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Step 1 Questions > Step1 questions general pathology > Flashcards

Step1 questions general pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Caudal Regression Syndrome

A

sacral aegenesis, lower extremity paralysis, urinary incontenence; poorly controlled maternal diabetes

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2
Q

staph protein A

A

Bind fc portion of IgG preventing activation of compliment.

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3
Q

osteoporosis risk factors

A

smoking, menopause, corticosteroid, no exercise, caucasian, low BMI, alcohol

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4
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

Deposition of circulating complement-fixing immune complexes

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5
Q

Serum sickness

A

Type III hypersensitivity: fever, urticaria, arthralgias, glomerulonephritis and lymphadenopathy 5-10 days after exposure

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6
Q

Pathophysiology of acne

A

Follicular epidermal hyperproliferation, excessive sebum production, inflammation, propionibacterium acne

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7
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A

Abnormal collagen formation (I or IV) which manifest with hypermobile joints, hyperelastic skin, fragile tissue causing easy bruises and wounding.

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8
Q

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, pain out of proportion to physical findings.

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9
Q

Pathophysiology of Chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

Similar to stable angina which is caused by atherosclerosis. In this case pain due to intestinal hypoperfusion during meals when more blood is needed for digestion.

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10
Q

wilson disease

A

Autosomal recessive, ATP7B mutation on chromosome 13, accumulation of Cu causing free radial damage in liver. Cu deposits in cornea(Kayser-Fleicher rings) and basal ganglia(parkinsonian symptoms).

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11
Q

Adenoma to carcinoma sequencein colon adenocarcinomas

A

1.from normal mucosa to small polyp (APC), 2.increase in size of the polyps(K-ras), 3.malignant transformation (p53 n DCC)

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12
Q

Coagulative infarct in kidney (wedge-shaped lesion)

A

Due to emboli from left heart

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13
Q

Lesion are result of chronic sun exposure and precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Basal cell atypia, hyperkeratosis(hyperplasia of the stratum corneum) and parakeratosis(abnormal retention of cell nucei in stratun corneum).

A

Actinic Keratoses

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14
Q

Late onset Differential Cyanosis

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (Left-to-right shunt reversal to Right-to-left) due to resultant pulmonery hypertension

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15
Q

Coarctation of the Aorta

A

presents as blood pressure discrepancy between upper and lower extremities. If presewnt with Ductus arterious, it causes differential cyanosis in infancy.

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16
Q

Syringomyelia

A

Formation of cerebrospinal fluid-filled cavities in the cervical region of the spinal cord especially the ventral white commissure anf the ventral horn.

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17
Q

Destruction of Ventral white commissure

A

Loss of pain and temperature sensation in the arms and hands bilateral

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18
Q

Destruction of motor neurons in ventral horns

A

Flacid paralysis and atrophy of intrinsic muscles of hand and LMN signs

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19
Q

Holoprosencephaly (fused cerebral hemispheres), single ventricle, fused basal ganglia ae examples of:

A

Malformation: primary defect in cell that form an organ.

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20
Q

What is Holopronsencephaly associated with?

A

Trisomy 13(patau), trisomy 18(Edward’s, fetal alcohol syndrome.

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21
Q

Amniotic band syndrome

A

disruption or secondary destruction of well-formed organ

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22
Q

Potter syndrome

A

Sequence: low volume amniotic fluid causes fetal compression by the uterus resulting in flattened facies, abnormal limbs and hypoplastic lungs.

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23
Q

Acute and painless monocular vision loss. Pale retina and cherry-red macula.

A

Central retinal artery occlusion. Central retinal artery is a branch of the ophtalmicartery which arises from the internal carotid artery. Macula has a separate blood supply from the choroid artery.

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24
Q

Bilateral wedge-shaped bands of necrosis over the cerebral convenxity, lateral to the interhemispheric fissure. Located on watershed ares.

A

Ischemic-hypoxic encephalopathy due to profound cerebral hypoperfusion.

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25
Q

Gallstone ileus pathology

A

Large gallstone erodes into the intestinal lumen through a cholecystoenteric fistula

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26
Q

Gallstone ileus findings

A

Intestinal gas pattern consistent with intestinal obstruction AND air in the biliary tree (pneumobilia).

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27
Q

Painless waxing and waning lymphadenopathy, T(14;18), overexpression of bcl-2 oncogene.

A

Non-hodgkin follicular lymphoma of B cell origin.

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28
Q

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

Panacinar emphysema secondary to destruction of alveolar walls by tissue-damaging enzymes. (interalveolar septa destruction) ALSO, liver disease (PAS stained unsecreted granules in periportal hepatocytes)

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30
Q

Stain dark blue for hemosiderin

A

Prussian blue

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31
Q

Turner syndrome

A

Bicuspid aortic valve, short stature, short and thick neck, broad chest and short fourth metacarpal

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32
Q

Hemolytic-uremic Syndrome

A

Common cause of acute renal failure in children. Characterized by triad of acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. Associated with shiga toxin-producing organisms like E-coli and shigella dysenteriae.

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33
Q

Hemolytic-uremic Syndrome Pathogens

A

Shiga toxin-producing organism like E.coli and Shigella dysenteriae.

34
Q

Patient with obstructive sleep apnea, which organ is responsible for increased hematocrit?

A

kidney, peritubular cells in renal cortex snese hypoxia and respond by releasing erythropoietin which stimulates erythrocyte production in bone marrow.

35
Q

Pathophys of vitiligo

A

loss of melanocytes

36
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors

A

II, VII, IX, X

37
Q

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells

A

Type 1 diabetes. Islet destruction by T lymphocytes, yet antibodies against islet antigens can be detected in the serum.

38
Q

early detection of diabetic neprhopathy

A

Albumin

39
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Low-output failure, increased TPR, cold, clammy pt due to vasoconstriction

40
Q

Septic shock

A

High output failure, decreased TPR, hot pt and vasodilation

41
Q

treatment of iron poisoning

A

Deferoxamine

42
Q

what is cachexia mediated by?

A

INF gamma, TNF alpha and IL6

43
Q

Tumor grade

A

Cellular differentiation

44
Q

Tumor Stage

A

Most important prognostic factor. Localizationa nspread. TNM.

45
Q

oncogene abl

A

CML

46
Q

oncogene c-myc

A

Burkitt’s

47
Q

oncogene bcl-2

A

follicular lymphoma

48
Q

Her2/neu oncogene

A

breast, ovarian and gastric carcinomas

49
Q

ras oncogene

A

Colon cancer

50
Q

L-myc and N-myc oncogene

A

Lung tumor and Neuroblastoma

51
Q

ret oncogene

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia 2A n2B

52
Q

c-kit oncogene

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumor

53
Q

APC tumor supressor gene

A

colorectal cancer

54
Q

HBV and HCV associated cancer

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

55
Q

EBV ass. Cancer

A

burkitt’s lymphoma, hodgkin’s lymphoma, naso[haryngeal carcinoma and CNS lymphoma

56
Q

HPV asso. Cancer

A

cervical carcinoma, upper respiratory SCC

57
Q

HHV-8 asso. Cancer

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

58
Q

H.pylori asso. Cancer

A

gastric adenocarcinoma and lymphoma

59
Q

schistosoma haematobium asso. Cancer

A

bladder cancer

60
Q

Paraneoplastic of small cell lung carcinoma

A

ACTH, ADH, antibodies against presynaptic Calcium at NMJ causing a lambert eaton syndrome

61
Q

paraneoplastic of squamous cell lung carcinoma

A

PTH

62
Q

paraneoplastic of hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

vitD3

63
Q

paraneoplastic of renal cell carcinoma

A

EPO

64
Q

Pt with upper abdominal discomfort, Gastric biopsy in urea containing solution caused the pH to increase

A

Helicobacter pylori infection. Urease converts the urea to carbon dioxide and ammonia and cause and increase in pH.

65
Q

Most common type of kidney stones

A

CALCIUM: Calcium oxolate and calcium phosphate

66
Q

Lab. Abnormalities with calcium kidney stone

A

Normocalcemia and hypercalciuria

67
Q

Pt with severe chest pain not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, diaphoresis, dyspnea and nausea. ST segment elevation and deep Q development. Cause?

A

Fully obstructive thrombus superimposed on a ruptured atherosclerotic cononary artery plaque

68
Q

Pt with severe chest pain not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin, diaphoresis, dyspnea and nausea.

A

Acute transmural myocardial infarction

69
Q

stable angina

A

stable atheromatous lesion without overlying thrombus but obstructing greater than 75% of coronary lumen.

70
Q

Pt with progressive exertional dyspnea, decreased forved vital capacity, attenuated alpha-1 antitrypsin fraction

A

Panacinar emphysema: form of COPD

71
Q

lobes affected by panacinar emphysema

A

lower lobes because they get greater perfusion allowing more neutrophils

72
Q

lobes affected by centriacina emphysema

A

upper lung lobes and strong association with chornic smoking

73
Q

Pt with episode of gross hematuria and family history of sickle cell disease?

A

Papillary necrosis

74
Q

Causes of papillary necrosis

A

Sickle cell disease or trait, alagesic nephropathy (phenacetin), diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis and urinary tract obstruction.

75
Q

blue sclerae and history of several fractures

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta, autosomal dominant inheritance

76
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta primary impairment?

A

Bone matrix formation due to defective collagen type I.

77
Q

Pt with right lower quadrant pain, vaginal bleeding, last menstrual period 7 weeks ago, history of pelvic inflammatory disease, signs of hemorrhagic shock, endometrium would most likely reveal?

A

Decidualized endometrium aka gestational due to rupture of ectopic pregnancy

78
Q

Main risk factor for ectopic pregnancy

A

History of pelvic inflammatory disease

79
Q

Where is H. pylori located In the stomach

A

gastric antrum

Step 1 Questions (5 decks)

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