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IFR Oral > Pilot Cafe > Flashcards

Pilot Cafe Flashcards

1
Q

when is an instrument rating required

A

when acting as PIC under IFR on in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR

when carrying passengers for compensation or hire on a cross country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night

for flight in Class A airspace

for special VFR between sunset and sunrise

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2
Q

to act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums for VFR -6 hits-

A

6 instrument approaches
holding procedures and tasks
intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems
in the preceding 6 calendar months

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3
Q

no six hits logged looking back six months

A

must have a safety pilot when doing your 6 hits in the next 6 months

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4
Q

safety pilot requirements

A

holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class

have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft
aircraft must have a dual control system

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5
Q

a year since any 6 hits

A

an instrument proficiency check must be completed

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6
Q

what is an instrument proficiency check

A

it is an exam to check that you can still be current and must cover the following

air traffic control clearances and procedures
flight by reference to instruments
navigation systems
instrument approach procedures
emergency operations
post-flight procedures

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7
Q

what are the requirements for logging instrument approach procedures

A

you must operate the aircraft or sim solely by reference to instruments
be established on each required segment of the IAP down to its published minimums
if conducted in simulated IMC in an aircraft, or in a FFS, ATD, or FTD, simulated conditions must continue down to approach
in an aircraft, flight must be in actual or simulated IMC

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8
Q

preflight self assessment

A

IMSAFE
I= illness
M= medication
S=stress
A=Alcohol
F=Fatigue
E=emotion

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9
Q

Risk management and personal minimums

A

PAVE
P= pilot(general health, physical, mental, emotional state, proficiency, currency
A= aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance
V= environment(weather hazards, terrain, airports, runways to be used and other conditions
E= external pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination etc

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10
Q

decision making

A

DECIDE
D= detect
E=estimate
C=choose
I-identify
D= do
E=evaluate

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11
Q

aircraft documents required for flight

A

ARROW
A=airworthiness certificate
R=Registration state and government
O=operating limitations and information
W=weight and balance data

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12
Q

Aircraft maintenance inspections requried for flight

A

AVIATE
A= airworthines Directive
V= Vor check every 30 days for IFR
I=inspections, annual 12 calander months, 100 hour, progressive inspection
A= altimeter and static system 24 calander months
T= transponder 24 calander months
E= ELT ever 12 calander months, battery the half life or 1 hour of use

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13
Q

preflight info required for IFR

A

NW KRAFT
N=notams
W=weather
K=known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R=runway lengths of intended use
A=alternatives available
F= fuel requirements
T=takeoff and landing performance data

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14
Q

no person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has

A

filed an IFR flight plan and recieved an appropriate atc clearance

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15
Q

when can you fly IFR without a flight plan or clearance

A

in an uncontrolled airspace (class G) but you must remain in uncontrolled until you have filed and contacted ATC and gotten clearance

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16
Q

how can you file an IFR flight plan

A

over the phone, in person, by radio, online, with ATC for pop up IFR

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17
Q

for pop up IFR flight plans through ATC is it gauranteed

A

no, ATC can say no and may depending on their workload

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18
Q

when must you file your IFR flight plan

A

30 minutes to departure and 4 hours before for lfights above FL230

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19
Q

how do you cancel a flight plan

A

ATC will automatically cancel them when you land at a towered airport
for non towered airports you must call via phone or radio and cancel
if you leave IMC you may cancel and change to a VFR flightor if you leave class A

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20
Q

when do you need an alternate

A

123 rule
1 hour before and after the published return time the ceiling is 2000 feet or below and the visibility is less than 3 SM

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21
Q

what must an airport have to list it as an alternate

A

presicion approach available= 600ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
Non-precision approach = 800ft ceiling and 2sm visibility
no instrument approach available at the alternate= ceiling and visibility must allow decent from MEA, appraoch and landing under VFR

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22
Q

IFR takeoff minimums

A

use prescribed takeoff minimums or if there are none 1-2 engine airplane 1sm visibility, more than 2 engines 1/2

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23
Q

what does a black triangle with a white T in the middle of it mean

A

non-standard TO mins/Departure procedures

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24
Q

what does a black triangle with a white A in the middle of it mean

A

non-standard IFR alternate minimums exist

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25
Q

what does a black triangle with a white A in the middle with NA next to it mean

A

Alternate minimums not authorized

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26
Q

Departure Procedures (DP) what does it mean

A

ensures obstacle clearance

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27
Q

what do you need to make ensure obstacle clearance on a DP

A

the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL
you reached 400 ft AGL before turning
you climb at least 200 feet per NM or as published otherwise on the chart

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28
Q

climb in feet per minute needed

A

feet per minute x groundspeed / 60

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29
Q

when should pilots file a DP

A

at night during MVFR or IMC

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30
Q

what are the two types of DP’s

A

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

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31
Q

what is an obstacle departure procedure

A

a DP
provides only obstacle clearance
printed either textually or graphically
graphic ODP are titled (OBSTACLE)

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32
Q

what is a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

A

a DP
in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearance and minimizing radio communications
may depict special radio failure procedures
SIDs are always printed graphically

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33
Q

what are the 3 Equipment categorized DP’s

A

Non-RNAV
RNAV
RADAR

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34
Q

what is a NON-RNAV DP

A

for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation

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35
Q

what is a RNAV DP

A

for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment
require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word RNAV in the title

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36
Q

what is a RADAR DP

A

ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED”

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37
Q

are you required to accept a DP

A

No just put no SIDs in flight plans remarks

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38
Q

what are transition routes

A

connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the enroute structure

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39
Q

what is a visual climb over airport (VCOA)

A

a departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC
pilots can use this to climb visually up to the altitude reported for instrument departure.

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40
Q

IFR departure clearance

A

CRAFT
C-clearance limit
R-route
A-altitude
F-frequency
T-transponder code

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41
Q

when does your clearance become void

A

30 minutes after takeoff time

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42
Q

hold for release

A

you may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure

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43
Q

release time

A

the earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR

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44
Q

Expect departure clearance time (EDCT)

A

a runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT

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45
Q

what is a standard terminal arrival (STAR)

A

serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made

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46
Q

what do transition routes do

A

they connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedures

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47
Q

What do RNAV STARs require

A

RNAV 1 performance

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48
Q

can you deny a star

A

yes put no STARs in the remarks section of the flight plan

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49
Q

except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below-

A

minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none:
mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course
Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4NM from the course

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50
Q

DA (H)

A

Decision altitude (height)
the altitude (height) on an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach
or go around

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51
Q

MAA

A

Maximum authorized altitude
annotated “MAA-17000”

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52
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude
the lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

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53
Q

MDA(H)

A

Minimum Descent Altitude (Height)
the lowest altitude(height) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing

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54
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude
the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements.

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55
Q

what is an MEA gap

A

it establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts

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56
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
provides obstacle clearance and navigational coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR

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57
Q

what altitude can you go to if there is an MEA and a MOCA

A

You can descend to the MOCA if you are within 22 NM of a VOR

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58
Q

MORA
what are the 2 kinds

A

minimum reception altitude
route MORA and Grid MORA

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59
Q

Route MORA

A

provides obstruction clearance within 10 NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10 NM radius at the ends of the airways

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60
Q

Grid MORA

A

provide obstruction clearance within a latitude/ longitudinal grid block

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61
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude
the lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids

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62
Q

MTA

A

Minimum Turning Altitude
provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance fixes. annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction

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63
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude
the lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches

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64
Q

OROCA

A

off route obstruction clearance altitude
provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas.

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65
Q

what are the two principles of gyroscopic instruments

A

rigidity in space and precession

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66
Q

what does the attitude indicator run off of

A

they gyroscopic instrument more specifically rigidity in space

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67
Q

what does the attitude indicator show

A

bank and pitch

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68
Q

Heading Indicator (HI) what does it operate on

A

gyroscope specifically rigidity in space

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69
Q

what does the turn indicator run operate on

A

gyroscope, more importantly precession

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70
Q

what instruments run off of the pitot static system

A

altimeter
vertical speed indicator
airspeed indicator

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71
Q

what is the altimeter

A

an aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on a standard pressure lapse rate of 1000 feet per inch of mercury

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72
Q

what should you set the altimeter to under 18000 feet

A

a station within 100 NM

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73
Q

what should you set the altimeter to when you are above 18,000 feet MSL

A

the standard sea level pressure of 29.92

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74
Q

indicated altitude

A

uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting

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75
Q

pressure altitude

A

altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane. used for performance calculations

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76
Q

density altitude

A

pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations

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77
Q

True altitude

A

actual altitude above mean sea level

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78
Q

absolute altitude

A

height above airport elevation

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79
Q

what is the vertical speed indicator

A

it indicates the rate-of-climb if fpm, and rate of trend

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80
Q

Indicated airspeed (IAS)

A

indicated on the airspeed indicator

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81
Q

Calibrated airspeed (CAS)

A

IAS corrected for instrument and position errors

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82
Q

Equivalent airspeed (EAS)

A

CAS corrected for compressibility error

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83
Q

True airspeed (TAS)

A

actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

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84
Q

Mach number

A

the ratio of TAS tot he local speed of sound

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85
Q

Ground speed

A

actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions

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86
Q

white arc

A

flap operating range. Starts at Vso; ends at Vfe

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87
Q

green arc

A

normal operating range. Starts at Vs1; ends at Vno

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88
Q

yellow arc

A

caution range. Fly only in smooth air and only with caution

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89
Q

red line

A

Vne

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90
Q

Va

A

maneuvering speed
98-113 depending on weight

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91
Q

Vs

A

stall speed, clean configuration
50

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92
Q

Vs0

A

stall speed landing configuration
45

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93
Q

Vs1

A

stall speed specific configuration
we don’t have one

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94
Q

Vfe

A

max flaps extended speed
102

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95
Q

Vno

A

max structural cruising speed
125

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96
Q

Vne

A

never exceed speed
154

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97
Q

Vx

A

best angle of climb
64

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98
Q

Vy

A

best rate of climb
76

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99
Q

what happens to the airspeed indicator when the static port is blocked

A

at the blocked altitude it will indicate correctly
at higher altitudes it will indicate lower
at lower altitudes it will indicate higher

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100
Q

what happens to the altimeter when the static port is blocked

A

it will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked

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101
Q

what happens to the Vertical Speed Indicator when the static port is blocked

A

it will freeze on zero

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102
Q

what should you do when the static port is blocked

A

you should verify it is blocked and then use an alternate static source

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103
Q

when using an alternate static source what will the airspeed indicator show

A

it will indicate a faster speed than it should

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104
Q

when using an alternate static source what will the altimeter indicator show

A

it will indicate higher than it should

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105
Q

when using an alternate static source what will the vertical speed indicator show

A

momentarily show a climb

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106
Q

what happens to the airspeed indicator when the pitot tube is blocked

A

ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open- airspeed goes to zero
both air inlet and drain hole are clogged- airspeed will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable

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107
Q

think the pitot tube is blocked? what should you do

A

turn pitot heat on

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108
Q

Magnetic compass errors and limitations

A

DV MONA
D-deviation
V-Variation
M-magnetic dip
O-oscillation
N-north/south turn errors
(undershoot north/overshoot south)
A-acceleration errors- accelerate north/ decelerate south

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109
Q

attitude heading reference systems (AHRS)

A

provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems.

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110
Q

Air Data Computers (ADC)

A

places the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC recievs inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude

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111
Q

flight director

A

computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed

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112
Q

Flight Management System (FMS)

A

Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight

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113
Q

Electronic Flight Instrument Systems

A

glass cockpit

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114
Q

Primary Flight Display

A

displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI, and heading as well as rate tapes

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115
Q

Multi-Function Displays

A

Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic.

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116
Q

Minimum Equipment list for VFR day

A

ATOMATO FLAMES
A-altimeter
T-tachometer
O-oil temperature indicator
M-manifold pressure gauge
A-airspeed indicator
T-temperature gauge
O-oil pressure gauge
F-fuel quantity gauge
L-landing gear position lights
A-anticollision lights(for aircraft certified after march 11, 1996)
M-magnetic direction indicator
E-elt, if required by 91.207
S-safety belt/ shoulder harness

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117
Q

For VFR night

A

ATOMATO FLAMES and FLAPS
F-fuses
L-landing light
A-anticollision lights
P- position lights
S-source of electrical power

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118
Q

For IFR day

A

ATOMATO FLAMES and GRABCARD
G-generator/alternator
R-Radios
A-altimeter (sensitive, adjustable)
B- Ball (slip/skid)
C- Clock
A- attitude indicator
R- rate-of-turn indicator
D- directional gyro

119
Q

what do you need for IFR night

A

ATOMATO FLAMES, FLAPS, and GRABCARD

120
Q

what do you need if you are operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from the shore

A

an approved flotation device for each occupant
at least one pyrotechnic signaling device

121
Q

what do you need if you are operating for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from the shore

A

an approved flotation device for each occupant
at least one pyrotechnic signaling device

122
Q

What do you need for flight above FL240

A

when using VOR navigation, DME or RNAV is also required

123
Q

What should you do if there is inoperative equipment

A

First look at the MEL. If no MES then check the ATOMATOFLAMES next the equipment lift and kind of operations equipment list, check 91.205 and airworthiness directives
if you are still good to fly placard it. inop it and go fly

124
Q

What are the 6 VOR checks and their deflection allowed

A

VOT-4
Repair Station-4
ground checkpoint-4
airborne checkpoint-6
dual VOR cross check-4
prominent ground landmark-6

125
Q

what is needed for the VOR check sign off

A

Date
error
place
signature

126
Q

what are the 3 VOR limitations

A

cone of confusion
reverse sensing
requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station

127
Q

what are the 3 VOR service volumes

A

Terminal-T
Low-VL
High-VH

128
Q

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

A

airborne DME unit transmits an interrogation signal and ground DME facility receives and replies letting the airborne unit calculate slant range

129
Q

DME is normally _________ with a paired VHF station (VOR/LOC)

A

tuned automatically

130
Q

the airborne DME unit transmits an

A

interrogation signal

131
Q

the ground DME facility receives and relies to …

A

the interrogation

132
Q

Airborne DME unit calculates the ______ distance to the station based on the reply time

A

slant range

133
Q

when flying overhead the station, DME indicates greater than zero

A

slant range error

134
Q

slant range error is negligible at 1 NM DME station per every _______ height

A

1000ft

135
Q

NDB

A

Non-Directional beacon

136
Q

what level of frequency band is an NDB

A

low to medium

137
Q

Magnetic Bearing=

A

Magnetic heading + Relative Bearing

138
Q

ILS

A

Instrument Landing System

139
Q

what are the four things that make the ILS

A

Localizer
glide slope
marker beacons
approach light systems

140
Q

Localizer

A

provides lateral coourse guidance
signals are carried over the VHF frequency and used by the receiver interpret the aircraft’s lateral position

141
Q

Glideslope

A

provides vertical course guidance
automatically tuned with the localizer. Vertical position interpreted by the intensity of the 90 and 150Hz signals carried over the UHF frequency and directed above and under the slope

142
Q

Marker Beacons

A

provide range information over specific points along approach
4 different markers
Outer marker
middle marker
inner marker
back course marker

143
Q

Outer Marker

A

4-7 miles out. Indicates the position at which the aircraft should intercept the GS at the appropriate interception altitude
plus or minute 50 ft
BLUE

144
Q

Middle Marker

A

3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the GS meets the decision height. Usually 200ft above the touchdown zone elevation
AMBER

145
Q

Inner Marker

A

between the MM and runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT ll ILS approach
WHITE

146
Q

Approach Light System (ALS)

A

provides basic visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach
may include sequenced flashing lights, which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling towards the runway at twice a second
the visible part of the ALS configuration can help the pilot estimate flight visibility

147
Q

RNAV

A

area navigation

148
Q

RNAV definition

A

allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overly ground-based facilities

149
Q

RNAV types

A

Globe Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
VOR/DME RNAV
DME/DMERNAV
inertial reference unti/ systems (IRU/IRS)

150
Q

RNAV VNAV

A

vertcal NAVigation guidance

151
Q

BARO-VNAV

A

an RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot

152
Q

published RNAV routes are

A

RNAV 2 unless charted as RNAV 1

153
Q

Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB)

A

the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route

154
Q

how many satellites do we have for GPS in total and how many are we predicted to have in line of sight at a time

A

24
5

155
Q

How does GPS work

A

the aircraft’s GPS reciever calculates the distance to a GPS satellite base on the time lapse since the broadcast timestamp and the time it received the signal

156
Q

what happens if for GPS you only have 1 satellite

A

you could be virtually anywhere withing the reach of that satellite

157
Q

2D position with GPS

A

uses 3 satellites
latitude and longitudinal

158
Q

3D position with GPS

A

uses 4 satellites
latitude, longitudinal, and altitude

159
Q

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM)

A

a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals
requires 5 satellites, or 4 satellites + an altimeter input
to eliminate a corrupt satellite, RAIM needs an additional satellite

160
Q

airborne GPS units use

A

great-circle navigation

161
Q

GPS CDI deflection shows

A

distance

162
Q

VOR CDI deflection shows

A

angular distance off course in degrees

163
Q

GPS can be a substitute for

A

ADF or DME

164
Q

GPS Augmentation systems, or Differential GPS (DGPS)

A

improves the accuracy of the GPS by measuring errors received by reference stations at known geographical locations and then broadcasting those errors to supported GPS recievers

165
Q

2 kinds of GPS Augmentation systems

A

satellite based augmentation system (SBAS)
ground based augmentation system (GBAS)

166
Q

Satellite based augmentation system

A

wide area augmentation system (WASS) in the US
ground stations measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity and availability monitoring for GPS navigation
covers wide area
facilitates APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV and LP approaches

167
Q

Ground Bases Augmentation System (GBAS)

A

Formerly named local area augmentation system (LAAS) in the US
errors are broadcasted via VHF to BGAS-enabled GPS receivers
GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area
allows for category l and above approaches to GLS DA minima

168
Q

RNP

A

required navigational performance

169
Q

RNP definition

A

a statement of navigation equipment and service performance
RNAV with navigation monitoring and alr=erting
all RNAV approaches and RNP approaches (RNAV GPS)
if it says RNAV RNP authorization required, you need special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation (only in US)

170
Q

RNP approach minima and equipment

A

GLS DA minima using GBAS
LP MDA or LPV DA minima require RNP achieved by WAAS
LNAV/VNAV DA achieved by VNAV-approved WAAS, or BARO-RNAV systems
LNAV MDA achieved by a basic unaugmented IFR approved GPS

171
Q

Area Navigation (RNAV)

A

RNAV is a system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overly ground-based stations

172
Q

GNSS

A

is a broad term for satellite-based RNAV systems
GPS is the GNSS operated by the USA.

173
Q

Performance Based Navigation (PBN)

A

PBN is a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, availability and functionality for specific operation contexts

174
Q

3 basic attitude instrument flying skills

A

cross check
instrument interpretation
aircraft control

175
Q

Common basic attitude instrument flying issues

A

Fixation
Omission
emphasis

176
Q

control and performance methods

A

divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments. First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments

177
Q

control instruments

A

power- tachometer, manifold pressure, EPR, N1 etc
Attitude- attitude indicator

178
Q

Performance Instruments

A

Pitch: altimeter, airspeed, and VSI
Bank: Heading indicator, Turn coordinator, and magnetic compass

179
Q

Primary and Supporting Method

A

divides the cockpit panel by pitch, bank, and power instruments
for a specific maneuver, primary instruments provide the most essential information for pitch, bank, and power while supporting instruments back up and supplement the information presented by the primary instruments

180
Q

Primary and secondary method- pitch instruments

A

attitude indicator, altimeter, airspeed indicator and VSI

181
Q

Primary and secondary method- Bank Instruments

A

attitude indicator, heading indicator, magnetic compass,and turn coordinator

182
Q

Primary and secondary method- Power Instruments

A

airspeed, tachometer, manifold pressure

183
Q

Required Reports under IFR

A

MARVELOUS VFR C500
M- missed approach
A- airspeed +/-10 knots or 5% change
R- reaching a holding fix
V-vfr on top when an altitude change will be made
E-eta change +/-2 min, or +/-3 min in North Atlantic
L-leaving a holding fix/point
O-Outer marker
U- unforcasted weather
S- safety of flight
V- vacating an altitude/ FL
F-final approach fix
R-radio/Nav/approach equipment failure
C-compulsory reporting points
500- unable climb/descent 500 fpm

184
Q

Position report items required in non-radar environment

A

A PTA NER R
A-aircraft ID
P-position
T-Time
A-altitude
T-type of flight plan
E-eta and name of next reporting fix
N- name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight
R-remarks

185
Q

why might ATC assign you holding instructions

A

to delay separate traffic in the air for reasons such as weather or airport closures

186
Q

Non-charted holding clearance items

A

diretion of hold from fix
holding fix
radial, course, airway, or route on which to hold
leg length in miles or minutes
direction of turns
expect further clearance

187
Q

charted holding clearance items

A

holding fix
direction
efc

188
Q

start speed reduction _______ before reaching the holding fix

A

3 minutes

189
Q

actions at hold fix and each turn point

A

time
turn
throttle
tune
talk

190
Q

adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes

A

at or below 14,000’- minute
above 14,000’- 1.5 minutes

191
Q

Holding speeds

A

6,000’ or below- 200 knots
6001-14000- 230 knots
14001 or above- 265 knots

192
Q

lost communications procedure in VFR

A

continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as possible

193
Q

altitude to fly in lost communications

A

the highest of the MEA
M-minimum altitude prescribed for IFR
E-expected
A-assigned. last altitude assigned by ATC

194
Q

route to fly in lost communications

A

Select the route by this order AVEF
A- assigned route or if none
V- vectored
E- last expected route by ATC
F- filed route

195
Q

leaving the clearance limit in lost communication

A

is the clearance limita a fix from which an approach begins?
yes:start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC or ETA
no: at EFC or clearance limit proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach

196
Q

Procedure turn

A

a maneuver that enables course reversal, a decent from IAF, inbound course interception

197
Q

procedure turn max speed

A

200 knots

198
Q

do you have to stay in the charted distance for a PT

A

yes

199
Q

Do you have to follow the shape of the procedure turn

A

yes

200
Q

when is a procedure turn mandatory

A

when depicted on the approach chart

201
Q

when is a procedure turn not allowed

A

NO PT on the chart. radar vectors to final or when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix

202
Q

Do not fly a procedure turn when

A

SHARP
S-straight-in appraoch clearance
H-holding in lieu of a procedure turn
A-DME Arc
R-radar vectors to final
P-No PT depicted on chart
T-timed approach from a hold fix
teardrop course reversal

203
Q

what are the instrument approach types

A

Precision
non-precision
approach with vertical guidance

204
Q

Precision Approach

A

lateral + vertical guidance to a DA
ILS-instrument landing system
MLS- microwave landing system
PAR- precision approach radar
GLS-GBAS landing system
TLS- Transponder Landing System

205
Q

Non-Precision approach

A

lateral guidance only. flown to MDA
VOR
NDB
RNAV/ RNP to LNAV or LP minima
LOC- localizer
LDA- localizer-type directional aid, identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway
SDF- simplified directional aid. identical to a LOC but not aligned with the runway
ASR- approach surveillance radar

206
Q

approach with vertical guidance

A

a precision-like approach flown to a DA with lateral + vertical, but does not meet precision approach standards
RNAV/ GNSS
LDA with glide slope

207
Q

what are the 2 odd kinds of approach clearances

A

contact approach
visual approach

208
Q

when can you descend to the next instrument approach segment

A

when cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route

209
Q

Contact Approach

A

requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach
requires at least 1sm ground visibility and remains clear of clouds
only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures
pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance

210
Q

Visual approach

A

initiated by either ATC or the pilot
requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility
pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to the follow in sight
pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow

211
Q

Missed approach

A

execute a missed approach when
arrival at MAP or DH with insufficient visual reference to runway environment
a safe approach si not possible
instructed to do so by ATC

212
Q

when can you descend below the MDA/DA

A

the aircraft if continuously in position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers
the flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used
at least of the visual references fo rhte intended runways distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot

213
Q

what are the visual references a pilot must have in sight to descend past an MDA

A

threshold, threshold marking/lights
runway end identifier lights, runway or runway markings or lights
the visual glideslope indicator
touchdown zone or markings or lights
or the approach light system bu the pilot must not descend 100 feet above the touchdown elevation using the approach lights as a reference

214
Q

Visual Descent Point (VDP)

A

a defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure form which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established

215
Q

what is the identifier for the visual descent point

A

V

216
Q

if you are not equipped to identiry the VDP what should you do

A

fly the approach as if the is no VDP

217
Q

if there is a VDP you should not fly below the _____ until reaching the VDP

A

MDA

218
Q

Visual Descent angle (VDA)

A

a computed glide path from the FAF to the runway’s TCH published for non-precision approaches
FAA policy is to publish a VDA/TCH on all non-precision approaches except those published in conjunction with vertically guided minimums or no FAF procedures without a stepdown fix. A VDA does not guarantee obstacle protection below the MDA int eh visual segment. The presence of a VDA does not change any non-precision approach requirements
VDA’s are advisory only, pilots must still comply with all published altitdued on the procedure

219
Q

Class A

A

controlled airspave
IFR unless authorized VFR

220
Q

Class B

A

controlled airspace surrounding the nation’s busiest airports
the shape of class B is specifically tailored for its environment
consist of a surface area and two or more layers
requires adsB out mode C and two way radio communications
ATC separates traffic

221
Q

Class C

A

controlled airspace
ATC provides vfr and ifr traffic
need 2 way communication, Mode-C transponder and ADS-B out

222
Q

Class D

A

controlled airspace
requires 2 way radio communication

223
Q

Class E

A

transition area
enroute domestic areas
federal airways/ low altitudes RNAV routes
offshore airspace areas

224
Q

Class G

A

uncontrolled airspace

225
Q

Special Use Airspaces

A

prohibited areas
warning area
restricted
millitary operating areas
alert areas
controlled firing areas
special flight rules area
temporary flight restrictions
air defence identification zone
military training routes

226
Q

Prohibited areas

A

flight is prohibited unless permission is granted by the using or controlling agency as appropriate
exists due to security or other reasons associated with the national welfare

227
Q

Restricted Areas

A

flight is not completly prohibited but is subject to restrictions due to hazards
must follow restrictions when in airspace
Blue
if the airspace is not active ATC may allow you through it
it airspave is active atc will issue a clearance around it to ensure safety

228
Q

Warning areas

A

3 NM and out from the US
to warn nonparticipating aircraft of the potential hazard
may be located on domestic or international warer

229
Q

Military operating areas

A

purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
IFR traffic may go through with approval, ATC will most of the time vector you around

230
Q

Alert Areas

A

depicted on charts to inform pilots of high volume of a pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity
pilots transitioning the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance

231
Q

controlled firing areas

A

hazardous firing for aircraft
can not see on a chart
activities are suspended when an aircraft enters the area

232
Q

Military training routes

A

used for high speed flight training by the military so they can exceed 250 knots

233
Q

Air defense identification zone

A

requirements to operate in: an operable transponder with altitude encoding, two way radio communication, ifr flight plan, depart within 5 minutes of flight plan’s etd
its an airspace over land or water in which the ready identification, location, and control of all aircraft is required in the interest of national securtiy

234
Q

temporary flight restrictions

A

defined in flight data center (notams)
they are in place to protect important people or property, provide safe environment for disaster relief aircraft, prevent unsafe congestion of sightseeing aircraft around an event, protect national disasters, provide safe environment fo space agency operations

235
Q

special flight rules

A

an airspace defined dimensions above land areas or territorial waters where special air traffic rules have been established for
must adhere to specific rules

236
Q

Max aircraft speed above 10,000’

A

mach 1

237
Q

max aircraft speed below 10,000’

A

250 knots

238
Q

max aircraft speed under class B or withing a VFR corridor through clas B

A

200 knots

239
Q

max aircraft speed at or below 2,500’ within 4 NM of the primary airport of a class C or D airspace

A

200 knots

240
Q

types of weather briefings

A

standard
abbreviated
outlook
inflight

241
Q

standard weather briefing

A

a full briefing

242
Q

abbreviated weather briefing

A

updates previaously recieved information from mass disseminated sources or a previous briefing

243
Q

outlook weather briefing

A

for departures 6 or more hours awas. includes forecasts for the time of the flight

244
Q

inflight weather briefing

A

FSS also provides any of the above types in flight

245
Q

Airmet

A

an advisory of significant weather phenomena at lower intensities than those which require the issuance of SIGMET

246
Q

how long is an airmet valid for

A

6 hours

247
Q

AIRMET T

A

moderate turbulence
surface winds of 30 knots or greater
llw wind shear

248
Q

AIRMET Z

A

describes moderate icing and freezing levels

249
Q

Airmet S

A

describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations

250
Q

Sigmets

A

non-sheduled inflight advisory with maximum forecast period of 4 hours

251
Q

what will a Sigmet be issued for

A

severe icing not associeated with thunderstorms
severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence not associated with thunderstorms
dust storms, sandstorms lowering surface visibility below 3 miles

252
Q

Convective Sigmet

A

in inflight advisory of convective weather
issued every 55 minutes
valid for 2 hours
contains either an observation and a forecast or only a forecast

253
Q

what is a Convective SIGMET issued for

A

severe thunderstorms
tornados
embedded thunderstorms
line fo thunderstorms

254
Q

International Sigmet

A

sigmet issued outside of the contiguous USA
put out for thunderstorms, cyclones, severe icing, severe and extreme turbulence, dust storms and sandstorms, volcanic ash

255
Q

Pirep

A

pilot weather reports

256
Q

Metar

A

aviation routine weather shows surface weather observations in a standard international format

257
Q

Taf

A

wather forecast fo r5 SM radius area around the station. issued 4 times a day, every 6 hours and will cover a 24 or 30 hour period

258
Q

Surface analysis chart

A

shows pressure systems, isobars, fronts, airmass boundaries and station information. issued every 3 hours

259
Q

Radar summary chart

A

depicts precipitation type, intensity, coverage, movement, echoes, and maximum tops issued hourly

260
Q

wind and temp alogt forecast

A

issued 4 times daily for various altitudes and flight levels

261
Q

low level significant weather chart

A

forecasts significant weather conditions for a 12 and 24 hour period form the surface to 400 MB level. issued 4 times a day. depicts weather categories, turbulence and freezing levels

262
Q

mid-level significant weather charts

A

forecasts of significant weather at various altitudes and flight levels from 10,000’ to FL450.

263
Q

High-level significant weather charts

A

depicts forecasts of significant weather phenomena for FL250 to FL630

264
Q

Convective outlook

A

available in both graphical and textual format. a 3-day forecast of convective activity

265
Q

what is needed for a thunderstorm to form

A

sufficient water vapor
an unstable temperature lapse rate
an initial uplifting

266
Q

stages in thunderstorm lifecycle

A

cumulus- the lifitng action of the air begins, growth rate may exceed 3000fpm
mature- begins when precipitation starts falling from the cloud base updraft is starting, downdrafts may exceed 2500fpm. all thunderstorm hazards are at their greatest intensity at the mature stage
Dissipating- characterized by strong downdrafts and the cell dying rapidle

267
Q

hazards of a thunderstorm

A

limited visibility
wind shear
stung updrafts/downdrafts
icing
hailstones
heavy rain
severe turbulence
lightning strikes and tornadoes

268
Q

Fog

A

a cloud begins within 50 ft of the surface

269
Q

when does fog occur

A

the air temperature near the round reaches its dew point
when the dew point is raised to the existing temperature by added moisture to the air

270
Q

types of fog

A

radiation fog
advection fog
ice fog
upslope fog
steam fog

271
Q

what are the types of icing

A

structural ice
instrument ice
induction ice
intake ice
carburetor ice
frost

272
Q

Hypoxia definition

A

insufficient supply of oxygen to the body cells

273
Q

4 Hypoxia types

A

hypoxic hypoxia
hypemic hypoxia
histotoxic hypoxia
stagnant hypoxia

274
Q

hypoxic hypoxia

A

insufficient supply of O2 to the body as a whole. high altitude

275
Q

Hypemic hypoxia

A

inability of the blood to carry the O2 molecules
not enough blood
CO poisoning

276
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia

A

inability of the body cells to affectively use the O2 supplied by the blood
alcohol or drugs

277
Q

Stagnant hypoxia

A

caused by the blood not flowing efficiently.
G’s

278
Q

Oxygen requirements above15,000’

A

each occupent must be provided with supplemental O2

279
Q

Oxygen requirements 14,000-15,000’

A

the required minimum flight crew must provided with and must use supplemental O2 the entire flight time at these altitudes

280
Q

oxygen requirements 12,500-14000’

A

the required minimum fllight crew must be provided with and must use supplemental O2 for periods of flight over 30 minutes at there altitudes

281
Q

spatial disorientation

A

when your body tells you something different
runs off of vestibular, somatosensory, and visual systems

282
Q

false horizons

A

an illusion in which the pilot mas misidentify the horizon line.

283
Q

autokinesis

A

staring at a stationary point of light in a dark or featurleess scene for a prolonged period of time may cause the light to appear to be moving

284
Q

featureless terrain slope illusion

A

flying over dark or featureless terrain can give the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired

285
Q

haze illusion

A

during an approach, haze may give the illusion that the runway is further of that the airplane is higher than it is

286
Q

fog illusion

A

flying into fog may create an illusion of a nose-up motion

287
Q

transponder code 7500

A

aircraft hijacking

288
Q

transponder code 7600

A

radio failure

289
Q

transponder code 7700

A

emergency

290
Q

LIFR

A

less than 500’ ceiling
less than 1SM visibility
magenta

291
Q

IFR

A

500’ to 1,000 ft
1SM to 3SM visibility

292
Q

MVFR

A

1000 to 3000 ceiling
3 to 5 sm visibility

293
Q

VFR

A

greater than 3000’ ceiling
5sm or greater visibility

IFR Oral (3 decks)

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