or marketed, they first must be approved by the

A

EPA

54
Q

The EPA’s regulations fall under the

A

Clean Air Act

55
Q

One of the primary purposes of the Clean Air Act is to establish

A

clean air on a national level by controlling the amount of pollutants released into the air.

56
Q

enforces rules to ensure the safe use of medications and medical devices

A

The food and drug administration (FDA)

57
Q

Injuries or deaths that occur through the use of defective medical devices are

A

Tracked and documented

58
Q

an FDA program that enforces mandatory reporting of defective medical devices and drugs.

A

MedWatch

59
Q

Medical devices are initially reviewed by the sterile processing department before they’re used on

A

Patients

60
Q

Any medical device used on patients must be accompanied by an , which is kept stored in the sterile processing department

A

Instructions for Use (IFU) document

61
Q

IFUs provide blank on how to properly clean, decontaminate, and sterilize medical devices.

A

Specific instructions

62
Q

Workplace safety is a key goal of the

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

63
Q

enforces how workplace hazards and bloodborne pathogens are managed in the workplace.

A

OSHA

64
Q

Exposure limits to ethylene oxide are also regulated by blank. Overexposure to this chemical can result in cancer.

A

OSHA

65
Q

Other substances and hazards regulated by OSHA include

A

Glutaraldehyde
Ozone
Sharps such as blades, needles, and sutures
Alcohols
Hydrogen peroxide

66
Q

Sterile processing technicians must also be knowledgeable of blank and for each chemical to which they’re exposed

A

Fire and reactivity hazards

67
Q

All materials within the sterile processing department must be listed on a document that describes the ingredients of the chemical and any potential risks associated with the chemical. This information is provided on what’s known as a

A

Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

68
Q

Fire and reactivity risks, in addition to appropriate ways to dispose of and clean up the chemicals, are also located on the

A

SDS

69
Q

An important OSHA mandate is that blank be placed in all healthcare facilities where exposure to a hazardous material is possible.

A

Eyewash stations

70
Q

It’s important to know where the are located in your department.

A

Eyewash stations

71
Q

If you’re exposed, you should use the blank immediately to limit your risk of contracting disease or overexposure to dangerous chemicals.

A

Eyewash station

72
Q

provides guidelines on proper handwashing techniques and other recommended practices for infection control.

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

73
Q

The CDC has classified medical devices as critical, semi-critical, or noncritical according to

A

Spaulding principles

74
Q
A

Critical items
Semicritical items
Noncritical items

75
Q

a nonprofit organization that accredits more than 20,000 healthcare organizations in the United States. It’s responsible for evaluating these organizations to confirm and reinforce that the highest standards of care are being provided by providers and hospital employees in all areas.

A

Joint Commission

76
Q

What are the primary goals of the Joint Commission?

A

To reduce medical errors, address health and safety concerns, limit wrong-site surgeries, and minimize hospital-acquired infections

77
Q

who performs anticipated and unannounced site inspections to ensure that organizations are following their standards?

A

The joint commission

78
Q

You may be asked by an inspector to state departmental policies on the , , , and blank during an evaluation.

A

cleaning, decontaminating, disinfecting, and sterilization process

79
Q

If a hospital fails to demonstrate all applicable standards per Joint Commission protocols and procedures, it runs the risk of not obtaining? What can it also face?

A

initial accreditation or accreditation renewal
It can also face revocation of accreditation

80
Q

Participating in continuing education to become more familiar with the Joint Commission’s standards and procedures can prevent a

A

failed site visit

81
Q

What are the two critical elements to ensure that patients’ health data and/or medical records remain secure?

A

Privacy and Security

82
Q

```

~~~

What act sets minimum federal standards for both the provacy and security of protected health information (PHI)?

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

83
Q

What act modified some parts of HIPAA and added the requirement that patients receive a notification if their privacy is breached?

A

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act

84
Q

PHI includes

A

Health info sent electronically
Health info stored electronically
Health info sent or stored in other ways, like paper records

85
Q

Name
Street address and zip code
Date of birth
Age
Telephone number (home, work, mobile)
Email address (if provided or requested)
Health plan number, including Medicare or Medicaid ID number
Diagnosis or diagnosis code(s)
Complete History and Physical (H&P)
Social Security number

These are common types of what maintained by healthcare facilities

A

Protected Health Information (PHI)

86
Q

Privacy is a patient’s legal right. This means that under no circumstances should the sharing and distribution of a patient’s PHI occur. It doesn’t matter whether it’s paper or electronic data, or even verbal communications; sharing of PHI is strictly prohibited by law. The security of PHI has to do with the safeguards a healthcare facility uses to keep patient information confidential. True or False

A

True

87
Q

Shredding paper waste, using privacy filters on computer screens visible to customers, limiting the number of employees who have full access to patient records, encrypting computer files that contain PHI, and using employee numbers and passwords for login to track viweing of patient records and PHI is an example of?

A

Safeguards

88
Q

an opportunity for individuals to make complaints concerning the department’s policies and procedures or its compliance with the policies and procedures

A

Complaint process

89
Q

employees who fail to comply with the privacy policies and procedures or the requirements of the HIPAA rules.

A

Sanctions Process

90
Q

it’s a HIPAA violation to discuss patient status or information in hallways, elevators, or cafeterias. It’s also a HIPAA violation to view medical records of friends or family members. True or False

A

True

91
Q

Who assist with maintaining HIPAA regulations

A

Privacy Officers

92
Q
  • Work with the owner/manager to assess the facility’s current operations and identify areas that need to be addressed to comply with HIPAA
  • Act upon patient requests for access to and photocopies of medical records
  • Answer patient questions about HIPAA
  • Respond in a timely fashion to patient complaints
  • Establish an efficient filing systems for all forms and documents
  • Assist other staff members with questions for all forms and documents
  • Monitor any changes in the HIPAA requirements and make necessary changes accordingly

These are responsibilties of a?

A

Privacy Officer

93
Q

Patients may request copies of their PHI maintained by the facility. the healthcare facility has the option to accept or deny these requests. True or False

A

True

94
Q

Patients have the right to request amendments to the PHI contained in the records if they believe that the PHI is incorrect or inaccurate. Facility can accept or deny the request. True or False

A

True

95
Q

patients have a right to place limitations on the facility’s disclosure of their PHI and request that the office communicates with them in a confidential manner. True or False

A

True

96
Q

When a state law doesn’t need a parent or guardian’s permission for a minor to get certain treatments (like HIV testing or mental health services), the minor has control over the related information. True or False

A

true

97
Q

When a court or another law allows someone other than the parent to decide on treatment for a minor, that person or entity then has control over the information linked to that treatment.

A

True

98
Q

When a parent or personal representative agrees to a confidential relationship between a healthcare provider and a minor, the parent or personal representative doesn’t have access to information associated with that agreement, unless the minor permits it. True or False

A

True

Penn Foster (20 decks)

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