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Multi-Engine Lab (325) > Stage Check Oral > Flashcards

Stage Check Oral Flashcards

1
Q

Define a spin. What are the phases of a spin?

A
  • An aggravated stall with yaw
    1. Entry
    2. Incipient
    3. Fully Developed
    4. Recovery
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2
Q

Where is a spin most likely to occur in a multi-engine a/c?

A

??

- Low airspeeds, high AOAs

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3
Q

After passing your 325 check ride, what will your new pilot certificate say?

A
  1. Singe-Engine Commercial
  2. Multi-Engine Commercial
  3. Instrument Rating
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4
Q

What are the oil quantities in the Seminole? Maximum, minimum per the STANMAN, and minimum per the POH, and minimum for Emergencies?

A

Max: 8 qts
Min STANMAN: 6 qts
Min POH: 4 qts
Min Emergency: 2 qts

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5
Q

At what air temp. should Cowl Flaps be OPEN on the ground?

A

Temps above 32 degrees F (0 degrees C)

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6
Q

What is max CHT?

A

500 degrees F

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7
Q

What is max CHT for BEST ECONOMY?

A

400 degrees F (Peak EGT)

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8
Q

What is max CHT for BEST POWER?

A

435 degrees F (100 deg RICH of Peak)

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9
Q

What is the source of our Carb HT?

A

The exhaust shroud of cylinder 4

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10
Q

What kind of Propeller does the Seminole have? How long is it?

A

Hartzell
Constant Speed
Variable Pitch
72”-74”

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11
Q

When the Prop is FEATHERED, it will be at a ____ rpm setting and ____ pitch setting

A

LOW rpm

HIGH pitch

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12
Q

How long does it take to FEATHER the prop?

A

6 seconds

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13
Q

How long does it take to UN-FEATHER the prop with an Accumulator?

A

8-12 seconds

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14
Q

What 2 annunciators will illuminate when you feather a prop?

A
  1. LOW OIL

2. ALT INOP

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15
Q

Why must you feather the prop before it drops below 950 rpm?

A

The Anti-Feathering Pins prevent feathering below 950!!

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16
Q

What are the mechanics of Un-Feathering a prop with an Accumulator?

A

An accumulator holds Nitrogen and Oil under pressure at 275-300 PSI (in flight and on ground with engine on)

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17
Q

The ____ blocks the passage of Oil from the accumulator to store it

A

Governor

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18
Q

What kind of engines does the Seminole have?

A 
Left: O-360 (fires 1-3-2-4)
Right: LO-360 (fires 1-4-2-3)
- 4 cylinder
- Horizontally Opposed
- Air Cooled
- Direct Drive
- 361 cubic inches of displacement
- 180hp, 2700 rpm max, compression ratio 8.5:1
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19
Q

Tell me about the propeller on the Seminole

A
  • Constant speed
  • Variable pitch (Governor)
  • Full Feathering (low rpm, high pitch) in 6 seconds
  • Anti-feathering pins
  • Hydraulically Actuated
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20
Q

How does the prop maintain a constant speed?

A
  1. Pitch is changed by The Prop. Lever
  2. The prop lever changes pressure on the Speeder Spring, and tension on the Flyweights
  3. Change in tension causes the Pilot Valve to move
  4. This allows oil to move to/from the Prop Hub through the governor
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21
Q

What kind of electrical system does the Seminole have? Include main battery, alternators, and overvoltage system.

A
  • G1000: 28v DC system
  • Main Battery: 24v and 13.6 amps
  • Alternators: 20v and 80 amps
  • Overvoltage relay system will kick alternators offline over 32v
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22
Q

The Main Battery on the Seminole is ___ volts and ___ amps

A

24 volts

13.6 amps

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23
Q

The Alternators on the Seminole are ___ volts and ___ amps

A

28 volts

80 amps

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24
Q

At what voltage will the G1000 take the Alternators offline?

A

32 volts

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25
Q

What is the MAX amperage allowable during Single alternator operations

A

Do not exceed 75 amps

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26
Q

Name the 6 Electrical Buses on the G1000:

A

(Enable)

  1. Essential
  2. Non-Essential
  3. Avionics
  4. Battery
  5. Lighting
  6. Emergency
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27
Q

Tell me about the Landing Gear on the Seminole. How does it operate? Switches?

A 
- Electrically powered, hydraulically operated
(MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid)
- 600 psi to extend the gear
- 1800 psi to retract the gear
- L/R Squat Switches
- 3 Up/Down Limit Switches
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28
Q

What does the Left Squat Switch control?

A

Prevents gear retraction when on the ground

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29
Q

What does the Right Squat Switch control?

A

No stall warning on ground, mx hobbs

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30
Q

Name 3 things that will trigger the Gear Warning horn

A
  1. Left Squat Switch (gear UP on ground)
  2. 14” MP or lower on 1 or both throttles
  3. 2nd notch of flaps with gear UP
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31
Q

Tell me some of the Autopilot components and limitations in the Seminole

A

Components:
- GFC 700 (G1000)
- Self test completed automatically (errors detected will result in a CAS message)
- A disconnects with the red button still allows you to maintain FD function
- TOGA
Limitations:
- 80-190 knots
- Cannot be engaged during TO/LD, or below 200’ AGL during an IAP
- Max fuel imbalance 10 gallons

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32
Q

What 4 things occur when the TOGA button is pushed

A
  1. AP disconnects
  2. Commands a nose-up pitch attitude
  3. Changes CDI to GPS mode
  4. Cycles the GPS to the MAProcedure (SUSP button)
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33
Q

17 V-Speeds:

A 
Vso - 55
Vmc - 56
Vs - 57
Vsse - 82
Vx - 82
Vxse - 82
Vy - 88
Vyse - 88
CC - 105
Vlo (ret) - 109
Vfe - 111
Vo - 115 to 135
Vle - 140
Vlo (ext) - 140
Vno - 169
Vne - 202
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34
Q

What does Vlo stand for?

A

Landing Gear Operating speed (max speed that gear can be safely retracted/extended)

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35
Q

What does Vle stand for?

A

Max speed at which the a/c can be safely flown with the gear extended!

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36
Q

Spin Recovery procedure and why:

A
  1. Throttle - Idle, to aid in lowering the nose…adding power will aggravate/flatten the spin
  2. Rudder - Full opposite, corrective force to stop spinning
  3. Control Wheel - Full Forward, to lower the nose and break stall
  4. Ailerons - Neutral, to avoid aggravating the spin
  5. Rudder - Neutral when rotation stops, to stop all rotation
  6. Control Wheel - Smooth back pressure to recover from dive
  7. Throttles - As needed, to resume cruise
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37
Q

One Engine Inop. Go-Around:

A
  1. Mixture (Op.) - Full Rich
  2. Prop (Op.) - Full Increase
  3. Throttle(s) - Smoothly Advance to Takeoff Power
  4. Flaps - Retract Incrementally
  5. Airspeed - 88 KIAS
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38
Q

What does Vsse stand for?

A

The INTENTIONAL one-engine inop. SAFE speed

- The minimum speed to intentionally render the critical engine inoperative

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39
Q

Why do we have Vxse and Vyse?

A

To know how our aircraft can perform on one engine.

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40
Q

How is Vyse depicted on an airspeed indicator?

A

Vyse is marked with a Blue Radial Line

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41
Q

Explain why Vo increases with weight.

A
  • The point of Vo is to stall the a/c before it breaks
  • The heavier an a/c, the less susceptible it is to experience excess G’s/full scare control deflection in turbulence or unexpected gusts
  • Lighter a/c are easier to whip around
42
Q

When should a OEI Go-Around not be attempted?

A

When performance cannot be met

43
Q

What is Common Carriage?

A

(1) Holding out a willingness (2) to transport people/property (3) from place to place (4) for compensation

44
Q

What are a few limitations of the GFC 700 Autopilot (G1000)? There are 9

A

Cannot be used:

  1. Below 200’ AGL on Approaches
  2. DURING T/O or Landing
  3. Below 400’ AGL on T/O or Landing
  4. Below 1000’ AGL in Cruise
  5. With a fuel imbalance of 10 gals
  6. Below 80 KIAS (90 on IAPs)
  7. Above 190 KIAS
  8. For OEI Go-Arounds
45
Q

When you hit the TO/GA button, what happens?

A
  1. AP is disengaged
  2. FD is directed into a nose high attitude
  3. ?
46
Q

What is the Seminole’s Max. Ramp WT?

A

3,816 lbs

47
Q

What is the service ceiling of the Piper Seminole?

A

The altitude at which the a/c can maintain a 100 fpm climb

48
Q

When will you HEAR the gear warning horn in the Seminole?

A
  1. Throttle below 14” MP (in flight with gear up)
  2. Flaps extended more than 10 (in flight with gear up)
  3. Landing gear handle UP when on the ground
49
Q

What turns the landing gear pump OFF when gear is Retracted?

A

PSI reaching 1800!

50
Q

What does the Emergency Gear Extension Knob do?

A

Releases or EQUALIZES the hydraulic pressure holding the gear up and allows it to fall freely

51
Q

How does a Governor work?

A

Supplies Oil at various pressures through the prop shaft to maintain constant speed/engine speed by varying the pitch of the prop in response to changing flight conditions

52
Q

When you push the blue knobs forward, the propellers are driven to a ____ rpm and ____ pitch setting.

A

Props = HIGH rpm and LOW pitch

remember, feathered prop = low rpm and high pitch

53
Q

Increased OIL drives the props to ____ pitch, ____ rpm.

A

LOW pitch

High RPM

54
Q

When checking propellers during run-up, why do you think we set the RPM to 1500?

A
  • The max drop we are looking for is 500 RPM, and in the air the props will feather below 950 rpm?
55
Q

Signs of Carb Ice?

A
  • Engine roughness

- Loss of MP

56
Q

What forces move the Propeller to a Low Pitch setting?

A

Primary: Oil
Secondary: Aerodynamic Twisting

57
Q

What forces move the Propeller to a High Pitch setting?

A

Primary: Nitrogen
Secondary: Counterweights and Spring Forces

58
Q

What is the Primary force used to feather the propeller?

A

Nitrogen!

59
Q

What is the maximum weight allowable in the baggage compartment?

A

200 lbs

60
Q

What is Hypoxia? What are some signs/symptoms?

A

A lack of sufficient O2!

- Cyanosis, headache, euphoria, tingling/numbness, drowsiness

61
Q

What are the 4 different kinds of Hypoxia? What causes them?

A
  1. Hypoxic (Altitude)
  2. Hypemic (Blood)
  3. Stagnant (Circulation)
  4. Histotoxic (Drugs)
62
Q

What is Hyperventilation? What causes it?

A
  • When you exhale more (CO2) than you inhale (O2)
  • LACK of CO2
  • Fright, stress, pain, etc.
63
Q

What effects do drugs and alcohol have on your ability to safely fly an a/c?

A
  • Decreased alertness, motivation, memory and work capacity
64
Q

How long do you have to notify the FAA of a DUI?

A

60 Days

65
Q

What are 3 types of Oxygen systems on board a/c?

A
  1. Diluter-Demand
  2. Pressure-Demand
  3. Continuous Flow
66
Q

What is the difference between and Rapid Decompression and an Explosive Decompression

A 
Rapid = Occurs in 1-10 seconds and occupants may experience hypoxia/evolved gas sickness
Explosive = Occurs in less than 1 second with 10 psi change
67
Q

How long are AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs valid for?

A

AIRMETS - valid 6 hours
WSs - valid 4 hours
WSTs - valid 2 hours

68
Q

If there is inoperative equipment on an a/c with no MEL, what steps must you take?

A
  1. 213
  2. VFR Day type cert
  3. Kinds of Operations Lists
  4. 91.205
  5. ADs
69
Q

What is Manifold Pressure?

A

Measure of the pressure of fuel/air mixture within the intake manifold (indicated in inches of Mercury)

70
Q

What are the required inspections needed for an a/c to be Airworthy?

A 
Annual
VOR (every 30 days for IFR)
100 (for hire)
Altimeter (24 cal months)
Transponder (24 cal months)
ELT (after half battery life, or 1 hour cumulative use)
71
Q

Explain how progressive inspections work

A
  • A/c rotated in and out of mx
  • A few things are inspected at a time so a/c is not down for long periods of time
  • Completion of all rotations in a 12 month period satisfies Annual Inspection!
72
Q

Can you as a commercial pilot preform any maintenance? Where can you find guidance on this?

A
  • Yes, preventative maintenance!

- Part 43!

73
Q

How is Vmc indicated on the airspeed indicator?

A

RED RADIAL LINE on a/c under 6,000 lbs

74
Q

FAR 23.149 covers:

A

Vmc!

75
Q

If you lose power on the critical engine, how are Vmc and Performance affected? Explain.

A
  • Loss of power on the critical engine = Increased Vmc, Decreased Performance
  • This is due to the 4 left turning tendencies (PAST) increasing yaw into the operative engine!
76
Q

According to the FAA, which left turning tendency is the most critical?

A

P-Factor

77
Q

If you bank 0-5 degrees into the Operative Engine, how are Vmc and Performance affected? Explain.

A
  • Banking into the Operative Engine = Decreased Vmc, Increased Performance
  • Banking into the Operative Engine creates a horizontal component of lift which assists the rudder in counteracting the asymmetrical thrust of the operative engine
    (think 0 side slip, also draw a picture)
78
Q

As a/c weight increases, Vmc _____. Why?

A
  • Increased weight = Decreased Vmc, Decreased Performance

- Heavier a/c have more horizontal force/component of lift available to use in 0 side slip banking conditions

79
Q

In an a/c with a Forward CG, how are Vmc and Performance affected? Explain.

A
  • Forward CG = Decreased Vmc, Decreased Performance
  • A FWD CG is farther away from the rudder (longer arm) which increases rudder effectiveness, and closer to the Operative Engine’s propeller (shorter arm) which decreases asymmetrical yawing!
  • A FWD CG required a/c to fly at a high AOA, decreasing performance
    (exact opposite is true for an AFT CG)
80
Q

As an a/c leaves Ground Effect, how are Vmc and Performance affected? Explain.

A
  • Out of Ground Effect = Increased Vmc, Decreased Performance
  • A/c must fly at a higher AOA out of ground affect which increases P-Factor on the Operative Engine and a/c yaw
  • Downwash behind the wings is increased, deflecting air away from the rudder and decreasing effectiveness
81
Q

When power is added on the Operative Engine, how are Vmc and Performance affected? Explain.

A
  • Increased power on the Operative Engine = Increased Vmc, Increased Performance
  • More thrust creates a greater yawing force, meaning you need more opposing rudder (any time you need to increase rudder force it means that Vmc is increased)
82
Q

What affect does Trim have on Vmc and Performance of the a/c? Why?

A
  • No significant effect on Vmc or Performance

- Depends on pilot workload

83
Q

If the Props are set to HIGH, what effect does this have on Vmc and Performance? Explain.

A
  • High prop setting = Increased Vmc, Increased Performance
  • Max RPM on the Operative Engine prop, and Windmilling Prop on the Inoperative Engine will create a greater yawing force
84
Q

Any flight condition that increases asymmetrical yaw, or requires increased rudder force, has what kind of effect on Vmc?

A

Causes an increased Vmc!

85
Q

What affect does Increased Density Altitude have on Vmc and Performance? Explain.

A
  • Increased DA = Decreased Vmc, Decreased Performance

- Increasing DA reduces engine output, which lowers the amount of rudder input needed and therefore decreasing Vmc

86
Q

What 13 certification requirements/conditions are used to determine an a/c’s Vmc?

A
  1. Critical Engine is failed
  2. Directional Control is maintained
  3. Bank Angle is 5 degrees or less
  4. No more than 1.2Vs1
  5. A/c is at most unfavorable CG and weight
  6. Airborne (out of ground effect)
  7. Max. power on both engines
  8. Cannot reduce power on either engine
  9. A/c is trimmed for takeoff
  10. Gear is up, Flaps and Props in T/O condition
  11. 150lbs Max force on Rudders
  12. A/c must not enter unusual attitudes
  13. No heading changes greater than 20 degrees
87
Q

Define Vmc

A

The calibrated airspeed at which, if the critical engine was suddenly made inoperative, it is POSSIBLE to maintain a/c control (straight flight at same airspeed with no more than 5 deg of bank) See FAR 23.149

88
Q

What controls the propeller’s pitch and driving to high and low?

A
  • Low: Oil Pressure is boosted to 275 psi by a pump in the governor, and Aerodynamic Twisting force assits
  • High: Nitrogen charge of 33-21 psi, assisted by springs and counterweights (operating on Newton’s 3rd law)
89
Q

What is the ONLY reliable engine instrument in the cockpit that you can use to identify which engine has failed?

A
  • EGT! If the engine is not working, it will NOT be producing any exhaust
  • Engine Page of MFD
90
Q

When you secure the inop engine, what will MP read?

A

The ambient pressure of the atmosphere (“Hg)

91
Q

Difference between Vx and Vy?

A 
Vx = best angle, aka most altitude in the least horizontal distance over the ground
Vy = best rate, aka best climb in the best TIME
92
Q

What is the CALIBRATED airspeed of Vmc in the Seminole?

A

63 KCAS

56 KIAS

93
Q

Why do we 0 side slip in single engine flight? How would only using ailerons, or only using rudder affect performance?

A

This achieves the best climb performance single engine! Opposite rudder deflection creates lateral lift on the tail to counteract yawing in to the inop. engine, and gives us the least amount of drag!

  • Ailerons only = Around 8-10 degrees of bank, creating too much drag
  • Rudder only = slipping through the air, unable to maintain straight flight path
94
Q

What are the 0 side slip conditions?

A
  • 1/2 ball deflection towards the operative engine

- 2-3 degrees of bank into the operative engine

95
Q

What is the difference between Vmc and Vmca?

A 
Vmc = Published (constant)
Vmca = ACTUAL Vmc on that day with the given conditions (variable)
96
Q

Why are Vlo (ret) and Vlo (ext) different?

A

Theories:

  1. Pump must work harder to retract the gear than to extend, so a lower airspeed makes it easier on the pumps
  2. Nose gear is retracted backwards, so with RAM air from flight we stay are a lower airspeed so the nose gear does not whack back up in to the a/c and damage things
97
Q

What is P-Factor?

A
  • Left turning tendency
  • Asymmetrical propeller loading, creating YAW
  • Downward moving prop blade is taking a big “bite” out of the air than the upward moving blade
  • more pronounced at higher AOA*
98
Q

What is Accelerated Slipstream?

A
  • A left turning tendency
  • Uneven amount of airflow running back over the wings, creating ROLL
  • By product of P-Factor
99
Q

What is Spiraling Slipstream?

A
  • Draw a picture

- Spiraling Slipstream from one prop hits rudder, while other does not (conventional twins)

100
Q

What is Torque?

A

Newton’s 3rd Law: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

101
Q

What is the capacity of our fuel system?

A

110 gallons total

108 usable

102
Q

What voltage will cause the LOW BUS VOLTAGE annunciator to illuminate?

A

If producing less than 12.5 Volts!

Multi-Engine Lab (325) (9 decks)

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