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IFR Oral > Stage Check > Flashcards

Stage Check Flashcards

1
Q

what documents does the pilot need to be airworthy

A

government-issued photo ID
valid medical license
valid pilots license

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2
Q

what makes a pilot airworthy for acting as PIC in ifr flight

A

6 hits
within 6 calendar months
6 instrument approaches
holding procedures and tasks
intercepting and tracking courses
no 6 hits in 6 calendar months must do 6 hits with a safety pilot
been a year since 6 hits must do an IFR proficiency check

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3
Q

what is covered on the IFR proficiency check

A

air traffic control clearances and procedures
flight by reference to instruments
navigation systems
instrument approach procedures
emergency operations
post-flight procedures

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4
Q

what do you need for IFR day flight

A

ATOMATO FLAMES
GRABCARD
A-altimeter
T-Tachometer
O-oil temperature
M-manifold pressure gauge
A-Airspeed indicator
T-Temperature gauge
O-oil pressure gauge
F- fuel quantity gauge
L-landing gear position lights
A-anti collision lights- after march 11 1996
M-magnetic direction indicator
E-ELT
S-safety belt

G-Generator/ altimeter
R-radios
A-altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure)
B-Ball (slip slid indicator)
C-clock
A- attitude indicator
R-rate of turn indicator
directional gyro

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5
Q

what do you need for IFR day flight

A

ATOMATO FLAMES
FLAPS
GRABCARD
F-fuses
L-landing light
A-anticollision lights
P-position lights
S-source of electrical power

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6
Q

what maintenance must be done on the plane for it to be airworthy

A

AVIATE
A- airworthiness directives
V-VOR check every 30 days
I-inspections - progressive inspection events and routines
A-altimeter and static system 24 calender months
T-transponder every 24 calender months
E-ELT- 12calender months or battery half life or 1 hour of use

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7
Q

engine manufacturer

A

Lycoming

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8
Q

Engine model number

A

IO-360-B4A

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9
Q

propleller manufacturer

A

Sensenich

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10
Q

propeller diameter

A

76

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11
Q

total fuel and usable fuel

A

50
48

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12
Q

how much oil should we have in the plane for takeoff

A

6, 7 for xc

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13
Q

Max ramp weighty

A

2558

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14
Q

max takeoff weight

A

2550

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15
Q

max baggage weight

A

200

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16
Q

VNE

A

never exceed speed
154

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17
Q

VNO

A

max structural cruising speed
125

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18
Q

Vo

A

maximum operating maneuvering speed
98-113

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19
Q

VFE

A

max flaps extended speed
102

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20
Q

minimum for emergency battery

A

23.3 volts

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21
Q

Vs

A

stall speed without flaps
50

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22
Q

Vso

A

stall speed with flaps
45

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23
Q

Vy

A

best rate of climb
76

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24
Q

Vx

A

best angle of climb
64

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25
Q

Airmet

A

an advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs
valid for 6 hours

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26
Q

Airmet Tango

A

moderate turbulence
surface winds of 30 knots or greater
non-convective low-level wind shear

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27
Q

how many volts is our battery

A

24

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28
Q

how many volts and amps is our alternator

A

28 volts
70 amps

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29
Q

Airmet zulu

A

moderate icing
frezing level heights

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30
Q

Airmet Sierra

A

ifr conditions
mountain obscuration

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31
Q

Sigmet

A

a non-scheduled inflight advisory with maximum forecast period of 4 hours.
severe mixing
severe or extreme turbulence
dust and sand storms
volcanic ash

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32
Q

Convective Sigmet

A

valid for 2 hours
an inflight advisory o convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft

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33
Q

reasons a convective SIGMET would be issued

A

severe thunderstorms due to surface winds greater or equal to 50 knots, hail at the surface greater than 3/4 inch in diameter
tornadoes
embedded thunderstorms
a line of thunderstorms at least 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its length

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34
Q

three things needed for a thunderstorm

A

sufficient water vapor
unstable temperature lapse rate
lifting force

35
Q

stages of a thunderstorm

A

cumulus- the lifting action of the air begins
mature- begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base. thunderstorms are at greatest intesity
dissipating- characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidly

36
Q

Fog

A

the air temperature near the ground reaches its dew point
when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air

37
Q

Icing

A

very dangerous
will change the airfoil

38
Q

VOR

A

standard service volumes do not apply to published routes
pilot must verify correct and usable vor station with morse ID before using it

39
Q

VOR checks

A

perform every 30 days
VOT-4
repair station-4
vor ground checkpoint-4
vor airborne checkpoint-6
dual vor cross-check-4
above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR flying at a reasonable low altitude-6

40
Q

what must you write down when you do a vor check

A

D-date
E-error
P-place
S-signature

41
Q

VOR limitations

A

cone of confusion
reverse sensing
requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station

42
Q

Distance measuring equipment

A

DME

43
Q

DME information

A

normally tuned automatically
due to slant range error, when flying overhead the station, dme indicates greater than zero

44
Q

airborne dme

A

transmits an interrogation signal
calculates the slant range distance to the station based on the reply time

45
Q

ground dme

A

receives and replies tot he interrogation

46
Q

Non-Directional Beacon

A

NDB

47
Q

NDB info

A

low to medium frequency band
ADF in aircraft points towards the NDB

48
Q

magnetic bearing =

A

magnetic heading+relatice bearing

49
Q

NDB compass locator size

A

15 NM

50
Q

NDB medium high size

A

25 NM

51
Q

NDB high size

A

50 NM

52
Q

NDB high high size

A

75 NM

53
Q

Instrument landing system

A

ILS

54
Q

3 parts of the ILS

A

localizer
glide slope
marker beacons
approach light system

55
Q

Localizer-ILS

A

provides lateral course guidance
coverage range: 35 degree to each side fo the centerline for the first 10NM and 10 degree up to 18NM from the antenna

56
Q

Glide Slope- ILS

A

provides vertical course guidance
automatically tuned
range 10 NM
errors; false glide slope

57
Q

Marker Bearons- ILS

A

provide range information over specific points
4 markers: outer, middle inner back course

58
Q

Outer marker

A

4-7 miles out. indicate the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interceptionaltitude Blue

59
Q

Middle marker

A

3500ft from the runway. indicates the approximate interception point where the GS meets the decision height. usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation
amber

60
Q

inner marker

A

between teh MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT ll ILS approach white

61
Q

Approach Lifth Systems

A

provides baxic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into visual approach
might include sequenced flashing lights

62
Q

what are teh different categories of ILS approaches

A

CAT l
CATll
CATlll
each one allows for a lower visibility

63
Q

area navigation

A

RNAV

64
Q

RNAV

A

allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overly ground-based facilities

65
Q

Types of RNAV

A

GNSS
VOR/DME RNAV
DME/DME RNAV
inertial reference unit/ system

66
Q

global positioning system

A

GPS

67
Q

GPS

A

a global navigation satellite system operated by the US

68
Q

we have __ satellites in orbit and at least __ are in view at any given time

A

24
5

69
Q

2D GPS

A

uses 3 satellites
latitude and longitude

70
Q

3D GPS

A

uses 4 satellites
latitude, lontitude, altitude

71
Q

reciever autonomous integrity

A

RAIM

72
Q

RAIM

A

a function of GPS recievers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
requires 5 satellites, or, 4 satellites and an altimeter input
RAIM will get rid of a corrupt satellite if it has an extra available

73
Q

wide area augmentation system

A

WAAS
ground stations measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receiver to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation
covers a wide area

74
Q

Aircraft Airworthiness FAR and AIM numbers

A

91.205
91.411-altimeter tests
91.413-transponder tests
1-1-4 - VOR

75
Q

what does sttic port blockage effect

A

airspeed indicator
altimeter
VSI

76
Q

what happens to you airspeed indicator when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source

A

blocked: indicates correctly at blocked altitude. higher altitudes indicates lower than it should and lower altitudes it will indicate higher than it should.
alternate static source: indicates a faster speed than it should

77
Q

what happens to you altimeter when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source

A

blocked: will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked
alternate static source: indicate higher than it should

78
Q

what happens to you VSI when the static port is blocked and when you use the alternate static source

A

Blocked: freezes at zero
alternate static source: momentarily shows a climb

79
Q

what instrument is effected by the pitot tube blockage

A

the airspeed indicator

80
Q

what happens if Ram air inlet is clogged and drain hole is open

A

airspeed drops to zero

81
Q

what happens if both air inlet and drain hole are clogged

A

the airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter

82
Q

when suspecting a pitot blockage what should you do

A

use pitot heat it may melt formed ice

83
Q

preflight info required for IFR flight FAR number

A

91.103

IFR Oral (3 decks)

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