Stage I Oral Prep Flashcards

Begin to understand the questions that a CFI may ask you during the final and official Oral Exam.

1
Q

What are the eligibility requirements for a Private Pilot (Airplane) Certificate? (14 CFR 61.103)

A

a. Be at least 17 years of age.
b. Be able to read, write, speak, and understand the English language
c. Hold at least a current third-class medical certificate
d. Received the required ground and flight training endorsements
e. Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements
f. Pass the required knowledge and practical exams.

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2
Q

What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot?
(14 CFR 61.56, 61.57)

A

a. Within the preceding 24 months, a pilot must have accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and received a logbook endorsement certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.
b. To carry passengers, a pilot must have made, within the preceding 90 days:
- Three takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of flight controls of an aircraft of the same category, class, and if required, type.
- If the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop
- If operations are to be conducted during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, with passengers on board, the pilot-in-command must have, within the preceding 90 days, made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if necessary, type.

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3
Q

You have not kept up with logging each of your recent flights. Are you in violation of any regulation?
(14 CFR 61.51)

A

No. You are only required to document and record the training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review and the aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements.

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4
Q

You’re flying in a single-engine, high-performance, complex airplane. You hold a Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane single-engine land rating, but you don’t have a high-performance or complex airplane endorsement. Your friend, who has those endorsements, is acting as PIC for the flight. Can you log PIC time for the time you act as sole manipulator of the controls? Explain.
(14 CFR 61.31, 61.51)

A

Yes, the FARs (part 61.51) governs the logging of PIC time and states that a sport, recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log PIC time for the time during which that pilot is “sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated or has privileges.”

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5
Q

Explain the differences between being current and being proficient.
(FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-P-8740-36)

A

Being current means that a pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory requirements within a specific time period and can exercise the privileges of their certificate. It means that you’re legal to make the flight, but it does not necessarily mean that you’re proficient or competent to make that flight.

Being proficient means that a pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence; it requires that the pilot has a wide range of knowledge and skills. Being proficient is not just about being legal in terms of the regulations but about being smart and safe in terms of pilot experience and proficiency.

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6
Q

How will establishing a personal minimums checklist reduce risk?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Pre-established numbers can make it a lot easier to come to a smart go/no-go or diversion decision, than would the vague sense that you probably can deal with the conditions you face at any given time. A written set of personal minimums also makes it easier to explain tough cancelation or diversion decisions to passengers who are, after all, trusting their lives with your aeronautical skill and judgement.

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7
Q

The airplane you normally rent has been grounded due to an intermittent electrical problem. You ask to be scheduled in another airplane. During preflight of the new airplane, you discover that it has avionics you’re unfamiliar with. Should you go ahead and depart on your VFR flight? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

Pilot familiarity with all equipment is critical in optimizing both safety and efficiency. If a pilot is unfamiliar with any aircraft system, this will add to his/her workload and can contribute to a loss of situational awareness. This level of proficiency, is critical and should be looked upon as a requirement, not unlike carrying an adequate supply of fuel. As a result, pilots should not look upon unfamiliarity with the aircraft and its systems as a risk of control measure, but instead as a hazard with high-risk potential. Discipline is the key to success.

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8
Q

If a pilot’s permanent mailing address changes, and the pilot fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification branch of the new address, how long may the pilot continue to exercise the privileges of a pilot certificate? (14 CFR 61.60)

A

30 days after the date of the move.

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9
Q

What flight time can a pilot log as second-in-command time?
(14 CFR 61.51)

A

A person may log second-in-command time only for flight time during which that person:
a. Is qualified in accordance with the SIC requirements of the FARs (part 61.55) and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft’s type certificate; or
b. Holds the appropriate category, class, and if necessary, instrument rating, for the aircraft being flown, and the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted requires more than one pilot.

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10
Q

What privileges and limitations apply to being a private pilot?
(14 CFR 61.113)

A

No person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as PIC of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as PIC of an aircraft. A private pilot:
a. May act as PIC of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if it is only incidental to that business or employment and does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.
b. May not pay less than the proportional share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or rental fees.
c. May act as PIC of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight described in the FARs (part 91.146) if the sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of that regulation.
d. May be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of local, state, or federal agencies or organizations that conduct search and location operations.
e. May demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if the private pilot is an aircraft salesperson and has at least 200 hours of logged flight time.
f. May act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, provided they meet the requirements of the FARs (part 61.69)
g. May act as PIC for the purpose of conducting a production flight test in a light-sport aircraft intended for certification in the light-sport category under the FARs, (part 21.190) provided they meet the requirements of part 61 (part 61.113)

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11
Q

Explain the statement: “A private pilot may not pay less than pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight.” (14 CFR 61.113)

A

Pro rata means proportional. The pilot may not pay less than a proportional share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

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12
Q

The annual inspection for your aircraft is now due, and you ask several friends that fly with you regularly to contribute money to help you pay for the inspection. Do the regulations allow for these contributions? (14 CFR 61.113)

A

No. A private pilot may not pay less than the proportional share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or rental fees.

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13
Q

To act as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft, what must a pilot have in physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? (14 CFR 61.3)

A

a. A pilot certificate (or special purpose pilot authorization)
b. A photo identification
c. A medical certificate (with certain exceptions as provided in part 61.3)

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14
Q

While you are performing a preflight inspection on your aircraft, an inspector from the FAA introduces herself and says she wants to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents are you required to show the inspector? (14 CFR 61.3)

A

Each person who holds a pilot certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by part 61 must present it and their photo identification for inspection upon a request from the administrator, an authorized NTSB representative, any federal, state, or law enforcement officer, or an authorized representative of the TSA.

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15
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane, and what must you do to act as PIC of such an airplane? (14 CFR 61.31)

A

A high-performance airplane is one with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane you must have:
a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane and been found proficient in the operation and systems of that airplane.
b. Received and logged a one-time endorsement in your logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies you are proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.

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16
Q

Other than high-performance and complex aircraft, what other types of aircraft (airplane single engine land) require specific training and logbook endorsements from an appropriately rated flight instructor?
(14 CFR 61.31)

A

High-altitude airplane–No person may act as PIC of a pressurized airplane that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude (whichever is lower) above 25,000 feet MSL unless that person has completed the ground and flight training specified and has received a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying satisfactory completion of the training.

Tailwheel airplane–No person may act as PIC of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. (This training and endorsement are not required if the person logged PIC time in a tailwheel airplane before April, 1991.)

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17
Q

What is the definition of a complex airplane, and what must you do to act as PIC of such an airplane?
(14 CFR 61.1, 61.31)

A

A complex airplane is defined as an airplane that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; including airplanes equipped with a full-authority digital engine control (FADEC). To act as PIC of such an airplane, you must have:
a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane and has been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane.
b. Received a one-time endorsement in your logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies you are proficient to operate a complex airplane.

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18
Q

With respect to certification, privileges, and limitations of pilots, define the terms: category, class, and type. (14 CFR Part 1)

A

Category–A broad classification of aircraft, e.g., airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
Class–A broad classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics, e.g., single-engine land, multi-engine land.
Type–A specific make and basic model of aircraft including modifications that do not change its handling or flight characteristics, e.g., Boeing 737, Cessna 150, Airbus a350.

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19
Q

What can a pilot do if they develop a condition that prevents them from obtaining a medical certificate?
(14 CFR 61.23)

A

A Statement of Demonstrated Ability (SODA) may be granted, instead of an authorization, to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or non-progressive and who has been found capable of preforming pilot duties without endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a designated aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on its face has not adversely changed.

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20
Q

Spring has finally arrived, and the weather looks great, so you decide to rent an airplane and go fly. The problem is, your allergies are giving you a problem, and you have just taken your medication. Can you still go fly? Explain. (14 CFR 67.401)
(www.faa.gov/ame_guide/pharm/dni_dnf)

A

The safest rule is not to fly while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. Some of the most commonly used over-the-counter drugs, antihistamines and decongestants, have the potential to cause noticeable adverse side effects, including drowsiness and cognitive deficits. The FARs prohibits pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the body in any way contrary to safety. If there is any doubt regarding the effects of any medication, consult an Aviation Medical Examiner before flying. You can also find medications that you should not take before or while flying listed on an FAA published site (www.faa.gov/ame_guide/pharm/dni_dnf)

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21
Q

Where can you find a list of the medical conditions that may disqualify you from obtaining a medical certificate?
(14 CFR 61.53, 91.17, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The standards for medical certification are contained in part 67 and the requirements for obtaining medical certificates can be found in part 61.

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22
Q

What requirements must be met to fly under BasicMed?
(14 CFR Part 67, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. Hold a current and valid U.S. driver’s license.
b. Hold or have held a medical certificate issued by the FAA at any point after July 14, 2006
c. Answer the health questions on the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist.
d. Get your physical examination by any state-licensed physician, and have that physician complete the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist
e. Take a BasicMed online medical education course. Keep the course completion document issued to you by the course provider.

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23
Q

What privileges and limitations apply when flying under BasicMed?
(14 CFR 61.113, AC 68-1)

A

You can conduct any operation that you would otherwise be able to conduct using your pilot certificate and a third-class medical certificate, except you are limited to:
a. Fly with no more than five passengers.
b. Fly an aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds.
c. Fly an aircraft that is authorized to carry no more than six occupants (i.e., five passengers plus the pilot)
d. Flights within the United States at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less and at an altitude at or below 18,000 feet MSL
e. You may not fly for compensation or hire.

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24
Q

What is required to maintain BasicMed privileges? (AC 68-1)

A

a. Be sure you have a Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist that shows that your most recent physical examination was within the past 48 months. Keep the completed, signed Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist in a safe place.
b. Be sure you are being treated by a physician for medical conditions that may affect the safety of flight.
c. Be sure you have a course completion certificate that was issued by a BasicMed medical training course provider within the past 24 calendar months.

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25
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
1. One way a pilot can limit exposure to risks is to set personal minimums for items in each risk category (PAVE). Describe the individual minimums you will establish for yourself. (FAA-H-8083-2)

A
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26
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
2. As a newly certificated private pilot, you are ready to utilize your certificate. I’m a friend and need you to fly a package to a distant destination. I will pay for the airplane if you accept. Do the regulations allow you to accept the offer?
(14 CFR 61.113)

A
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27
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
3. For a person under the age of 40, when will a third-class medical certificate issued on march 15, 2016, expire? (14 CFR 61.60)

A
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28
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
4. What are some examples of general medical conditions that are temporarily disqualifying?
(AIM 8-1-1, 14 CFR 61.53)

A
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29
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
5. If your driver’s license was recently suspended for driving under the influence of alcohol (DUI) but you have not been actually convicted of the crime, must you report this to the FAA? (14 CFR 61.15)

A
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30
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
6. You have allowed over 24 months to lapse since your last flight review. Is your Private Pilot Certificate now invalid? What do you have to do to be legal to fly again?
(14 CFR 61.19, 14 CFR 61.56)

A
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31
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
7. Are there any other activities a pilot can accomplish that can be substituted for a flight review?
(14 CFR 61.56)

A
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32
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
8. What regulatory requirements must be met prior to a pilot acting as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider?
(14 CFR 61.69)

A
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33
Q

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight?
(14 CFR 91.203, 91.9)

A

Airworthiness Certificate
Registration Certificate
Radio Station License (if operating outside U.S)
Operating Limitations - Airplane flight manual/Pilot’s operating handbook and supplements, placards, markings
Weight and Balance data (current)
Compass Deviation Card
External Data Plate/Serial Number

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34
Q

What is an airworthiness certificate?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An airworthiness certificate is issued by the FAA to an aircraft that has been proven to meet the minimum design and manufacturing requirements and is in condition for safe operation. Under all circumstances, the aircraft must meet the requirements of the original type certificate, or it is no longer airworthy. These certificates come in two different classifications: standard airworthiness and special airworthiness

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35
Q

What is the difference between standard and special airworthiness certificates? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Standard airworthiness certificates (white paper) are issued for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft. Special airworthiness certificates (pink paper) are issued for primary, restricted, or limited category aircraft and light sport aircraft.

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36
Q

What is an experimental airworthiness certificate?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

A special airworthiness certificate in the experimental category is issued to operate an aircraft that does not have a type certificate or does not comply to its type certificate yet is in a condition for safe operation. Additionally, this certificate is issued to operate a primary category kit-build aircraft that was assembled without the supervision and quality control of the production certificate holder.

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37
Q

Does an airworthiness certificate have an expiration date?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

No. A standard airworthiness certificate remains valid for as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design, is in a condition for safe operation, and the maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations are preformed in accordance with Parts 21, 43, and 91.

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38
Q

Where must the airworthiness certificate be located?
(14 CFR 91.203, FAA-H-8083-19)

A

The certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.

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39
Q

For an aircraft to be considered airworthy, what two conditions must be met? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

a. The aircraft must comply with its type design (type certificate). This is attained when the required and proper components are installed consistent with the drawings, specifications, and other data that are part of the type certificate. Conformity includes applicable supplemental type certificate(s) and field-approval alterations.
b. The aircraft must be in a condition for safe operation, referring to the condition of the aircraft in relation to wear and deterioration.

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40
Q

Explain how a pilot determines if an aircraft conforms to its approved type design and is in a condition for safe operation. (14 CFR Part 21)

A

a. For type design, a pilot must determine that the maintenance preventive maintenance, and alterations have been performed in accordance to Parts 21, 43, and 91 and that the aircraft is registered in the U.S. The pilot does this by ensuring that all required inspections, maintenance, preventive maintenance, repairs, and alterations have been appropriately documented in the aircraft’s maintenance records.
b. For safe operations, the pilot conducts a thorough preflight inspection of the aircraft for wear and deterioration, structural damage, fluid leaks, tire wear, inoperative instruments and equipment, etc. If an unsafe conditions exists or inoperative instruments or equipment are found, the pilot uses the guidance in Part 91 (CFR Part 91.213) for handling the inoperative equipment.

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41
Q

What records or documents should be checked to determine that the owner of an aircraft has complied with all required inspections and airworthiness directives?
(14 CFR 91.405)

A

The maintenance records (aircraft and engine logbooks). Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

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42
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.403)

A

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition.

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43
Q

Describe some of the responsibilities an aircraft owner has pertaining to aircraft documents, maintenance, and inspections of their aircraft.
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Aircraft owners must:
a. Have a current airworthiness certificate and aircraft registration in the aircraft
b. Maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives.
c. Ensure maintenance is properly recorded.
d. Keep abreast of current regulations concerning the operations of that aircraft.
e. Notify the FAA Civil Aviation Registry immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, the sale or export of aircraft, or loss of citizenship.
f. Have a current FCC radio station license if equipped with radios, including an emergency locator transmitter if operated outside of the United States.

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44
Q

What are airworthiness directives (AD)? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

An AD is the medium by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other potentially interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes, to be operated. It is the aircraft owner’s or operator’s responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent AD’s.

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45
Q

What are the two types of ADs?
(FAA-H-8083-19)

A

ADs are divided into two categories: Those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight, and those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time.

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46
Q

When are emergency airworthiness directives issued? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

An emergency AD is issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator. The intent of an emergency AD is to rapidly correct an urgent safety-of-flight situation. All known owners and operators of affected U.S-registered aircraft or those aircraft that have an affected product installed will be sent a copy of an emergency AD.

On the exam, be capable of finding and explaining the status of all ADs and recurring ADs that exist for your aircraft. Locate and tab prior to the practical exam.

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47
Q

While reviewing the aircraft logbooks, you discover your aircraft is not in compliance with an AD’s specified time or date. Are you allowed to continue to operate that aircraft until the next required maintenance inspection? Do the regulations allow any kind of buffer?
(AC 39-7)

A

The assumption that AD compliance is only required at the time of a required inspection (e.g., at a 100-hour or annual inspection) is not correct. The required compliance time/date is specified in each AD, and no person may operate the affected product after expiration of that stated compliance time without an Alternative Method of Compliance approval for a change in compliance time.

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48
Q

You determine that you need to fly your aircraft with an expired AD to another airport where a repair facility can do the work required by the AD. How can you accomplish this? (AC 39-7, 14 CFR 21.199)

A

Unless the AD states otherwise, you may apply to the FAA for a special flight permit following the procedures in Part 21 (14 CFR 21.199)

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49
Q

What is a type certificate data sheet?
(FAA-H-8083-30)

A

The FAA issues a type certificate when a new aircraft, engine, propeller, etc., is found to meet safety standards set forth by the FAA. The type certificate data sheet (TCDS) lists the specifications, conditions, and limitations under which airworthiness requirements were met for the specified product, such as engine make and model, fuel type, engine limits, airspeed limits, maximum weight, minimum crew.

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50
Q

What is a supplemental type certificate? (FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-30, AC 21-40)

A

A supplemental type certificate (STC) is the FAA’s approval of a major change in the type design of a previously approved type certificated product. The certificate authorizes an alteration to an airframe, engine, or component that has been granted an approved type certificate. Sometimes alterations are made that are not specified or authorized in the type certificate data sheet (TCDS). When that condition exists, an STC will be issued. STCs are considered a part of the permanent records of an aircraft and should be maintained as part of that aircraft’s logs.

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51
Q

What is an aircraft registration certificate? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Before an aircraft can be flown legally, it must be registered with the FAA Aircraft Registry. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, which is issued to the owner as evidence of the registration, must be carried in the aircraft at all times.

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52
Q

Does an aircraft’s registration certificate have an expiration date?
(14 CFR 47.31, 47.40)

A

Yes. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration that is in effect on January 23, 2023, expires seven years after the last day of the month in which it is issued, notwithstanding the expiration date on the valid Certificate of Aircraft Registration. The Aircraft Registration Application (pink copy) is valid until the applicant receives the aircraft registration certificate, the application is denied by the FAA, or 12 months have elapsed during which the registration is pending on the aircraft.

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53
Q

Where can you find information on the placards and marking information required to be in the airplane?
(FAA-H-8083-25, AC 60-6, 14 CFR 91.9, 14 CFR 23.1541)

A

The principle source of information for identifying the required airplane flight manuals (AFM), approved manual materials, markings, and placards is the FAA type certificate data sheet or aircraft specification issued for each airplane eligible for an airworthiness certificate. The required placards are also reproduced in the “Limitations” section of the AFM or as directed by an AD.

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54
Q

What are several examples of placards and markings required in the airplane?
(14 CFR 23.1545 through 23.1567)

A

Placards–Day-Night-VFR-IFR placard, “Flight Maneuvers Permitted” placard, “Caution Control Lock Remove before Starting,” “Maneuvering Speed,” “Compass Calibration Card,” etc.
Markings–Airspeed indicator markings; cockpit control markings; fuel, oil, and coolant filler openings; etc.

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55
Q

What are the required tests and inspections to be preformed on an aircraft? Include inspections for instrument flight rules (IFR). REMEMBER: AAV1ATE
(14 CFR 91.409, 91.171, 91.411, 91.413, 91.207)

A

Annual inspection within the proceeding 12 calendar months.
Airworthiness directives and life-limited parts compliance as required.
VOR equipment check every 30 days.
100-hour inspection, if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft a CFI provides.
Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected every 24 calendar months.
Transponder tests and inspections, every 24 calendar months.
Emergency locator transmitter, operation, and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months

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56
Q

What is an annual inspection, and which aircraft are required to have annual inspections? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An annual inspection is a complete inspection of an aircraft and engine as required by the regulations that is required to be accomplished every 12 calendar months on all certified aircraft. Only an A&P (airframe and powerplant rated) technician holding an inspection authorization (IA) can conduct and annual inspection.

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57
Q

Which aircraft are required to have 100-hour inspections?
(FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR 91.409)

A

a. All aircraft under 12,500 pounds (except turbojet/turbopropeller-powered multiengine airplanes and turbine powered rotorcraft) used to carry passengers for hire.
b. Aircraft used for flight instruction for hire, when provided the by person giving the flight instruction.

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58
Q

If an aircraft is operated for hire, is it required to have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection? (14 CFR 91.409)

A

Yes, if an aircraft is operated for hire it must have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection when due. If not operated for hire, only an annual inspection is required.

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59
Q

What is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection? (14 CFR Part 43)

A

The main difference is who is allowed to perform these inspections. Only an A&P mechanic with an IA (inspection authorization) can perform and annual inspection. 100-hour inspections may be performed by any A&P mechanic (no IA required). Part 43 provides a list of items that must be inspected for annual and 100-hour inspections.

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60
Q

If an aircraft has been on a schedule of inspections every 100 hours, under what condition may it continue to operate beyond the 100 hours without a new inspection?
(14 CFR 91.409)

A

The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more that 10 hours while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

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61
Q

If the annual inspection date has passed, can an aircraft be operated in flight to a location where the inspection can be performed?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An aircraft overdue for an annual inspection may be operated under a Special Flight Permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed. However, all applicable ADs that are due must be complied with before the flight.

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62
Q

What are special flight permits, and when are they necessary?
(14 CFR 91.213, 14 CFR 21.197)

A

A special flight permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are typically issued for the following purposes:
a. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed or to a point of storage.
b. Delivering or exporting an aircraft
c. Production flight testing new-production aircraft
d. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger
e. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.

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63
Q

How are special flight permits obtained? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the local FSDO (Flight Standards District Office) or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).

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64
Q

After aircraft inspections have been made and defects have been repaired, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.7)

A

The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in a condition for safe flight. The pilot-in-command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy, mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

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65
Q

What regulations apply concerning the operation of an aircraft that had alterations or repairs that may have substantially affected its operation in flight? (14 CFR 91.407)

A

No person may operate or carry passengers in any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventative maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate:
a. Flies the aircraft
b. Makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made; and
c. Logs the flight in the aircraft records

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66
Q

Can a pilot legally conduct flight operations with known inoperative equipment on board?
(14 CFR 91.213)

A

Yes, under specific conditions. Part 91 describes acceptable methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain inoperative instruments and equipment that are not essential for safe flight. They are:
a. Operation of an aircraft with a minimum equipment list (MEL), as authorized by Part 91 (14 CFR 91.213a); or
b. Operation of an aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR Part 91.123d

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67
Q

What limitations apply to aircraft operations conducted using the deferral provision of 14 CFR 91.213(d)? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

When inoperative equipment is found during the preflight or prior to departure, the decision should be to cancel the flight, obtain maintenance prior to flight, or to defer the item or equipment. Maintenance deferrals are not used for inflight discrepancies. The manufacturer’s POH/AFM procedures are to be used in those situations.

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68
Q

During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn’t have a MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight.
(14 CFR 91.213(d), FAA-H-8083-25)

A

I will ask myself the following questions to determine if I can legally fly the airplane with the inoperative equipment item:
a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification?
b. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment listed as required on the aircraft’s equipment list or Kinds of Operation Equipment List (KOEL) for the type of flight operation being conducted?
c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by any rule of Part 91 for the specific operation being conducted? (For example, VFR, IFR, day, night.)
d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an AD?

If the answer is “Yes” to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy, and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is “No” to any of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed from the aircraft (by an A&P) or deactivated and placarded INOPERATIVE.

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69
Q

What are minimum equipment lists?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The minimum equipment list (MEL) is a precise listing of instruments, equipment and procedures that allows an aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with inoperative equipment. The MEL is the specific inoperative equipment document for a particular make and model aircraft by serial and registration numbers (N87HF.) The FAA-approved MEL includes only those items of equipment that the FAA deems may be inoperative and still maintains an acceptable level of safety with appropriate conditions and limitations.

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70
Q

For an aircraft with an approved MEL, explain the decision sequence a pilot would use after discovering the position lights are inoperative.
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

With an approved MEL, if the position lights were discovered inoperative prior to a daytime flight, the pilot would make an entry in the maintenance record or discrepancy record provided for that purpose. The item is then either repaired or deferred in accordance with the MEL. Upon confirming that daytime flight with inoperative position lights is acceptable in accordance with the provision of the MEL, the pilot would leave the position lights switch OFF, open the circuit breaker (or do whatever action is called for in the procedures document,) and placard the position light switch as INOPERATIVE.

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71
Q

Explain the limitations that apply to aircraft operations being conducted using an MEL. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The use of an MEL for a small, nonturbine-powered airplane operated under Part 91 allows for the deferral of inoperative items or equipment. The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an aircraft by serial number and registration number. Once an operator requests an MEL, and a letter of authorization (LOA) issued by the FAA, then the MEL becomes mandatory for that aircraft. All maintenance deferrals must be done in accordance with the terms and conditions of the MEL and the operator-generated procedures document.

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72
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR (visual flight rules) day flight? REMEMBER: A TOMATO FLAMES (14 CFR 91.205)

A

For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required:
Anti-collision light system–aviation red or white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996.
Tachometer for each engine.
Oil pressure gauge for each engine.
Manifold pressure gauge.
Altimeter.
Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.
Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine.
Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank.
Flotation gear–if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Landing gear position indicator, if the airplane has retractable gear.
Airspeed indicator.
Magnetic direction indicator.
Emergency locator transmitter (if required by Part 91.207.)
Safety belts.

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73
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight? REMEMBER: FLAPS (14 CFR 91.205)

A

For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following:
Fuses–one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight.
Landing light–if the aircraft is operated for hire
Anti collision light system–approved aviation red or white
Position lights (beacon)
Source of electrical energy–adequate for all installed electrical and radio.

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74
Q

Who can perform maintenance on an aircraft? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

FAA-certified A&P mechanic, an A&P mechanic with IA (inspection authorization,) an appropriately-rated FAA-certificated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer.

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75
Q

Define preventative maintenance.
(FAA-H-8083-24, 14 CFR Part 43, AC 43-12)

A

Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Certificated pilots, excluding student pilots, sport pilots, and recreational pilots, may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft that is owned or operated by them provided that aircraft is not used in air carrier service. Part 43a identifies typical preventive maintenance operations, which include such basis items as oil changes, wheel bearing lubrication, and hydraulic fluid (brakes, landing gear system) refills.

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76
Q

While inspecting the engine logbook of the rental aircraft you are planning to fly, you notice that the engine has exceeded its time between overhaul (TBO). Is it legal to fly this aircraft? (AC 20-105)

A

Yes. TBO is computed by the engine manufacturer and is a reliable estimate of the number of hours the engine could perform reliably within the established engine parameters and still not exceed the service wear limits for overhaul for major component parts such as the crankshaft, cam shaft, cylinders, connecting rods, and pistons. TBO times are make and model specific and the recommended overhaul times are usually identified in the engine manufacturer’s service bulletin or letter. For Part 91 operations, compliance with the TBO is not a mandatory maintenance requirement.

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77
Q

What logbook entry information is required of the person performing preventive maintenance?
(FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR 43.3)

A

All pilots who maintain or perform preventive maintenance must make an entry in the maintenance record of the aircraft. The entry must include a description of the work, the date of completion of the work performed, and an entry of the pilots name, signature, certificate number, and type of certificate held.

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78
Q

What are several good reasons for aircraft owners to comply with TBO times recommended by the manufacturer? (AC 20-105, check FAA-H-8083-30 for a better explanation on maintenance.)

A

a. An overhaul at TBO will ensure safety and reliability
b. An engine overhaul at TBO is usually less expensive than one for an engine that has been run an additional 200 or 300 hours.
c. Running the engine past TBO usually accelerates the overall wear of the engine due to bearing movement outside tolerances, loss of productive materials such as planting or nitrating on the cylinder walls, and vibration cause by engine reciprocating parts that have worn unevenly and are now out of balance.

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79
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
9. During preflight, you discover that one of the position lights (installed equipment) is inoperative prior to a daytime flight. Can you legally conduct the flight?
(14 CFR 91.213(d), FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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80
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
10. While en route on a VFR cross-country, you notice that your vertical speed indicator is inoperative during a descent to your first fuel stop. Can you legally continue your cross-country flight? If yes, what actions are required? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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81
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
11. How can a pilot determine if all applicable airworthiness directives have been complied with for an airplane?
(FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR 91.417)

A
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82
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
12. Explain how you will deactivate an item or system that has become inoperative in your airplane. Can you deactivate any item or system in your airplane? What is required?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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83
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
13. If the AFM for an aircraft you are about to fly is missing, what substitution may be made, if any?
(14 CFR 91.9, FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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84
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
14. Are the AFM supplements required onboard the airplane? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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85
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
15. As PIC, you have the responsibility for determining whether your aircraft is in a condition for safe flight. When flying a rental aircraft, how can procedures regarding discrepancy records or squawk sheets affect the total risk of flight?
(FAA Safety Briefing)

A
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86
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
16. You have just completed the first leg of a long cross-country and you notice that the oil level is approaching the one quart low mark. As a private pilot, can you add the quart of oil yourself or is a mechanic required? (14 CFR Part 43)

A
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87
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
17. What are Special Airworthiness Safety Bulletins (SAIB)? Are they regulatory? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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88
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
18. During your preflight inspection, you discover that the left main tire on your aircraft has a large flat spot with nylon cord showing. You wisely decide that this is unacceptable, and the tire should be replaced before flight. Do the regulations allow the pilot to perform this maintenance, or must a licensed mechanic (A&P) perform it? (14 CFR Part 43)

A
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89
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
19. A 100-hour inspection was due at 3,302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3,309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A
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90
Q

What are the two categories of airspace in the National Airspace system? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Regulatory and non-regulatory.

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91
Q

Within the two main categories of airspace, what are the four types of airspace? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. Controlled airspace
b. Uncontrolled airspace
c. Special Use airspace
d. Other airspace

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92
Q

Explain the factors that determine the category and type of airspace an area will have. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The categories and types of airspace are dictated by the complexity or density of aircraft movements, nature of the operations conducted within the airspace, the level of safety required, and national and public interest.

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93
Q

Briefly describe the terms controlled and uncontrolled airspace.
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Controlled airspace–A generic term that covers the different classifications of airspace and defined dimensions within which air traffic control (ATC) service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace consists of: Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E.

Uncontrolled airspace–Or Class G airspace, is the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember there are visual flight rules (VFR) minimums that apply to Class G airspace.

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94
Q

What is Class A airspace? (AIM 3-2-2)

A

Generally, that airspace from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600, including that airspace overlying the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contigous states and and Alaska; and designated international airspace beyond 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska within areas of domestic radio navigational signal or ATC radar coverage, and within which domestic procedures are applied.

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95
Q

Can a flight under VFR be conducted within Class A airspace?
(14 CFR 91.135)

A

No, unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating an aircraft in Class A airspace must operate that aircraft under instrument flight rules (IFR).

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96
Q

What is the minimum pilot certificate for operations conducted within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

A

The pilot must be at least a private pilot with an instrument rating.

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97
Q

What minimum equipment is required for flight operations within Class A airspace.
(14 CFR 91.135, 91.212, 91.225)

A

a. A two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on the frequency assigned.
b. A mode C altitude encoding transponder.
c. ADS-B and TIS-B equipment operating on 1090 MHz ES frequency.
d. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

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98
Q

How is Class A airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-2)

A

Class A airspace is not specifically charted.

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99
Q

What is the definition of Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 10,000 ft MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports in terms of IFR operations and passenger aircraft. The configuration of each Class B airspace area is individually tailored and consists of a surface area and two or more layers (some Class B airspaces areas resemble upside down wedding cakes) and is designated to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace.

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100
Q

What minimum pilot certification is required to operate an aircraft within Class B airspace?
(14 CFR 91.131)

A

No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace are unless:
a. The pilot-in-command holds at least a Private Pilot Certificate
b. The pilot-in-command holds a recreational pilot certificate and has met the requirements of Part 61.1 (61.101); or for a student pilot seeking a recreational pilot certificate in Part 61.9 (61.94)
c. The pilot-in-command holds a sport pilot certificate and has met the requirements of Part 61 (61.325)
d. The aircraft is operated by a student pilot who has met the requirements of Part 61.9 (61.94/61.95)

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101
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for operations of an aircraft within Class B airspace?
(14 CFR 91.131, 91.215, 91.225)

A

a. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on the appropriate frequencies for that area.
b. A Mode C altitude encoding transponder.
c. ADS-B Out equipment–operating on UAT 978 MHz or 1090 MHz ES frequency.
d. If IFR, and operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system.

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102
Q

Before operating and aircraft into Class B airspace, what basic requirement must be met?
(14 CFR 91.131)

A

Arriving aircraft must obtain an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area prior to operating an aircraft in that area.

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103
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class B airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)

A

VFR flight operations must be conducted clear of clouds with at least 3 SM flight visibility.

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104
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

Class B airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts. A solid shaded blue line depicts the lateral limits of Class B airspace. Numbers indicate the base and top e.g., 100/25, 100/SFC.

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105
Q

What basic ATC services are provided to all aircraft operating within Class B airspace? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

VFR pilots will be provided sequencing and separation from other aircraft while operating within Class B airspace.

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106
Q

It becomes apparent that wake turbulence may be encountered while ATC is providing sequencing and separation services in Class B airspace. Whose responsibility is it to avoid this turbulence? (AIM 3-2-3)

A

The pilot-in-command is responsible. The services provided by ATC do not relive pilots of their responsibilities to see and avoid other traffic operating in basic VFR weather conditions, to adjust their operations and flight path as necessary to preclude serious wake turbulence encounters, to maintain appropriate terrain and obstruction clearance, or to remain in weather conditions equal to or better than the minimums required by Part 91.155.

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107
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet, and within Class D surface area?
(14 CFR 91.117)

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 ft above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the below 10,000 ft MSL restriction: “No person shall operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots.”

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108
Q

When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, what maximum speed is authorized? (14 CFR 91.117)

A

No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

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109
Q

What is Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Generally, that airspace from the surface to 4,000 ft above the airport elevation MSL surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a number of IFR operations or passenger aircraft.

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110
Q

What are the basic dimensions of Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Although the configuration of each Class C airspace area is individually tailored, the airspace usually consists of a 5 NM radius core surface area that extends from the surface up to 4,000 ft above the airport elevation, and a 10 NM radius shelf area that extends from 1,200 ft to 4,000 ft above the airport elevation. The outer area radius will be 20 NM, with some variations based on site specific requirements. The outer area extends outward from the primary airport and extends from the lower limits of radar/radio coverage up to the ceiling of approach control airspace.

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111
Q

What minimum pilot certificate is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

A student pilot certificate.

112
Q

What minimum equipment is required to operate an aircraft within Class C airspace?
(14 CFR 91.130, 91.215, 91.225)

A

Unless otherwise authorized by the ATC having jurisdiction the Class C airspace area, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class C airspace area designated for an airport unless that aircraft is equipped with the following:
a. A two-way radio
b. Automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment with Mode C capability.
c. ADS-B Out equipment–operating on UAT 978 MHz or 1090 MHz ES frequency.

113
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class C airspace or to an airport within Class C airspace, what basic requirements must be met?
(14 CFR 91.130)

A

Each person must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

114
Q

Define what is meant by the word established in this context: “Two-way radio communications must be established prior to entering Class C airspace.” (AIM 3-2-4)

A

If a controller responds to a radio call with “(aircraft call sign) standby,” radio communications have been established. It is important to understand that if the controller responds to the initial radio call without using the aircraft identification, radio communications have not been established and the pilot may not enter the Class C airspace.

115
Q

When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class C airspace, what requirement must be met?
(14 CFR 91.130)

A

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facilities having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

116
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class C airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)

A

VFR flight operations within Class C airspace require 3 SM flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontal to clouds.

117
Q

How is Class C airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

A solid magenta line is used to depict Class C airspace. Class C airspace is charted on Sectional Charts, IFR En Route Low Altitude, and Terminal Area Charts where appropriate.

118
Q

What type of Air Traffic Control services are provided when operating within Class C airspace?
(AIM 3-2-4)

A

When two-way radio communications and radar contact are established, all VFR aircraft are:
a. Sequenced to the primary airport.
b. Provided Class C services within the Class C airspace and the outer area.
c. Provided basic radar services beyond the outer area on a workload permitting basis. This can be terminated by the controller if workload dictates.

119
Q

Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft. (AIM 4-1-18)

A

Basic radar service–Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring (on a workload-permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement.
TRSA (Terminal Radar Service Area) service–Radar sequencing and separation service for VFR aircraft in a TRSA.
Class C service–This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.
Class B service–Provides, in addition to the basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport(s).

120
Q

Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B required?
(AIM 4-1-20, 14 CFR 91.215, 91.225, 91.13)

A

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment when operating:
a. In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace
b. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 ft MSL
c. Class E airspace at and above 10,000 ft MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 ft AGL.
d. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 ft MSL (Mode C Veil)
e. For ADS-B Out: Class E airspace at and above 3,000 ft MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles.
f. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ.

121
Q

What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class C airspace? (AIM 3-2-4)

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 ft above the surface within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area at an indicated speed of more than 200 knots.

122
Q

What is Class D airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)

A

Generally, Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to 2,500 ft above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The configuration of each Class D airspace area is individually fitted and when instrument procedures are published, the airspace will normally be designed to contain those procedures.

123
Q

When operating an aircraft through Class D airspace or to an airport within Class D airspace, what requirement must be met?
(14 CFR 91.129)

A

Each person must establish two-way radio communication with the ATC facilities providing air traffic services prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.

124
Q

When departing a satellite airport without an operative control tower located within Class D airspace, what requirements must be met?
(14 CFR 91.129)

A

Each person must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

125
Q

Is an ATC clearance required if flight operations are conducted through a Class E arrival extension?
(AIM 3-2-5, 3-2-6)

A

Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas. Class E airspace extensions begin at the surface and extend up to the overlying controlled airspace. The extensions provide controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures without imposing a communications requirement on pilots operating under VFR. Surface area arrival extensions become part of the surface area and are in effect during the same time as the surface area.

126
Q

What minimum weather conditions are required when conducting VFR flight operations within Class D airspace? (14 CFR 91.155)

A

VFR flight operations within Class D airspace require 3 SM flight visibility and cloud clearances of at least 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontal to clouds.

127
Q

How is Class D airspace depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-2-5)

A

Class D airspace areas are depicted on Sectional and Terminal charts with blue segmented lines, and on IFR Enroute Lows with a boxed [D].

128
Q

What type of Air Traffic Control services are provided when operating within Class D airspace?
(AIM 3-2-5, 5-5-8, 5-5-10)

A

No separation services are provided to VFR aircraft. When meteorological conditions permit, regardless of the type of flight plan or whether or not under the control of a radar facility, the pilot is responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles. A controller, on a workload permitting basis, will provide radar traffic information, safety alerts and traffic information for sequencing purposes.

129
Q

What is the maximum speed an aircraft may be operated within Class D airspace? (AIM 3-2-5)

A

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 ft above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots.

130
Q

When a control tower, located at an airport within a Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the lower limit of the controlled airspace. (AIM 3-2-5)

A

During the hours the tower is not in operation, Class E surface area rules, or a combination of Class E rules down to 700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface, will become applicable. Check the Chart Supplement U.S. for specifics.

131
Q

Will all airports with an operating control tower always have Class D airspace surrounding them?
(AIM 4-3-2)

A

No; some airports do not have the required weather reporting capability necessary for surface based controlled airspace. The controlled airspace over these airports normally begins at 700 ft or 1,200 ft AGL and can be determined from visual aeronautical charts.

132
Q

What is the definition of controlled airspace? (P/CG)

A

Controlled airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification. Controlled airspace is a generic term that covers Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.

133
Q

State several examples of Class E airspace. (AIM 3-2-6)

A

a. Surface area designated for an airport where a control tower is not in operation–Class E surface areas extend upward from the surface to a designated altitude, or to the adjacent or overlying controlled airspace and are configured to contain all instrument procedures.
b. Extension to a surface area–Class E airspace may be designated as extensions to Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas.
c. Airspace used for transition–Class E airspace areas may be designated for transitioning aircraft to/from the terminal or enroute environment. They extend upward from either 700 ft AGL or 1,200 ft AGL and are designated for airports with an approved instrument procedure. The 700 ft/1,200 ft AGL Class E airspace transition areas remain in effect continuously, regardless of airport operating hours or surface area status.
d. Enroute domestic areas–Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude an provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services, but the Federal airway system is inadequate.
e. Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes–Federal airways and low-altitude RNAV routes are Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upwards from 1,200 ft AGL to, but not including 18,000 ft MSL.
f. Offshore airspace areas–Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including 18,000 ft MSL.
g. Unless designated at a lower altitude–Class E airspace in the U.S consists of the airspace extending upward from 14,500 ft MSL to, but not including 18,000 ft MSL overlying the 48 contiguous states, the District of Columbia and Alaska, including the waters within 12 NM from the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska.
h. The airspace above FL600 is Class E airspace.

134
Q

What are the operating rules and pilot/equipment requirements to operate within Class E airspace?
(AIM 3-2-6)

A

a. Pilot certification–student pilot certificate.
b. Equipment:
i. An operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability and operable ADS-B Out equipment is required at and above 10,000 ft MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 ft above the surface, and
ii. Operable ADS-B Out equipment at and above 3,000 ft MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 NM offshore.

135
Q

When a Class C or Class D surface area is not in effect continuously (for example, where a control tower only operates part-time), what will happen to the surface area airspace when the tower closes? (AIM 3-2-6)

A

The surface area airspace will change to either a Class E surface area or Class G airspace. In such cases, the “Airspace” entry for the airport in the Chart Supplement U.S will state “other times Class E” or “other times Class G.” When a part-time surface area changes to a Class E airspace, the Class E arrival extensions will remain in effect as Class E airspace. If a part-time Class C, Class D, or Class E surface area becomes Class G airspace, the arrival extensions will change to Class G at the same time.

136
Q

Explain the purpose of Class E transition areas. (AIM 3-2-6)

A

Class E transition areas extend upward from either 700 ft AGL (magenta vignette) or 1,200 ft AGL (blue vignette) and are designated for airports with airports with an approved instrument procedure. Class E transition areas exist to help separate (via cloud clearances) arriving an departing IFR traffic from VFR aircraft operating in the vicinity.

137
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class E airspace?
(14 CFR 91.127)

A

Yes, unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to an including 2,500 ft AGL.

138
Q

How is Class E airspace depicted on navigational charts?
(AIM 3-2-6, USRGD)

A

Class E airspace below 14,500 ft MSL is charted on Sectional, Terminal, and IFR Enroute Low Altitude charts. The lateral and vertical limits of all Class E controlled airspace up to but not including 18,000 ft are shown by narrow bands of vignette on Sectional and Terminal Area charts. Controlled airspace floors of 700 ft AGL are defined by a magenta vignette; floors other that 700 ft that abut uncontrolled airspace airspace are defined by a blue vignette; differing floors greater than 700 ft AGL are annotated by a symbol and a number indicating the floor. If the ceiling is less than 18,000 ft MSL, the value (prefixed by the word “ceiling”) is shown along the limits of the controlled airspace.

139
Q

How are Class E surface extension areas depicted on navigational charts? (USRGD)

A

Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, Class C, and Class D airspace are depicted by a magenta segmented line.

140
Q

What minimum flight visibility are clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following situations? (14 CFR 91.155)

A

Class C, D, or E Airspace
Less than 10,000 ft MSL:
- Visibility–3 SM
- Cloud clearance–500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal.
At or above 10,000 ft MSL:
- Visibility–5 SM
- Cloud clearance–1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 1 SM horizontal.
Class G Airspace
1,200 ft or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude):
Day
- Visibility–1 SM
- Cloud clearance–Clear of clouds.
Night
- Visibility–3 SM.
- Cloud clearance–500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal.
More than 1,200 ft above the surface but less than 10,000 ft MSL:
Day:
- Visibility–1 SM
- Cloud clearance–500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal.
Night:
- Visibility–3 SM
- Cloud clearance–500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal
More than 1,200 ft above the surface AND at or above 10,000 ft MSL:
- Visibility–5 SM
- Cloud clearances–1,000 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 1 SM horizontal.

141
Q

What are the basic VFR weather minimums required for operation of an aircraft into Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace?
(14 CFR 91.155)

A

1,000-ft ceiling and 3 SM visibility. Except as provided in Part 91.157 (special VFR), no person may:
a. Operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 ft.
b. Take off or land an aircraft, or enter the traffic pattern of an airport, under VFR, within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport unless ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 SM or, if ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility during landing or takeoff, or while operating in the traffic pattern is at least 3 SM.

142
Q

If VFR flight minimums cannot be maintained, can a VFR flight be made into Class B, C, D, or E airspace?
(AIM 4-4-6)

A

No, with one exception. A “Special VFR clearance” may be obtained from ATC prior to operating within a Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E, surface area provided the flight can remain clear of clouds with at least 1 SM of ground visibility if taking off or landing or, 1 SM of flight visibility for operations within Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas.

143
Q

Are special VFR clearances always available to pilots in all classes of airspace? (AIM 4-4-6)

A

A VFR pilot may request and be given a clearance to enter, leave, or operate within most Class D and Class E surface areas and some Class B and Class C surface areas traffic permitting and providing such flight will not delay IFR operations.

144
Q

If it becomes apparent that a special VFR clearance will be necessary, what facility should the pilot contact in order to obtain one? (AIM 4-4-6)

A

When a control tower is located within a Class B, Class C, or Class D surface area, requests for clearances should be made to the tower. In a Class E surface area, clearance may be obtained from the nearest tower, FSS, or center.

145
Q

Can a Special VFR clearance be obtained into or out of Class B, C, D, or E airspace at night? (AIM 4-4-6)

A

Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless the pilot is instrument rated and the aircraft is equipped for IFR flight.

146
Q

What is the definition of Class G airspace? (FAA-H-8083-25, AIM 3-3-1)

A

Uncontrolled airspace or Class G airspace is the portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E. It is therefore designated uncontrolled airspace. Class G airspace extends from the surface to the base of the overlying Class E airspace. Although ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic, pilots should remember that there are visual flight rules (VFR) minimums that apply to Class G airspace.

147
Q

Are you required to establish communications with a tower located within Class G airspace?
(14 CFR 91.126)

A

Yes, unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft to, from, through, or on an airport having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower. Communications must be established prior to 4 NM from the airport, up to and including 2,500 AGL.

148
Q

What are the vertical limits of Class G airspace? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Class G airspace begins at the surface and continues up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 ft MSL.

149
Q

What is the minimum cloud clearance and visibility requirements when conducting flight operations in a traffic pattern at night in a Class G airspace below 1,200 ft AGL?
(14 CFR 91.155)

A

When the visibility is less than 3 statue miles (SM) but not less than 1 SM during the night hours, an airplane may be operated clear of clouds if operated in an airport traffic pattern within one-half mile of the runway.

150
Q

What is a prohibited area?
(AIM 3-4-2)

A

Prohibited areas contain certain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the Earth within which flight of aircraft is prohibited. Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with national welfare.

151
Q

What is a restricted area?
(AIM 3-4-3)

A

Restricted areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the Earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. These areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

152
Q

Under what conditions, if any, may pilots enter restricted or prohibited areas? (14 CFR 91.133)

A

No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area contrary to the restriction imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has permission of the using or controlling agency. Normally no operations are permitted within a prohibited area and prior permission must always be obtained before operating within a restricted area.

153
Q

What is a warning area? (AIM 3-4-4)

A

A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such an area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters, or both.

154
Q

What is a Military Operating Area (MOA)? (AIM 3-4-5)

A

A MOA consists of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within a MOA when military activity is being conducted. The activity status (active/inactive) of MOAs may change frequently. Therefore, pilots should contact any FSS within 100 miles of the area to obtain accurate real-time information concerning the MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.

155
Q

What is an alert area? (AIM 3-4-6)

A

Alert areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of areal activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas. All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with regulations, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

156
Q

What is a controlled firing area (CFA)? (AIM 3-4-7)

A

CFAs contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar or ground lookout positions indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area. CFAs are not charted.

157
Q

What is a national security area (NSA)? (AIM 3-4-8)

A

NSAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security and safety of ground facilities. Pilots are requested to voluntarily avoid flying through the depicted NSA. When is it necessary to provide a greater level of security and safety, flight in NSAs may be temporarily prohibited by regulation under the provisions of Part 99.7.

158
Q

Where can information on special use airspace be found?
(AIM 3-4-1, 3-4-9)

A

The frequency for the controlling agency is tabulated in the margins of the applicable IFR and VFR charts. Permanent SUAs (CFAs–controlled firing areas) area charted on sectional aeronautical, VFR terminal area, and applicable en route charts, and include the hours of operation, altitudes, and the controlling agency. For temporary restricted areas and MOAs, pilots should review the Domestic Notices found on the Federal NOTAM System website at notams.aim.faa.gov/notamSearch/

159
Q

What are examples of “other” airspace areas?
(AIM 3-5-1 thru 3-5-7)

A

Other airspace areas is a general term referring to the majority of the remaining airspace. It includes:
1. Local airport advisory
2. Military training route (MTR)
3. Temporary flight restriction (TFR)
4. Parachute jump aircraft operations
5. Published VFR routes
6. Terminal radar service area (TRSA)
7. Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR) and Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)

160
Q

What are Military Training Routes?
(AIM 3-5-2)

A

Military Training Routes are developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high speed training. The routes above 1,500 ft AGL are developed to be flown, to the maximum extent possible, under IFR. The routes at 1,500 ft AGL and below are generally developed to be flown under VFR. Routes below 1,500 ft AGL use four-digit identifiers (e.g., IR 1004, VR 1008). Routes above 1,500 ft AGL use three-digit identifiers (e.g., IR 003, VR 004). IR is for IFR routes and VR is for VFR routes.

161
Q

What is a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)?
(AC 91-63, AIM 3-5-3)

A

A TFR is a regulatory action issued via the U.S. NOTAM system to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area, on a temporary basis, to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. They may be issued due to a hazardous condition, a special event, or as a general warning for the entire FAA airspace. TFR information can be obtained from an FSS or on the internet at tfr.faa.gov.

162
Q

Where can a pilot find information on Parachute Jump Aircraft Operations?
(AIM 3-5-4, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Procedures relating to parachute jump areas are contained in Part 105. Parachute jump aircraft operations are published in the Chart Supplement U.S and jump sites that are used frequently are depicted on sectional charts.

163
Q

What is the purpose of Published VFR Routes?
(AIM 3-5-5, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Published VFR routes are for transitioning around, under, or through some complex airspace. Terms such as VFR flyway, VFR corridor, Class B airspace VFR transition route, and terminal area VFR route have been applied to such routes. These routes are generally found on VFR terminal area planning charts.

164
Q

Where can a pilot find information on VFR flyways, VFR Corridors, and Class B airspace transition routes used to transition busy terminal airspace? (AIM 3-5-5)

A

Information will normally be depicted on the reverse side of VFR Terminal Area Charts, commonly referred to as Class B airspace charts.

165
Q

What is a Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)? (AIM 3-5-6, P/CG)

A

A TRSA consists of airspace surrounding designated airports wherein ATC provides radar vectoring, sequencing, and separation on a full-time basis for all IFR and participating VFR aircraft. Pilot participating is urged but not mandatory.

166
Q

What class of airspace is a TRSA? (AIM 3-5-6, P/CG)

A

TRSAs do not fit into any of the U.S airspace classes and are not contained in Part 71 nor are there any operating rules in Part 91. The primary airport(s) within the TRSA become Class D airspace. The remaining portion of a TRSA overlies other controlled airspace which is normally Class E airspace beginning at 700 or 1,200 ft and established to transition to transition to/from the enroute/terminal environment. TRSAs will continue to be an airspace area where participating pilots can receive additional radar services which have been redefined as TRSA service.

167
Q

How are TRSAs depicted on navigational charts? (AIM 3-5-6)

A

TRSAs are depicted on VFR sectional and terminal area charts with a solid black line and altitudes for each segment. The Class D portion is charted with a blue segmented line.

168
Q

Explain the requirements to operate an aircraft within airspace designated as a SATR area or SFRA.
(AIM 3-5-7)

A

Special Air Traffic Rules (SATR)–Rules that govern procedures for conducting flights in certain areas listed in Part 93. The term SATR is used in the United States to describe the rules for operations in specific areas designated in the Code of Federal Regulations.

Special Flight Rules Area (SFRA)–Airspace of defined dimensions, above land areas or territorial waters, within which the flight of aircraft is subject to the rules set forth in Part 93, unless otherwise authorized by ATC. Not all areas listen in Part 93 are designated SFRA, but special air traffic rules apply to all areas described in Part 93.

169
Q

What is an ADIZ, (Air Defense Identification Zone) and where are they located? (P/CG)

A

An Air Defense Identification Zone is an area of airspace over land or water, in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft (except DOD and law enforcement aircraft) is required in the interest of national security.

170
Q

What requirements must be satisfied prior to operation into, within, or across an ADIZ (Air Defense Identification Zone)?
(AIM 5-6-4, 14 CFR Part 99)

A

Operational requirements for aircraft operations associated with an ADIZ are as follows:
Flight plan–An IFR or DVFR (Defense Visual Flight Rules) flight plan must be filed and activated with the appropriate aeronautical facility.
Two-way radio–An operating two-way radio is required.
Transponder–Aircraft must be equipped with an operable radar beacon transponder having altitude reporting (Mode C) capabilities. The transponder must be turned on and set to the assigned ATC code.
Position reports–For IFR flights, normal position reporting. For DVFR flights, an estimated time of ADIZ penetration must be filed at least 15 minutes prior to entry.
Land based ADIZ–Are activated and deactivated over U.S metropolitan areas as needed, with dimensions, activation dates, etc., disseminated via NOTAM. Pilots unable to comply will all NOTAM requirements must remain clear of Land-Based ADIZ. Pilots entering a Land-Based ADIZ without authorization or who fail to follow all requirements risk interception by military fighter aircraft.

171
Q

Discuss Class A airspace.
(AIM 3-2-2, 14 CFR 91.135)

A

Vertical dimensions = 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600
Operations permitted = IFR
Entry prerequisites = ATC clearance
Minimum pilot qualifications = Instrument Rating
Two-way radio communications = Yes
Aircraft separation = All
Safety advisories = Yes

172
Q

Discuss Class B airspace.
(AIM 3-2-3, 14 CFR 91.131)

A

Vertical dimensions = Surface to 10,000 ft MSL
Operations permitted = IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites = ATC clearance
Minimum pilot qualifications = Private/Student
Two-way radio communications = Yes
VFR minimum visibility = 3 SM
VFR minimum distance from clouds = Clear of clouds
Aircraft separation = All
Conflict resolution = Yes
Traffic advisories = Yes
Safety advisories = Yes

173
Q

Discuss Class C airspace.
(AIM 3-2-4, 14 CFR 91.130)

A

Vertical dimensions = Surface to 4,000 ft AGL (charted MSL)
Operations permitted = IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites = ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Minimum pilot qualifications = Student certificate
Two-way radio communications = Yes
VFR Minimum visibility = 3 SM
VFR Minimum distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 horizontal
Aircraft separation = IFR, SVFR, and runway operations
Conflict resolution = Between IFR and VFR operations
Traffic advisories = Yes
Safety advisories = Yes

174
Q

Discuss Class D airspace.
(AIM 3-2-5, 14 CFR 91.129)

A

Vertical dimensions = Surface to 2,500 ft AGL (charted MSL)
Operations permitted = IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites = ATC clearance for IFR; radio contact for all
Minimum pilot qualifications = Student certificate
Two-way radio communications = Yes
VFR Minimum visibility = 3 SM
VFR Minimum distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal
Aircraft separation = IFR, SVFR and runway operations
Conflict resolution = No
Traffic advisories = Workload permitting
Safety advisories = Yes

175
Q

Discuss Class E airspace. Vertical dimensions: Except for 18,000 ft MSL, no defined vertical limit. Extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace.
(AIM 3-2-6, 14 CFR 91.127)

A

Operations permitted = IFR and VFR
Entry perquisites = ATC clearance for IFR
Minimum pilot qualifications = Student certificate
Two-way radio communications = Yes for IFR
VFR Minimum visibility = 3 SM
VFR Minimum distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal
Aircraft separation = IFR and SVFR
Conflict resolution = No
Traffic advisories = Workload permitting
Safety advisories = Yes

176
Q

Discuss Class G airspace.
(AIM 3-3-1, 14 CFR 91.126)

A

Vertical dimensions = Surface up to the overlying controlled (Class E) airspace, not to exceed 14,500 ft MSL.
Operations permitted = IFR and VFR
Entry prerequisites = None
Minimum pilot qualifications = Student certificate
Two-way radio communications = No
VFR Minimum visibility = 1 SM
VFR Minimum distance from clouds = 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, and 2,000 ft horizontal
Aircraft separation = None
Conflict resolution = No
Traffic advisories = Workload permitting
Safety advisories = Yes

Different visibility minimums and distance from cloud requirements exist for night operations, operating above 10,000 ft MSL, and operations below 1,200 ft AGL.

177
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
20. If your Mode C
transponder/ADS-B Out equipment fails while en route, can you continue flight into Class B or C airspace? (AIM 4-1-20)

A
178
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
21. Is Mode C transponder/ADS-B Out equipment required for flight over Class C airspace if operating below 10,000 ft MSL? (AIM 4-1-20)

A
179
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
22. Why do the Class E airspace cloud clearance and visibility requirements change above 10,000 ft? (FAA Safety ALC-25)

A
180
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
23. Are there any restrictions when flying through an alert area? Can you fly through one at any time?
(AIM 3-4-6)

A
181
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
24. Your cross-country route of flight takes you through a restricted area. Will you have to fly around it?
(AIM 3-4-3, 14 CFR 91.133)

A
182
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
25. Are you required to have an ATC clearance when operating within the lateral boundaries of a TRSA?
(AIM 3-5-6)

A
183
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
26. How can you determine the vertical limits of a Military Operations Area?
(Chart Legend)

A
184
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
27. You’re planning a VFR cross-country flight that will take you through busy Class B airspace. ATC usually routes you around the Class B airspace which you would like to avoid. Is there a procedure for transiting the Class B airspace without an ATC clearance or communication with air traffic control? (AIM 3-5-5)

A
185
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
28. What is a FAA-Recognized Identification Area or FRIA? (AC 89-3)

A
186
Q

What are the four dynamic forces that act on an airplane during all maneuvers? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Lift–The upward acting force.
Gravity (or weight)–The downward acting force.
Thrust–The forward acting force.
Drag–The backward acting force.

187
Q

What flight condition will result in the sum of the opposing forces being equal? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

In steady-state, straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, the sum of the opposing forces is equal to zero. There can be no unbalanced forces in steady, straight flight (Newtons Third Law).

188
Q

What is an airfoil? State some examples. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An airfoil is a device which gets a useful reaction from air moving over its surface, namely LIFT. Wings, horizontal tail surfaces, vertical tail surfaces, and propellers are examples of airfoils.

189
Q

What is the angle of incidence?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The angle of incidence is the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord of the wing. It is measured by the angle at which the wing is attached to the fuselage. The angle of incidence is fixed and cannot be changed by the pilot.

190
Q

What is a relative wind?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The relative wind is the direction of the airflow with respect to the wing. When a wing is moving forward and downward the relative wind moves backward and upward. The flight path and relative wind are always parallel but travel in opposite directions.

191
Q

What is the angle of attack?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind; it can be changed by the pilot.

192
Q

What is Bernoulli’s Principle?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Bernoulli’s Principle–The pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases. In the case of airflow, high speed flow is associated with low pressure and low speed flow with high pressure. The airfoil of an aircraft is thereby decreasing pressure above the airfoil. Simultaneously, the impact of the air on the lower surface of the airfoil increases the pressure below. This combination of pressure decrease above and increase below produces lift.

193
Q

What are several factors at which will affect both lift and drag?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Wing area–Lift and drag acting on a wing are roughly proportional to the wing area. A pilot can change wing area by using certain types of flaps (e.g., Fowler flaps).
Shape of the airfoil–As the upper curvature of an airfoil is increased (up to a certain point) the lift produced increases. Lowering an aileron or flap device can accomplish this. Also, ice or frost on a wing can disturb normal airflow, changing its camber, and disrupting its lift capability.
Angle of attack–As angle of attack is increased, both lift and drag are increased, up to a certain point.
Velocity of the air–An increase in velocity of air passing over the wing increases lift and drag.
Air density–Lift and drag vary directly with the density of the air. As air density increases, lift and drag increase. As air density decreases, lift and drag decrease. Air density is affected by these factors: pressure, temperature, and humidity.

194
Q

What is torque effect?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Torque effect involves Newton’s Third Law of Physics: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. Applied to the airplane, this means that as the internal engine parts and the propeller are revolving in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the airplane in the opposite direction. It is greatest when at low airspeeds with high power settings and a high angle of attack.

195
Q

What effect does torque reaction have on an airplane on the ground and in flight? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

In flight–Torque reaction is acting around the longitudinal axis, tending to make the airplane roll. To compensate, some some of the older airplanes are rigged in a manner to create more lift on the wing that is being forced downward. The more modern airplanes are designed with the engine offset to counteract this effect of torque.

On the ground–During the takeoff role, an additional turning moment around the vertical axis is induced by torque reaction. As the left side if the airplane is being forced down by the torque reaction, more weight is being placed on the left main landing gear. This results in more ground friction, or drag in the left tire than on the right, causing a further turning moment to the left.

196
Q

What are the four factors that contribute to torque effect?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Torque reaction of the engine and propeller–For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. The rotation of the propeller (from the cockpit) to the right tends to roll or bank the airplane to the left.
Gyroscopic effect of the propeller–Gyroscopic precession applies here: the resultant action or deflection of a spinning object when force is applied to the outer rim of its rotational mass. If the axis of a propeller is tilted, the resulting force will be exerted 90º ahead in the direction of rotation and in the same direction as the applied force. It is most noticeable on takeoffs in taildraggers when the tail is raised.
Corkscrewing effect of the propeller slipstream–High-speed rotation of an airplane propeller results in a corkscrewing rotation to the slipstream as it moves rearward. At high propeller speeds and low forward speeds (as in takeoff), the slipstream strikes the vertical tail surface on the left side pushing the tail to the right and yawing the airplane to the left.
Asymmetrical loading of the propeller (P-Factor)–When an airplane is flying with a high angle of attack, the bite of the downward moving propeller blade is greater than the bite of the upward moving blade. This is due to the downward moving blade meeting the oncoming relative wind at a greater angle of attack than the upward moving blade. Consequently, there is greater thrust on the downward moving blade on the right side, and this forces the airplane to yaw to the left.

197
Q

What is centrifugal force?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Centrifugal force is the equal and opposite reaction of the airplane to the change in direction, and acts equal and opposite to the horizontal component of lift.

198
Q

What is load factor? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Load factor is the ratio of the total load supported by the airplane’s wing to the actual weight of the airplane and its contents. In other words, it is the actual load supported by the wings divided by the total weight of the airplane. It can also be expressed as a the ratio of a given load to the pull of gravity, e.g., to refer to a load factor of three as 3 Gs. In this case the weight of the airplane is equal to 1 G, imposed upon the wing due to curved flight, the load factor would be equal to 3 Gs.

199
Q

For what to reasons is load factor important to pilots? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. Because of the obviously dangerous overload that is possible for a pilot to impose on the aircraft structure.
b. Because an increased load factor increases the stalling speed and makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds.

200
Q

What situations may result in load factors reaching the maximum or being exceeded? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Level turns–The load factor increases at a terrific rate after a bank has reached 45º or 50º. The load factor in a 60º-bank turn is 2 Gs. The load factor in an 80º turn is 5.76 Gs. The wing must produce lift equal to these load factors if altitude is to be maintained.
Turbulence–Severe and extreme vertical gusts cause a sudden increase in angle of attack, resulting in large loads which are resisted by the momentum of the airplane.
Speed–The amount of excess load that can be imposed upon the wing depends on how fast the airplane is flying. At speeds below maneuvering speed, the airplane will stall before the load factor can become excessive. At speeds above the maneuvering speed, the limit load for which an airplane is stressed can be exceeded by abrupt or excessive application of the controls or by strong turbulence.

201
Q

What are the different operational categories for aircraft and their load factors, and within which category does your aircraft fall?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The maximum safe load factors (limit load factors) specified for airplanes in the various categories are as follows:

Normal = +3.8 to –1.52
Utility (mild aerobatics including spins) = +4.4 to –1.76
Aerobatic = +6.0 to –3.00

202
Q

What effect does an increase in load factor have on stalling speed?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

As load factor increases, stalling speed increases. Any airplane can be stalled at any airspeed within the limits of its structure and the strength the pilot. At a given airspeed the load factor increases as angle of attack increases, and the wing stalls because the angle of attack has exceeded the airplanes critical angle of attack. Therefore, there is a direct relationship between the load factor imposed upon the wing and its stalling characteristics. A rule for determining the speed at which a wing will stall is that the stalling speed increases in proportion to the square root of the load factor.

203
Q

Define the term maneuvering speed.
(FAA-H-8083-25, SAIB CE-11-17)

A

Maneuvering speed is the maximum speed at which the limit load can be imposed (either by gusts or full deflection of the control surfaces) without causing structural damage. It is the speed below which you can, in smooth air, move a single flight control at one time, to its full deflection, for one axis of airplane rotation only (pitch, roll, or yaw) without risk of damage to the airplane. Speeds up to, but not exceeding the maneuvering speed allow an aircraft to stall prior to experiencing an increase in load factor that would exceed the limit load of the aircraft.

204
Q

Discuss the effect on maneuvering speed of an increase or decrease in weight. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Maneuvering speed increases with an increase in weight and decreases with a decrease in weight. An aircraft operating at a reduced weight is more vulnerable to rapid acceleration encountered during flight through turbulence or gusts. Design limit load factors could be exceeded if a reduction in maneuvering speed is not accomplished. An aircraft operating at or near gross weight in turbulent air is much less likely to exceed design limit load factors and may be operated at the published maneuvering speed for gross weight if necessary.

205
Q

Define loss-of-control-inflight (LOC-I) and describe several situations that might increase the risk of a LOC-I accident occurring. (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

LOC-I is defined as a significant deviation of an aircraft from the intended flight path, and it often results from an airplane upset. Maneuvering is the most common phase of flight for LOC-I accidents to occur; however, LOC-I accidents occur in all phases of flight. Situations that increase the risk of this include uncoordinated flight, equipment malfunctions, pilot complacency, distraction, turbulence, and poor risk management, such as attempting to fly in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) when the pilot is not qualified or proficient in it.

206
Q

What is a spin? (AC 61-67)

A

A spin in a small airplane or glider is a controlled (recoverable) or uncontrolled (possibly unrecoverable) maneuver in which the airplane or glider descends in a spiral path while flying at an angle of attack greater than the critical angle of attack. Spins result from aggravated stalls in either a slip or a skid. If a stall does not occur, than a spin cannot occur.

207
Q

What causes a spin? (AC 61-67)

A

The primary cause of an inadvertent spin is exceeding the critical angle of attack while applying excessive or insignificant rudder, and to a lesser extent, aileron.

208
Q

When are spins most likely to occur?(AC 61-67)

A

A stall/spin situation can occur in any phase of flight but is most likely to occur in the following situations:

a. Engine failure on takeoff during climb out–Pilot tries to stretch glide to landing area by increasing back pressure or makes and uncoordinated turn back to departure runway at relatively low airspeed.
b. Crossed-control turn from base to final (slipping or skidding turn)–Pilot overshoots final (possibly due to a crosswind) and makes uncoordinated turn at a low airspeed.
c. Engine failure on approach to landing–Pilot tries to stretch glide to runway by increasing back pressure.
d. Go-around with full nose-up trim-Pilot applies power with full flaps and nose-up trim combined with uncoordinated use of rudder.
e. Go-around with improper flap retraction–Pilot applies power and retracts flaps rapidly resulting in a rapid sink rate followed by an instinctive increase in back-pressure.

209
Q

What procedure should be used to recover from an inadvertent spin?
(AC 61-67)

A

a. Pull the throttle to the idling position (if not already accomplished)
b. Neutralize the ailerons.
c. Apply full rudder in the opposite direction of the spin
d. Briskly move the elevator control forward to approximately the neutral position (or if necessary, full forward elevator pressure depending on the airplane).
e. Once the stall is broken the spinning will stop. Neutralize the rudder when the spinning stops.
f. When the rudder is neutralized, gradually apply enough aft elevator pressure to return to level flight.

Remember PARE
Power–Reduce to idle
Ailerons–Position to neutral
Rudder–Apply full opposite against rotation
Elevator–Apply positive, forward of neutral, movement to break stall.

Once the spin rotation stops, neutralize the rudder, and begin applying back pressure to return to level flight

Note: Always reference your airplane’s POH/AFM for the appropriate spin recovery procedure

210
Q

What causes adverse yaw?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

When turning an airplane to the left for example, the downward deflected aileron on the right produces more lift on the right wing. Since the downward deflected right aileron produces more lift, it also produced more drag, while the opposite left aileron has less lift and less drag. This added drag attempts to pull or veer the airplane’s nose to in the direction of the raised wing (right); that is, it tries to turn the airplane in the direction opposite to that desired. This undesired veering is referred to as adverse yaw.

211
Q

What is ground effect?
(FAA-H-8083-3)

A

Ground effect is a condition of improved performance the airplane experiences when it is operating near the ground. A change occurs in the three-dimensional flow pattern around the airplane because the airflow around the wing is restricted by the ground surface. This reduced the the wing’s upwash, downwash, and wingtip vortices. In order for ground effect to be of a significant magnitude, the wing must be quite close to the ground.

212
Q

What major problems can be caused by ground effect. (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

During landing–At a height of approximately one-tenth of a wingspan above the surface, drag may be 40 percent less than when the airplane is operating out of ground effect. Therefore, any excess speed during the landing phase may result in a significant float distance. In such cases, if care is not exercised by the pilot, he/she may run out of runway and options at the same time.
During takeoff–Due tot he reduced drag in ground effect, the aircraft may seem capable of takeoff well before the recommended speed. However, as the airplane rises out of ground effect with a deficiency of speed, the greater induced drag may result in very marginal climb performance, or the inability of the airplane to fly at all. In extreme conditions, such as high temperature, high gross weight, and high-density altitude, the airplane may become airborne initially with a deficiency of speed and then settle back to the runway.

213
Q

Explain where a pilot would look for radio communication frequencies and other airport data.
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Communication frequencies and airport data may be found in the following:
a. Aeronautical charts (on the chart tab).
b. The Chart Supplement U.S.
c. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs).
d. Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS broadcasts).
e. GPS navigation databases and charting apps.

214
Q

Explain the phraseology a pilot should use on initial contact with an ATC facility. (AIM 4-2-3)

A

Use the following format:
a. Name the facility being called.
b. Your full aircraft identification.
c. If on the ground, your position, if in the air, your location.
d. Your request if it is short.

Example: “Long-Island Ground, Skyhawk One Two Seven Hotel Foxtrot, on the West side, ready to taxi to the active, with information Bravo, requesting touch-and-goes.

215
Q

When used to acknowledge time-critical ATC instructions, explain the meaning of the following words: Wilco, Roger, Affirmative, and Negative. (FAA-P-8740-47)

A

Wilco, which means, “I will comply.”
Roger, which means, “I have received and understood your last transmission.”
Affirmative, which means, “Yes.”
Negative, which means, “No.”

216
Q

Is it acceptable to abbreviate your call sign on an initial contact with an ATC facility? (FAA-P-8740-47)

A

No. It is very important to ensure use of correct call signs. Aircraft with similar call signs may be on the same frequency, and improper use of call signs can result in one pilot executing a clearance intended for another aircraft. To avoid this problem, never abbreviate your call sign on initial contact, or at any time when other aircraft call signs you hear on the frequency have similar numbers/sounds or identical letters/numbers to your own aircraft (e.g., N99HF, N91HF, N127HF, N33HF)

217
Q

What is the most common type of communication radio equipment installed in general aviation aircraft. How many channels are available?
(FAA-H-8083-25)

A

In general aviation, the most common types of radios are VHF. A VHF radio operates on frequencies between 118.0 and 136.975 MHz and is classified as 720 or 760 depending on the numbers of channels it can accommodate. The 720 and 760 uses .025 spacing (118.025, 118.050, ect.) with the 720 having a frequency range up to 135.975 and the 760 going up to 136.975.

218
Q

What frequencies are used for ground control? (AIM 4-3-14)

A

The majority of ground control frequencies are 121.6 to 121.9 MHz.

219
Q

What is a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF)? (AIM 4-3-14)

A

A CTAF is a frequency designated for the purpose of carrying out airport advisory practices while operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower. The CTAF may be a UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, or TOWER frequency and is identified in appropriate aeronautical publications.

220
Q

What is UNICOM, and what frequencies are designated for its use? (AIM 4-1-9 and 4-1-11)

A

UNICOM is a nongovernment communication facility which may provide airport information at certain airports. Airports other than those with a control tower/FSS on airport will normally use 122.700, 122.725, 122.800, 122.975, 123.000, 123.050, and 123.075 MHz. Airports with a control tower or an FSS on airport will normally use 122.950 MHz.

221
Q

What does ATIS mean? (AIM 4-1-13)

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas. Its purpose is to improve controller effectiveness and to relieve frequency congestion by automating the repetitive transmission of essential but routine information.

222
Q

What is an RCO (remote communications outlet)? (P/CG)

A

A remote communications outlet (RCO) is an unmanned communications facility remotely controlled by ATC personnel, established for the purpose of providing ground-to-ground communications between ATC and pilots located at satellite airports. ATC may use the RCO to deliver en route clearances and departure authorizations, and to acknowledge IFR cancellations, or departure/landing times. As a secondary function, RCOs may be used for advisory purposes whenever the aircraft is below the coverage of the primary air/ground frequency.

223
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating control tower, FSS, or UNICOM, what procedure should be followed? (AIM 4-1-9, P/CG)

A

Where there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, use MULTICOM frequency 122.9 for self-announce procedures. MULTICOM is a mobile service not open to public use, used to provide communications essential to conduct the activities being performed by or direction from private aircraft.

224
Q

What would be an indication that a microphone/PTT (Push-To-Talk) switch is stuck in the transmit position in your airplane? What would you do? (AIM 4-2-2)

A

One indication would be a lack of sounds from the receiver. Some aircraft transmitters will indicate that they’re transmitting by displaying a “T” on the display. Check your volume, recheck your frequency, and make sure that your microphone/Push-To-Talk (PTT) button is not stuck in the transmit position. Depending on the airplane, other possible actions would be unplugging the microphone/PTT, unplugging a headset, ect.

225
Q

If operating into an airport without an operating control tower within the Class D airspace of an airport with an operating control tower, is it always necessary to communicate with the tower? (14 CFR 91.129)

A

Yes, operations to or from an airport in a Class D airspace (airport traffic area) require communications with the tower even when operating to/from a satellite airport.

226
Q

When conducting flight operations into an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be established? (AIM 4-3-2)

A

When operating at an airport where traffic control is being exercised by a control tower, pilots are required to maintain two-way radio contact with the tower while operating within Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas, unless the tower authorizes otherwise. Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport. Also, not all airports with an operating control tower will have Class D airspace. These airports do not have weather reporting, which is a requirement for surface-based controlled airspace. Pilots are expected to use good operating practices and communicate with the control tower.

227
Q

When departing a Class D surface area, what communication procedures are recommended?
(AIM 4-3-2)

A

Unless there is a good reason to leave the tower frequency before exiting the Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas, it is good operating practice to remain on the tower frequency for the purpose of receiving traffic information. In the interest of reducing tower frequency congestion, pilots are reminded that it is not necessary to request permission to leave the tower frequency once outside of Class B, Class C, and Class D surface areas.

228
Q

Arrange the radio facilities listed below in the order they would be used when operating into or out of a tower controlled airport within Class B, C, or D airspace.

Approach Control, ATIS, Ground Control, Control Tower, Clearance Delivery, and Departure Control.

A

Arriving Aircraft: ATIS, Approach Control, Control Tower, and Ground Control

Departing Aircraft: ATIS, Clearance Delivery (if required for the surrounding airspace, i.e., Class B, C, or D airspace), Ground Control, Control Tower, and Departure Control.

229
Q

What does the operation of an airport rotating beacon during the hours of daylight indicate?
(AIM 2-1-9)

A

In Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas, operation of the airport beacon during daylight hours often indicates that the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less that 1,000 feet. ATC clearance in accordance with Part 91 is required for landing, takeoff, and flight in the traffic pattern. Pilots should not rely solely on the operation of the airport beacon to indicate if weather conditions are IFR or VFR. There is no regulatory requirement for daylight operation, and it is the pilot’s responsibility to comply with the proper preflight planning as required by Part 91.

230
Q

When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction? (14 CFR 91.123)

A

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless:
a. An amended clearance has been obtained.
b. An emergency exists; or
c. In response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

231
Q

As a pilot-in-command, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given? (14 CFR 91.123)

A

Two actions are required of you as PIC:
a. Each pilot-in-command who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.
b. Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC (on-the-ground responsibility)

232
Q

In the event of a radio failure while operating an aircraft, to, from, through, or on an airport with an operating control tower, what are the different types and meanings of light gun signals you might receive from an ATC tower? (14 CFR 91.125)

A
233
Q

Explain when transponders and ADS-B Out equipment should be operated while on the ground.
(AIM 4-1-20)

A

Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode and ADS-B Out transmission enabled at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of the airport movement area. This includes all defined taxiways and runways. Pilots must pay particular attention to ATIS and airport diagram notations, General Notes (included on airport charts), and comply with the directions pertaining to transponder and ADS-B usage.

234
Q

If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport?
(14 CFR 91.126, 91.127, 91.129)

A

a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums.
b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
c. A clearance to land is received.

235
Q

What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter or receiver or both are inoperative? (AIM 4-2-13, 6-4-2)

A

Arriving aircraft receiver inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals.
d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern.
e. Watch tower for light gun signals.
Arriving aircraft transmitter inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic
c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information
d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light signals
e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
Arriving aircraft transmitter and receiver inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
d. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.

Additionally, depending on the type of transponder you have (coded radar beacon transponder) and the aircraft you are flying suffers from a two-way radio failure, the pilot should adjust the transponder to Code 7600. However, understand that the aircraft might not be in the area of radar coverage.

236
Q

Describe the type of information provided when receiving VFR radar assistance by ATC.
(FAA-H-8083-25, AIM 4-1-17)

A

Radar equipped ATC facilities provide radar assistance to aircraft on instrument flight plans and VFR aircraft, provided the aircraft can communicate with the facility and are within radar coverage. This basic service includes safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited vectoring when requested, and sequencing at locations where this procedure has been established. ATC issues advisories based on observed radar targets. This service is not intended to relive the pilot of the responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft.

237
Q

Describe the various types of terminal radar services available for VFR aircraft. (AIM 4-1-18)

A

Basic radar service–Safety alerts, traffic advisories, limited radar vectoring, (on a workload permitting basis) and sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a letter of agreement.
TRSA service–Radar sequencing and separation service for participating VFR aircraft in a TRSA.
Class C service–This service provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation between IFR, and VFR aircraft, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.
Class B service–Provides, in addition to basic radar service, approved separation of aircraft based on IFR, VFR, and/or weight, and sequencing of VFR arrivals to the primary airport.

238
Q

When is immediate notification of the NTSB required?
(NTSB Part 830.5)

A

The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest NTSB office when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed serious incidents occur:
a. Flight control system malfunction.
b. Crew member unable to perform normal duties.
c. Inflight fire.
d. Aircraft collision inflight.
e. Property damage, other than aircraft, estimated to be over $25,000.
f. Overdue aircraft (believed to be in an accident).
g. Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft.
h. Complete loss of information (excluding flickering,) from more than 50 percent of an aircraft’s EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) cockpit displays.

239
Q

Explain the difference between an aircraft incident and an aircraft accident. (NTSB Part 830.2)

A

Aircraft incident–Means an occurrence other than an accident associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

Aircraft accident–Means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which the aircraft receives substantial damage.

240
Q

Define the term serious injury.
(NTSB Part 830.2)

A

Serious injury means any injury that:
a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
b. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose.)
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage.
d. Involved an internal organ; or
e. Involves second- or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.

241
Q

Define the term: substantial damage. (NTSB Part 830.2)

A

Substantial damage means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged; bent fairings or cowling; dented skin; small punctured holes in the skin or fabric; ground damage to rotor or propeller blades; and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wing tips are not considered substantial damage for the purpose of this part.

242
Q

Will notification to the NTSB always be necessary in any aircraft accident even if there were no injuries?
(NTSB Part 830)

A

Refer to the definition of accident. An aircraft accident can involve substantial damage and/or injuries, and the NTSB always requires a report if this is the case.

243
Q

Where are accident or incident reports filed? (NTSB Part 830)

A

The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the field of office of the Board nearest to the accident or incident.

244
Q

After an accident or incident has occurred, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?
(NTSB Part 830)

A

The operator shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1/2, available from NTSB field offices, the NTSB in Washington D.C., or the FAA Flight Standards District Office:
a. Within 10 days after an accident.
b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing.

245
Q

An airport diagram indicates the letters “RWSL.” Explain what these letters indicate. (AIM 2-1-6, P/CG)

A

Runway Status Lights system–The RWSL is a system of runway and taxiway lighting to provide pilots increased situational awareness by illuminating runway entry lights (REL) when the runway is unsafe for entry or crossing, and take-off hold lights (THL) when the runway is unsafe for departure. The lights automatically turn red when other traffic makes it dangerous to enter, cross, or begin takeoff.

246
Q

What are the two main categories of airports? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Towered airport–Pilots are required to maintain two-way radio communication with ATC and to acknowledge and comply with their instructions.
Non-towered airport–Two-way radio communications are not required, although it is a good operating practice for pilots to transmit their intentions on the specified frequency for the benefit of others in the area.

247
Q

Explain the purpose of an airport traffic pattern. (FAA-H-8083-3)

A

An airport traffic pattern is the traffic flow or pattern that is prescribed for aircraft landing at, taxiing on, or taking off from the airport. To assure that air traffic flows into an out of an airport in an orderly manner, a traffic pattern is established based on the local conditions, to include the direction and altitude of the pattern and the procedures for entering and leaving the pattern.

248
Q

What are the basic components of an airport traffic pattern?
(FAA-H-8083-3)

A

a. Upwind leg–A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction of landing.
b. Crosswind leg–A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its upwind end.
c. Downwind leg–A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction opposite to landing. The downwind leg normally extends between the crosswind leg and the base leg.
d. Base leg–A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its approach end. The base leg normally extends from the downwind leg to the intersection of the extended runway centerline.
e. Final approach–A flight path in the direction of landing along the extended runway centerline. The final approach normally extends from the base leg to the runway. An aircraft making a straight-in approach VFR is also considered to be on final approach.

249
Q

When approaching an airport with an operating control tower, when should initial contact be made with the ATC tower? (AIM 4-3-2)

A

Initial call-up should be made about 15 miles from the airport.

250
Q

Explain the general rules that apply when conducting traffic pattern operations at a non-towered airport within Class E or Class G airspace.
(14 CFR 91.126, 91.127)

A

Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall:

a. In the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right.
b. In the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.

251
Q

When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator? (14 CFR 91.129)

A

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI) shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

252
Q

Explain the recommended traffic pattern entry procedure at a non-towered airport.
(AC 90-66, AIM 4-3-3)

A

Arriving aircraft should be at traffic pattern altitude and allow for sufficient time to view the entire traffic pattern before entering. Entries into traffic patterns while descending may create collision hazards and should be avoided. Entry to the downwind leg should be at a 45º angle abeam the midpoint of the runway to be used for landing. The pilot may use discretion to choose an alternate type of entry, especially when intending to cross over midfield, based upon the traffic and communication at the time of arrival.

253
Q

Explain the recommended traffic pattern departure procedure at a non-towered airport.
(AC 90-66, AIM 4-3-3)

A

When departing the traffic pattern, airplanes should continue straight out or exit with a 45º left turn (right turn for right traffic pattern) beyond the departure end of the runway after reaching pattern altitude. Pilots need to be aware of any traffic entering the traffic pattern prior to commencing the turn.

254
Q

What is considered standard for a traffic pattern altitude?
(AIM 4-3-3, 14 CFR Part 91.155)

A

Unless otherwise required by the applicable distance from cloud criteria (14 CFR Part 91.155):
a. Propeller-driven aircraft enter the traffic pattern at 1,000 ft AGL.
b. Large and turbine-powered aircraft enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of not less than 1,500 feet AGL or 500 feet above the established pattern altitude.
c. Helicopters operating in the traffic pattern may fly a pattern similar to the fixed-wing aircraft pattern when airspeed requires or for practice power-off landings (autorotation) and if local policy permits. Landings not to the runway must avoid the flow of fixed wing traffic.

255
Q

Explain the difference methods a pilot may use to determine the proper runway and traffic pattern in use at an airport without an operating control tower.
(AIM 4-1-9, 4-3-4)

A

a. At an airport with a fully part-time UNICOM station in operation, an advisory may be obtained which will usually include wind direction and velocity, favored or designated runway, right or left traffic, altimeter setting, known traffic, NOTAMs, ect.
b. Many airports are now providing completely automated weather, radio check capability, and airport advisory information on an automated UNICOM system. Availability of the automated UNICOM will be published in the Chart Supplement U.S. and approach charts.
c. At those airports where these services are not available, a segmented circle visual indicator system, if installed, is designated to provide traffic pattern information. The segmented circle system consists of the following components:
- The segmented circle.
- The wind direction indicator (wind sock, cone, or tee).
- The landing direction indicator (a tetrahedron).
- Landing strip indicators
- Traffic pattern indicators

256
Q

State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below.
Converging
Approaching head-on
Overtaking
(14 CFR 91.113)

A

Converging–Aircraft on the right has the right-of-way.
Approaching head-on–Both aircraft shall alter course to right.
Overtaking–Aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right.

257
Q

Explain the right-of-way rules that apply when two or more aircraft are approaching and airport for the purpose of landing. (14 CFR 91.113)

A

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft of final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way over, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

258
Q

What is the order of right-of-way as applied to different categories of aircraft?
REMEMBER: BGAAR (Big “R”)
(14 CFR 91.113)

A

Balloons
Gliders
Airships
Airplanes
Rotorcraft
Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.

259
Q

When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other aircraft? (14 CFR 91.113)

A

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

260
Q

Identify several hazards that a pilot should consider when operating in an airport traffic pattern.
(FAA-S-ACS-6)

A

a. Collision hazards
b. Distractions, task prioritization, loss of situational awareness, or disorientation
d. Windshear and wake turbulence

261
Q

Explain how a pilot can mitigate the risk of an in-flight collision when operating in the traffic pattern at a non-towered airport. (FAA Safety)

A

a. Be clearly visible. Use landing lights and strobes.
b. Announce your positions and intentions on the CTAF.
c. Be aware of possible no-radio aircraft.
d. Don’t assert right-of-way if it will result in a collision hazard.
e. If there’s an unresolved conflict, break off the approach and go around to the non-pattern side of the runway.

262
Q

Define the term: wake turbulence.
(AIM 7-4-1)

A

Every aircraft generates wake turbulence while in flight. Wake turbulence is a function of aircraft producing lift, resulting in the formation of two counter-rotating vortices trailing behind the aircraft.

263
Q

Explain how wake vortices are created. (AIM 7-4-2)

A

The creations of a pressure differential over the wing surface generates lift. The lowest pressure occurs over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up of airflow at the rear of the wing resulting in swirling air masses trailing trailing downstream of the wing tips. After the roll up is completes, the wake consists of two counter-rotating cylindrical vortices.

264
Q

What factors govern the strength of a vortex generated by an aircraft?
(AIM 7-4-3)

A

Weight, speed, wingspan, and shape of the generating aircraft’s wing all govern the strength of the vortex. The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft can also be changed by extension of flaps or other wing configuration devices. However, the vortex strength from an aircraft increases proportionally to an increase in operating weight or a decrease in aircraft speed. Since the turbulence from a “dirty” aircraft configuration hastens wake decay, the greatest wake vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is HEAVY, CLEAN, and SLOW.

265
Q

Where is an encounter with wake turbulence likely to occur?
(AIM 7-4-5)

A

Pilot should avoid the area below and behind the wake generating aircraft, especially at low altitude where even a momentary wake encounter could be catastrophic. Pilots should also be particulalry alert in calm wind conditions and situations where the vortices could:
a. Remain stationary in the touchdown area.
b. Drift from aircraft operating on a nearby runway.
c. Sink into the takeoff or landing path from a crossing runway.
d. Sink into the traffic pattern from other airport operations.
e. Sink into the flight path of VFR aircraft operating on the hemispheric altitude 500 feet below.

266
Q

Explain the operational procedures that should be followed when wake vortices are suspected to exist?
(AIM 7-4-6)

A

a. Landing behind a larger aircraft on the same runway–Stay at or above the large aircraft’s final approach flight path. Note its touchdown point and land beyond it.
b. Landing behind a larger aircraft, when parallel runway is closer than 2,500 ft–Consider possible drift to your runway. Stay at or above the larger aircraft’s final approach flight path, and note its touchdown point.
c. Landing behind a larger aircraft, crossing runway–Cross above the larger aircraft’s flight path.
d. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft on the same runway–Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point, and land well prior to the rotation point.
e. Landing behind a departing larger aircraft, crossing runway–Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point. If past the intersection, continue the approach, and land prior to the intersection. If larger aircraft rotates prior to the intersection, avoid flight below the larger aircraft’s flightpath. Abandon the approach unless a landing is ensured well before reaching the intersection.
f. Departing behind a large aircraft–Note the larger aircraft’s rotation point and rotate prior to the larger aircraft’s rotation point. Continue climbing above the larger aircraft’s climb path until turning clear of the larger aircraft’s wake. Avoid subsequent headings that will cross below and behind a larger aircraft.
g. Intersection takeoffs, same runway–Be alert to adjacent larger aircraft operations, especially of your runway. If intersection takeoff clearance is received, avoid subsequent heading which will cross below a larger aircraft’s path.
h. Departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach, missed approach, or touch-and-go landing–Vortices settle and move laterally near the ground. Because of this, the vortex hazard may exist along the runway and in your flight path after a larger aircraft has executed a low approach, missed approach, or a touch-and-go landing, particularly in light quartering wind conditions. You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 minutes has elapsed before your takeoff or landing.
i. En route VFR (thousand-foot altitude plus 500 feet)–Avoid flight below and behind a large aircraft’s path. If a larger aircraft is observed above or on the same track (meeting or overtaking) adjust your position laterally, preferably upwind.

267
Q

What type of automated weather is provided at most controlled airports? (AIM 4-1-13)

A

The Automated Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is a recording of the local weather conditions and other pertinent non-control information broadcast on a local frequency in a looped format. It is normally updated once per hour but is updated more often when changing local conditions warrant. Important information is broadcast on ATIS including weather, runways in use, specific ATC procedures, and any airport construction activity that could affect taxi planning.

268
Q

What type of automated weather is available at uncontrolled airports?
(AIM 4-3-26)

A

Many airports throughout the National Airspace System are equipped with either ASOS or AWOS. At uncontrolled airports that are equipped with ASOS/AWOS with ground-to-air broadcast capability, the one-minute updated airport weather should be availiable to you within approximately 25 NM of the airport below 10,000 feet. The frequency for the weather broadcast will be published on sectional charts and in the Chart Supplement U.S.

269
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
29. The acronym LAHSO refers to what specific air traffic control procedure? (AIM 4-3-11)

A
270
Q

ADDITIONAL STUDY QUESTION
30. Where can available landing distance (ALD) data be found?
(AIM 4-3-11)

A
271
Q

Discuss recommended collision avoidance procedures and considerations in the following situations: Before takeoff, climbs and descents, straight and level, traffic patterns, traffic VOR sites, and training operations. (AIM 4-4-15)

A
272
Q

Where are UAS (drones) allowed to operate? (AIM 7-6-6, AC 107-2)

A
273
Q

What is Aviation Safety Reporting System (ASRS)?
(FAA-H-8083-19, AC 00-46)

A
274
Q

Can the FAA use ASRS reports submitted to NASA for enforcement purposes? (14 CFR 91.25, AC 00-46)

A
275
Q

ATC has instructed you to line up and wait on the departure runway due to crossing traffic on an intersected taxiway. What is considered a reasonable amount of tie to wait for a takeoff clearance before calling ATC?
(AIM 5-2-5, SAFO 11004)

A
276
Q

Demonstrate the following hand signals utilized by a lineman when directing you to or from a ramp:
(AIM 4-3-25)
a. All clear (OK)
b. Start engine
c. Pull chocks
d. Come ahead
e. Left turn
f. Right turn
g. Slow down
h. Stop
i. Insert chocks
j. Cut engines
k. Emergency stop

A