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[8] BACTERIAL SPECIES > Staphylococcaceae and Micrococcus species > Flashcards

Staphylococcaceae and Micrococcus species Flashcards

1
Q

Staphylococcal infections of the skin

A

pyogenic

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2
Q

inflamed, fibrous lesion enclosing a core of pus restricted to ostia

A

abscess

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3
Q

a mild inflammation of the superficial dermis of the hair follicles

A

Folliculitis

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4
Q

characterized by the presence of small, reddish, painful lesions and the absence of systemic symptoms

A

Folliculitis

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5
Q

If folliculitis occurs in the eyelid, it is referred to as

A

stye (or sty).

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6
Q

a chronic or relapsing inflammatory disease of the skin, involving the apocrine gland-bearing areas axillae, groin, perineal

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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7
Q

characterized by presence of multiple lesions associated with blocked and infected apocrine sweat glands

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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8
Q

local pain (swelling and erythema) = present

systemic symptoms (fever) = absent.

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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9
Q

little thief

A

furunculus

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10
Q

is a

deeper-seated infection of the hair follicles

A

Furuncle

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11
Q

boil

A

Furuncle

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12
Q

results when the inflammation of single hair follicle or sebaceous gland progresses into a large, red, extremely tender abscess or pustule

A

Furuncle

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13
Q

Furuncles often appear in clusters where skin rubs against other skin or clothing

A

furunculosis

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14
Q

little coal

A

carbunculus

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15
Q

a larger and deeper lesion created by aggregation and interconnection of a cluster of furuncles

A

Carbuncle

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16
Q

found in areas of which tough skin such as on the back of the neck

A

Carbuncle

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17
Q

not confined to follicles and skin glands

A

Impetigo

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18
Q

to attack

A

impetus

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19
Q

characterized by bubble-like epidermal sweeping that can break and peel away like a localized form of scalded skin syndrome

A

Impetigo

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20
Q

present on exposed areas

A

Impetigo

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21
Q

autoinoculation

A

Impetigo

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22
Q

two forms of Impetigo

A

non-bullous and bullous

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23
Q

begins as a single red macule (patch) or papule that quickly becomes a vesicle

A

Non-bullous impetigo

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24
Q

vesicle rupture and forms an erosion

A

Non-bullous impetigo

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25
Q

honey-colored crusts with erythematous
(reddish) margins that may be pruritic
(itchy)

A

Non-bullous impetigo

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26
Q

a localized form of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome that common affects neonates

A

Bullous impetigo

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27
Q

bullae/blister with sharp margins with no

surrounding erythema

A

Bullous impetigo

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28
Q

yellow crust with oozing

A

Bullous impetigo

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29
Q

found in moist, intertriginous areas (diaper area)

A

Bullous impetigo

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30
Q

ingestion of pre-formed toxin

A

food intoxication

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31
Q

gastrointestinal illness caused by eating foods contaminated with toxins

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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32
Q

food intoxication rather than a food-borne infection

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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33
Q

acute symptoms that appear in 2 to 6 hours after ingestion of the toxin-contaminated food

A

Staphylococcal food poisoning

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34
Q

is often projectile, and diarrhea is less frequent

A

Emesis (vomiting)

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35
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning recovery is rapid, usually within

A

24 hours.

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36
Q

associated with eating foods contaminated by handling and then left unrefrigerated for a few hours

A

Staphylococcal food poisoningv

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37
Q

even foods that contain salt as a food preservative are not exempt

A

high salt tolerance

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38
Q

toxins produced by the multiplying bacteria does not alter the food’s

A

taste or smell

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39
Q

Ritter’s disease

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

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40
Q

seen in neonates

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

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41
Q

characterized by widespread erythema and the appearance of bullous lesions

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

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42
Q

exposure of large areas of d e n u d e d ( s t r i p p e d o f surface layers) and raw skin

A

Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)

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43
Q

occurs and symptoms wane

over 5-7 days

A

desquamation

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44
Q

a flu-like illness characterized by fever,
hypotension, and rash on the skin that
resembles a sunburn

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

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45
Q

the rash is followed by desquamation 1 – 2 weeks after onset

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

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46
Q

involvement of multiple (three or more) organ systems with varying symptoms of vomiting, diarrhea, renal failure, headache, chills, sore throat and
conjunctivitis

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

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47
Q

disease was noted most frequently

in women, with onset mainly occurring during menstruation; high-absorbancy tampons during menses

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

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48
Q

was reported in males and females as complication of staphylococcal abscesses or systemic infections

A

non-menstrual-associated TSS

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49
Q

spreading from a local cutaneous infection to other sites

A

focal pattern

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50
Q

Miscellaneous Systemic Infections

A 
osteomyelitis
pneumonia
bacteremia
endocarditis
arthritis
meningitis
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51
Q

polysaccharides; electron microscopy

A

Microcapsule

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52
Q

mediates attachment to host cells or tissues, and inhibits phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

Microcapsule

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53
Q

specific antibodies

A

Microcapsule

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54
Q

a bacterial surface protein

A

Protein A

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55
Q

binds to the Fc portion of IgG, leaving the IgG no longer capable of binding to
Fc receptor on phagocytes (preventing
opsonization)

A

Protein A

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56
Q

blocks complement fixation

A

Protein A

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57
Q

nactivates toxic hydrogen peroxide and free radicals formed by the
myloperoxidase system

A

Catalase

58
Q

promotes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin causing plasma to clot

A

Coagulase

59
Q

Fibrin coat the bacterial cells, hiding their antigenic surface, thus protecting
them from

A

phagocytosis and immune response.

60
Q

hydrolyze DNA

A

. Deoxyribonuclease (DNase)

61
Q

facilitates the spread of bacteria by liquefying and decreasing the viscosity of abscess materials

A

. Deoxyribonuclease (DNase)

62
Q

“spreading factor”

A

Hyaluronidase

63
Q

hydrolyzes the intercellular matrix of acid mucopolysaccharides (hyaluronic acid) in tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

64
Q

spreads the organism to adjacent areas in tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

65
Q

hydrolyzes lipids and help the spread of the organism in cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues

A

Lipase

66
Q

a plasminogen activator

A

Staphylokinase

67
Q

dissolves fibrin clot (a fibrinolysin)

A

Staphylokinase

68
Q

Localized fibtinolysis might aid in the spread of infection to contiguous tissues

A

Staphylokinase

69
Q

affects tissues of the host making them more susceptible to damage and destruction by complement components and products

A

Phosphatidylinositol-specific phospholipase C

70
Q

affects tissues of the host making them more susceptible to damage and destruction by complement components and products

A

β-lactamase

71
Q

is under plasmid-control transmitted by transduction and conjugation a

A

β-lactamase

72
Q

provides resistance to β-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin, penicillin derivatives (penams), and cephalosporins.

A

β-lactamase

73
Q

β-lactam antibiotics have a common element in their molecular structure: : a four-atom ring known as a β-lactam

A

hydrolysis

74
Q

the β-lactamase breaks the β-lactam ring open, deactivating the molecule’s

A

antibacterial properties

75
Q

specific type of β-lactamase, showing specificity for penicillins

A

Penicillinase

76
Q

The hemolysins lyse red blood cells

A

Blood Cell Toxins (Hemolysins and Leukocidins)

77
Q

damage cell membranes of neutrophils and macrophages, causing them to lyse

A

Leukocidins

78
Q

help incapacitate the host’s phagocytic line of defense

A

Blood Cell Toxins (Hemolysins and Leukocidins)

79
Q

Note that the Greek letter used for the staphylococcal hemolysins do not correspond to the Greek letters describing general patterns of hemolysis in

A

blood agar medium

80
Q

is heterogeneous protein that facilitates formation of pores on the target eukaryotic cell membrane

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

81
Q

osmotic swelling and rupture of the cell.

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

82
Q

potent toxin lyses red blood cells of various mammals and damages monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, skeletal muscle, heart, and renal tissue as well

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

83
Q

active against thrombocytes (platelets); may contribute to septic thrombotic events during S. aureus bacteremia

A

⍺ (alpha)-Hemolysin

84
Q

sphingomyelinase that degrades

sphingomyelin in the cell membrane

A

(beta)-Hemolysin

85
Q

protein exotoxin - “hot-cold” hemolysin

A

(beta)-Hemolysin

86
Q

hemolytic properties - red blood cells to low temperatures

A

(beta)-Hemolysin

87
Q

is known to encode the toxin

A

lysogenic bacteriophage

88
Q

cytotoxic not only to human erythrocytes but as well as to monocytes

A

(beta)-Hemolysin

89
Q

result from disruption of host cell

plasma membrane fluidity

A

Cell death

90
Q

inactive against granulocytes, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts

A

(beta)-Hemolysin

91
Q

surfactant or a detergent-like molecule; slow leakage of cellular
contents

A

δ (delta)-Hemolysin

92
Q

S. aureus diarrheal diseases

A

δ (delta)-Hemolysin

93
Q

Leukocidin that lyses white blood cells

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

94
Q

S and F proteins

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

95
Q

lysing white blood cells = pore formation in the cellular membranes (increase cation permeability)

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

96
Q

Affected cells undergo degranulation of the cytoplasm, cell swelling, and lysis

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

97
Q

leads to massive release of inflammatory mediators = necrosis and severe inflammation

A

γ (gamma)-Hemolysin

98
Q

produced by lysogenized strains of S. aureus.

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

99
Q

this pore-forming toxin is active against neutrophils and causes tissue necrosis

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

100
Q

consists of two components designated as S and F on the wbc as described for γ toxin.

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin (PVL)

101
Q

superantigen

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)

102
Q

manifestations of toxic shock syndrome

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)

103
Q

gene s found in about 20% of S. aureus isolates

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1)

104
Q

protein toxins that stimulate T cells non-specifically without normal antigenic recognition

A

Superantigens

105
Q

polyclonal T-cell activation

A

Superantigens

106
Q

released in large amounts, leading to an overwhelming inflammatory response

A

Cytokines

107
Q

epidermolytic toxins that facilitate dissolution of the mucopolysaccharide matrix of the stratum granulosum in the epidermis

A

. Exfoliative toxins (or exfoliatins)

108
Q

intraepithelial splitting of cellular linkages seen in SSSS

A

. Exfoliative toxins (or exfoliatins)

109
Q

two distinct proteins of the same molecular weight:

A

Exfoliative toxin A (ET-A)

Exfoliative toxin B (ET-B)

110
Q

produced by lysogenized strains of S. aureus

A

Exfoliative toxin A (ET-A)

111
Q

plasmid-mediated

A

Exfoliative toxin B (ET-B)

112
Q

intestines

A

“entero”

113
Q

heat-stable exotoxins which are responsible for the clinical features of staphylococcal food poisoning

A

Enterotoxins A through E, G-J, K-R and U, V

114
Q

Heating the food may not prevent the disease because inactivation
of staphylococcal enterotoxin requires 100oC for at least

A

100oC for at least 30 minutes

115
Q

temperature for destroying staphylococci in clothes and bedding

A

controlling reinfection; eliminating the carrier state

116
Q

increases the bactericidal activity of the skin

A

chlorhexidine or hexachlorophene soaps

117
Q

• anterior nasal carriage can be reduced

o combination of nasal creams
o oral therapy w antimicrobials

A

 mupirocin, neomycin, and bacitracin

 rifampin or ciprofloxacin

118
Q

o hip and cardiac valve replacements

A

• Chemoprophylaxis

119
Q

o may reduce the chance for intraoperative infection

o Minimizing risk of superinfection (with longer periods of antibiotic administration)

A

• Methicillin (cephalosporin) or vancomycin

120
Q

most commonly encountered staphylococcal species

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

121
Q

99% of the normal flora of the skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

122
Q

opportunistic pathogens, but are substantially less virulent than S. aureus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

123
Q

nosocomial infections related to use of contaminated medical devices

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

124
Q

associated with prosthetic heart valves; also pacemaker wires, implanted defibrillators, and vascular grafts

A

Endocarditis

125
Q

associated with prosthetic joint, or hip implant

A

Arthritis

126
Q

associated with indwelling urinary catheters

A

Urinary tract infection (UTI)

127
Q

associated with IV catheters

A

Bacteremia

128
Q

Pathogenesis is related to production of [?] resulting in biofilm formation
on the surface of a prosthetic device

A

adherent slime

129
Q

Primarily a saprophyte

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

130
Q

Gastrointestinal tract (primarily the rectum) as the primary site of colonization in humans

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

131
Q

part of the normal flora of female genitourinary tract (urethra, cervix), perineum

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

132
Q

Second most common cause of community-acquired UTI in young, sexually active females (most common is Escherichia coli)

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

133
Q

Pathogenesis of Staphylococcus saprophyticus is related to production of [?] and [?]

A

adherent slime and urease

134
Q

an enzyme that hydrolyzes urea in urine

resulting in the formation of ammonia and ammonium carbonate - making the urine alkaline and favoring bacterial growth

A

urease

135
Q

found free-living in the environment including air, soil, various extreme
environments and food

A

Micrococcus species

136
Q

Micrococcus species are considered part of the normal microbiota of the

A

skin, mucosa, and oropharynx

137
Q

mode of transmission is still uncertain, and they are rarely implicated in human infections

A

Micrococcus species

138
Q

When infections occur, particularly in hosts with compromised immune systems, such as HIV patients, they likely involve

A

endogenous strains (those that are part of the host’s normal flora).

139
Q

are not generally identified to species level in clinical laboratories because they are rarely clinically significant.

A

Micrococci

140
Q

Micrococci typically appear as gram-positive cocci in [?], rather than in clusters and usually larger than staphylococci

A

tetrads

141
Q

Some micrococci are pigmented bacteria;

produces yellow colonies

produces reddish colonies

A

M. luteus

M. roseus

142
Q

The yellow colonies of [?] may

be mistaken for the pigmented colonies of S. aureus.

A

M. luteus

[8] BACTERIAL SPECIES (5 decks)

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