Non-spore-forming Gram-positive Bacilli Flashcards

1
Q

an acute disease caused by toxigenic (toxin-producing) strains of C. diphtheriae.

A

Diphtheria

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2
Q

The incubation period for diphtheria is [?], with a range of 1 to 10 days.

A

2 to 5 days

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3
Q

The most common sites of diphtheria infection are the pharynx and the tonsils.

A

Respiratory diphtheria (pharyngeal, tonsillar, laryngeal, nasal)

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4
Q

Characterized by gradual onset of pharyngitis; early symptoms include sore throat with low-grade fever and dyspnea.

A

Respiratory diphtheria (pharyngeal, tonsillar, laryngeal, nasal)

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5
Q

Localized manifestations:

[?] forms in the throat (i.e., gray-white patches composed of fibrin, necrotic host cells and bacteria) over the pharynx, tonsils, uvula, and palate.

The membrane is firmly adherent to the tissue, and forcible attempts to remove it cause [?]

A

Pseudomembrane

bleeding

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6
Q

In severe disease, marked edema of the submandibular areas and the anterior neck along with lymphadenopathy giving a characteristic [?] appearance is usually present.

A

“bull neck”

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7
Q

Systemic manifestations:

Major complications include

A

myocarditis
polyneuritis
nephritis
thrombocytopenia

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8
Q

Paralysis of [?] can occur after the fifth week.

A

eye muscles, limbs, and the diaphragm

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9
Q

Secondary pneumonia and respiratory

failure may result from [?].

A

diaphragmatic paralysis

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10
Q

Damage to the heart causes [?], which is the most common cause of mortality in diphtheria.

A

heart failure

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11
Q

Death occurs in [?].

A

5-10%

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12
Q

Cutaneous diphtheria (wound diphtheria)

• Presents as [?] which lack a characteristic appearance; a membrane forms on the infected wound that fails to heal.

A

infected skin lesions

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13
Q

Cutaneous diphtheria (wound diphtheria)

May be associated with [?] strains of C. diphtheriae

A

non-toxigenic

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14
Q

Appears to result less frequently in [?] complications

A

systemic

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15
Q

[?] and [?] are closely related to C. diphtheriae and may carry the diphtheria tox gene.

Both are zoonotic organisms. Whereas the toxigenic C. ulcerans can cause disease similar to clinical diphtheria, C. pseudotuberculosis rarely causes disease in humans.

A

Corynebacterium ulcerans and Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

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16
Q

Produced by lysogenized strains of C. diphtheriae infected by [?] that carry the tox gene; all strains produce the same antigenic type of toxin.

A

β-prophages (corynebacteriophages)

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17
Q

Absorption of toxins through the mucous membranes and into the blood circulation causes local tissue destruction damage to the peripheral nervous system, heart, and other organs of the body.

A

Diphtheria exotoxin (Diphtherotoxin)

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18
Q

Diphtheria toxin consists of two polypeptide fragments:

A

Fragment A

Fragment B

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19
Q

interacts metabolically with factors in the cytoplasm and stops protein synthesis by inhibiting polypeptide chain elongation. It is assumed that the abrupt arrest of protein synthesis is responsible for the necrotizing and neurotoxic effects of diphtheria toxin

A

Fragment A

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20
Q

binds to and facilitates the entry of the toxin into the cytoplasm of the cells of the heart and nervous system through receptor-mediated endocytosis.

A

Fragment B

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21
Q

a modified diphtheria toxin that induces protective antitoxin antibodies

A

diphtheria toxoid

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22
Q

is grown in liquid media and the toxin is converted to the inactive toxoid by treatment with formalin

A

Toxin-producing C. diphtheriae

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23
Q

It is usually given as part of a vaccine

against tetanus and pertussis called the

A

DPT (diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus) vaccine.

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24
Q

Three vaccinations are recommended, starting at

A
  • 6-8 weeks of age
  • 15 months
  • school age
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25
Q

(with Hep B, Hib, or IPV — respectively, Hepatitis B vaccine, Haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine, or inactivated poliovirus vaccine) are increasingly being used.

A

DPT-containing multi-antigen vaccines

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26
Q

Persons with suspected respiratory diphtheria should be promptly given [?], produced in horses, in adequate dosage, without waiting for laboratory confirmation.

A

diphtheria antitoxin

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27
Q

will neutralize circulating toxin and prevent progression of disease, but does not neutralize toxin that is already fixed to tissues,

A

Diphtheria antitoxin

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28
Q

Diphtheria infections are also managed by [?], i.e., patients are treated with antibiotics.

A

chemotherapy

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29
Q

The disease is usually no longer contagious [?] after antibiotics have been given.

A

48 hours

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30
Q

[?] should not be relied alone. This must be done in addition to antitoxin therapy,

A

Antibiotic therapy

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31
Q

Schick test is performed to determine the following:
• [?] (due to lack of antitoxins), or [?] (due to presence of circulating antitoxins) of an individual against diphtheria.
• [?] to diphtheria toxin or other proteins of the diphtheria cell.

A

susceptibility

immunity

hypersensitivity

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32
Q

This serves as a basis whether a person may receive vaccination against diphtheria or not. Individuals who are [?] to diphtheria are to be vaccinated, and if they are [?], they should be vaccinated with caution — the doses of the vaccine shall be reduced with increased number of [?]. It should also be performed first before[?] since antitoxin is normally of horse origin, which may cause hypersensitivity.

A

susceptible

hypersensitive

injections

antitoxin therapy

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33
Q

The procedure involves injection of [?] on the test arm (TA) and [?] (vaccine preparation or heat-inactivated toxin — whose toxicity is destroyed but retains capacity to elicit allergic reactions) on the control arm (CA)

A
  1. 1 mL of diphtheria toxin

0. 1 mL of diphtheria toxoid

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34
Q

• The injection site (TA and CA) is inspected daily up to the 6th day for [?] which consists of a positive reaction.

A

erythema, induration or necrosis

35
Q

Results interpretation are as follows:
(1) POSITIVE REACTION:
TA –
CA –

A

reaction persists until the 6th day

no reaction

36
Q
Results interpretation are as follows:
(2) NEGATIVE REACTION:
TA – 
CA – 
*Immuned; Not hypersensitive
A

no reaction

no reaction

37
Q
Results interpretation are as follows:
(3) COMBINED REACTION:
TA – 
 CA – 
*Susceptible and hypersensitive
A

reaction persists until the 6th day

reaction peaks at about 48 hours and subsides by day 5

38
Q
Results interpretation are as follows:
PSEUDOREACTION:
TA – 
CA – 
*Immuned and hypersensitive
A

reaction subsides by day 5

reaction subsides by day 5

39
Q

Disease for Listeria monocytogenes is known as

A

listeriosis

40
Q

Are [?] intracellular pathogens, within phagocytes and non-phagocytic cells

A

facultative

41
Q

the organisms can penetrate the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and grow within [?]

A

hepatic and splenic macrophages

42
Q

from there, the organism can spread to the [?] or the [?].

A

CNS

pregnant uterus

43
Q

it is often a mild or subclinical infection with non specific symptoms of fever, diarrhea, and sore throat

A

In normal adults

44
Q

listeriosis usually presents as meningitis and septicemia

A

In children and immunocompromised adults, esp. renal transplant patients and cancer patients, and the elderly

45
Q

most common in the third trimester, listeriosis presents as mild flu-like illness without meningitis

Bacteremia occurs concomitantly, during which time the uterine contents are infected

Progression to amnionitis may lead to abortion, stillbirth, or delivery of an acutely ill infant

A

In pregnant women

46
Q

listeriosis may have an early or late onset

A

In neonates

47
Q

is the result of infection in utero and is a disseminated form of the disease characterized by neonatal sepsis, pustular lesions, and granulomas containing L monocytogenes in multiple organs. Death may occur before or after delivery.

A

Early-onset syndrome (granulomatosis infantiseptica)

48
Q

causes the development of meningitis between birth and the third week of life; it is often caused by serotype 4b and has a significant mortality rate

A

The late-onset syndrome

49
Q

which facilitate bacterial binding to the host cells.

A

Adhesin proteins (Ami, Fbp A, and flagellin)

50
Q

are cell wall surface proteins that interact with E-cadherin, a receptor on epithelial cells, promoting phagocytosis of L. monocytogenes cells into the epithelial cells.

A

Internalins (A and B)

51
Q

is an enzyme produced by the bacterium at low pH. It lyses the phagolysosome membrane allowing the listeriae to escape into the cytoplasm of the epithelial cell.

A

Listeriolysin O

52
Q

another listerial surface protein, induces host cell actin polymerization, which propels the listeriae to the cell membrane of the host’s epithelial cells and permits it to move from cell to cell without being exposed to antibodies, complement, or polymorphonuclear cells.

A

Act A

53
Q

Prevention of L. monocytogenes can be improved by:

  • avoidance of
  • adequate pasteurization temperatures and thorough cooking foods that are suspected of being contaminated with [?]
A
  • unpasteurized dairy products

- animal manure or sewage

54
Q

Unlike [?], there is no vaccine available to prevent listeriosis.

A

diphtheria

55
Q

Cold storage is not an effective control \ measure because the microbe can grow at most

A

refrigeration temperature

56
Q

is most commonly isolated from acutely ill or immunocompromised patients.

A

Corynebacterium jeikeium

57
Q

It produces infections, including bacteremia that have a high mortality rate and is resistant to many commonly used antimicrobial drugs.

A

Corynebacterium jeikeium

58
Q

is a normal inhabitant of the human nasopharynx, can colonize natural and artificial heart valves.

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

59
Q

It has been associated with respiratory tract infections.

A

Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum

60
Q

normally lives in the eye, skin, and mucous membranes and is an occasional opportunist in eye and postoperative infections.

A

Corynebacterium xerosis

61
Q

is the causative agent of erythrasma, a superficial skin infection characterized by small, brown-red macular areas, commonly of the axillary and inguinal skin, and also between the toes and finger, axilla.

A

Corynebacterium minutissimum

62
Q

gives a coral (brick red) fluorescence when exposed to Wood’s light (long-wave UV radiation, also called black light) due to porphyrin

A

Corynebacterium minutissimum

63
Q

has been associated with hospital-acquired respiratory tract and other infections.

A

Corynebacterium striatum

64
Q

is a slowly growing species that is multiply resistant to antibiotics. It has been associated with acute or chronic encrusted urinary tract infections manifested by alkaline urine pH and crystal formation.

A

Corynebacterium urealyticum

65
Q

is most commonly isolated species in the clinical laboratory and may represent a skin contaminant or a significant agent of infection

A

Corynebacterium amycolatum

66
Q

• Gram-positive, nonmotile bacilli that are arranged singly, in short chains, or in long non-branching filaments. It sometimes look gram-negative since it decolorizes easily.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

67
Q

Forms small, transparent, and glistening colonies that may be alpha-hemolytic or
gamma-hemolytic on blood agar medium.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

68
Q

Catalase(-), oxidase (-)

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

69
Q

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae exhibits a [?] growth in gelatin stab culture

A

“test tube brush-like” or “pipe cleaner”

70
Q

is distributed in land and sea animals worldwide, including a variety of vertebrates and invertebrates. It causes disease in domestic swine, turkeys, ducks, and sheep.

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

71
Q

The most important impact is in swine, in which it causes [?].

A

erysipelas

72
Q

Humans, acquire E. rhusiopathiae infection by [?] from animals or animal products.

A

direct inoculation

73
Q

Persons at greatest risk are fishermen, fish handlers, abattoir workers, butchers, and others who have [?] with animal products.

A

contact

74
Q

most common E. rhusiopathiae infection in humans

A

erysipeloid

75
Q

a nodular type of cellulitis

A

erysipeloid

76
Q

erysipeloid usually occurs on the fingers by direct inoculation at the site of a cut or abrasion, and has been called

A

“seal finger” and “whale finger”

77
Q

Additional clinical forms of infection (both rare) are a [?] form and [?] with or without endocarditis. [?] has also been reported.

A

diffuse cutaneous
bacteremia
Septic arthritis

78
Q

Swine erysipelas can be prevented by [?], but the vaccine is not
protective for humans.

A

vaccinating pigs

79
Q

Animal handlers can lower their risk by

A

wearing protective gloves

80
Q

gram-positive bacilli within square ends; arranged in pairs and in chains. They are anaerobes that can be aerotolerant and α-hemolytic; nonmotile, catalase (-); and majority are vancomycin resistant.

A

lactobacilli

81
Q

are major members of the normal microbiota of the human vagina, gastrointestinal tract, and oropharynx.

A

Lactobacillus species

82
Q

Glycogen deposited in vaginal epithelial cells under the influence of [?] is metabolized by lactobacilli to lactic acid.

A

estrogenic hormones

83
Q

The [?] product of their metabolism helps maintain the low pH (pH 4 to 5) of the normal adult female genital tract which is optimal for growth and survival of the lactobacilli, but inhibits many other organisms.

A

lactic acid

84
Q

They rarely cause disease, and if present, they may be found occasionally in

A

deep-seated infections