SSTI, BJ IDBR Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two major mechanisms by which osteomyelitis occurs?

A

Continugous Innoculation = contaminate bone directly through ulcer adjacent to bone, the integrity of cortex breached. Seen in DFI, open fractures, surgical procedures. (2) Hematogenous seeding - common for acute long bone osteomyelitis in children, and vertebral osteomyelitis in adults. Site of infection elsewhere.

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2
Q

TX of staphylococcal prosthetic joint infection?

A

2-6 weeks of pathogen-specific IV therapy + rifampin 300-450 BID followed by rifampin + oral drug for total 3 months.
If TKA - 6 months. Oral companion drug include FQ.

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3
Q

Common organism associated with contiguous-focus osteomyelitis?

A

Polymicrobial, but most common is staph aureus

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4
Q

most common pathogen associated with open fracture oseomyelitis?

A

Staph aureus, CoNs, aerobic GNB

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5
Q

what test has the highest PPV for osteomyelitis?

A

Probe to bone test

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6
Q

what should you know about plan radiographs for osteomyelitis?

A

abnormalities may not be apparent up to 2 weeks in most types of osteomyelitis

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7
Q

what should you know about technetium Tc99m methylene diphosphonate bone scan for osteomyelitis?

A

Low specificity patiuclarlay with other bone diseases like neuropathic bone disease or radiation necrosis

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8
Q

which is the best diagnostic test outside of probe to bone/biopsy for orthopedic hardware?

A

CT/MRI may be degraded. Gallium Ga 67 citrate especially for diskitis, and when MRI cannot be used

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9
Q

what is gold standard for osteomyelitis?

A

deep bone culture/bone biopsy

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10
Q

when does broad spectrum empirical therapy need to precede surgical therapy?

A

Concomitant soft tissue infection, sepsis syndrome with osteomyelitis,

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11
Q

the general idea of treatment for chronic osteomyelitis after debridement and removal of orthopedic hardware?

A

IV/highly bioactive PO for 4-6 weeks with success rates around 80%

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12
Q

the general idea of treatment duration for acute hematogenous cases with vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

4-6 weeks

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13
Q

Options when orthopedic hardware cannot be removed at time of surgical debridement owing to need to stabilize fracture?

A

(1) IV therapy, with long term PO suppressive therapy. (2) FQ+rifampin after IV therapy w/o suppressive therapy (studied with staphyloccal infection of fracture fixation device)

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14
Q

Tx of relapse of infection with retained hardware?

A

remove orthopedic hardware and administer IV/PO for 4-6 weeks

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15
Q

general principles of treatment for chronic osteomyelitis?

A

source control via debridement/removal of hardware, management of dead space and adequate soft tissue coverage via flaps/grafts/antimicrobial beads, assess vascular supply

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16
Q

Antibiotic duration for DFI?

A

Parenteral therapy for moderate/severe. PO for low severity. 1-2 weeks for mild, 2-3 for moderate/severe.

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17
Q

what imaging studies used for DFI?

A

all patients with new DFI have plain radiographs. MRI if soft tissue abscess/osteomyelitis, If MRI contraindicated, radionuclide bon scan and labeled white blood cell scan.

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18
Q

How long would you treat for DFI after radical resection?

A

If no remaining infected tissue, 2-5 days. if persistent infected/necrotic bone, >4 weeks. (weak/low)

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19
Q

what are risk factors for pseudomonas infection?

A

high local prevalence, warm climate, drugs, frequent exposure of foot to water

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20
Q

what is a two stage exchange arthroplasty? problem?

A

implants removed, infected tissues debrided, temporary antibiotic impregnated space placed (stage 1). After weeks of IV antibiotics, reimplantation (stage 2). Between stages 1 and 2, risk of abx toxicity and pain due to lack of functioning joint

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21
Q

what is a one stage exchange arthroplasty?

A

infected prosthesis removed, infected tissues debrided, and new prosthesis implanted during the same procedure

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22
Q

most common organism in infectious arthritis?

A

staph aureus

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23
Q

most common organisms after manipulation of joint after surgery?

A

coagulase negative staphylococci

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24
Q

most common pathogen infectious arthritis in young patients?

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

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25
Q

what patient population do you suspect infections due to gram negative bacteremia?

A

more common in elderly

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26
Q

hardware associated microorganisms?

A

CoNs, cutibacterium (propionic)

27
Q

clinical clues to HACEK?

A

human bite wounds (eikenella corrodens), recent dental procedure or infection

28
Q

clinical clues ot Kingella Kingae?

A

this is the K in hacek. children<4 years old

29
Q

clinical clues to pasturella?

A

cat or dog bite

30
Q

clinical clues to salmonella?

A

sickle cell, diabetes, developing world, unsafe food hygiene, reptile exposure +/- antecedent GI illness

31
Q

clinical clue to brucella?

A

consumption of unpasteruzied dairy, travel to endemia area (latin america, meditarranean, middle east), sacroillitis and sponylodiscitis

32
Q

clinical clue to streptobacillus moniformis?

A

rat bite

33
Q

septic arthritis with negative culture or delayed positivity?

A

gonococcus, HACEK, lyme or mycoplasma

34
Q

Tx of brucella?

A

doxycycline + streptomycin or doxycycline + rifampin for at least 12 weeks

35
Q

brucella clinical features?

A

ingestion of unpasteruzed diary (goat, cattle sheep) and contact with infected animals. See prodromal nonspecific febrile illnss with sweats

36
Q

dx approach to pyogenic vertebral osteomyelitis?

A
  1. Blood cultures (if staph aureus or lugdunensis - no further workup needed). 2. brucella serologies, PPD/IGRA in appropriate setting 3. percutaneous bone bopsy (paraspinal or bone/disc space). If possible, hold abx for 1-2 weeks.
37
Q

what is brodie’s abscess?

A

subacute hematogenous osteomyelitis where bacteria deposit in medullary canal of metaphyseal bone which become surrounded by rim of sclerotic bone–>intraosseous abscess. See a penumbra sign on MRI

38
Q

define early surgical site infection timing?

A

<3 months with acute onset of fever, joint pain, swelling. Think Staph aureus

39
Q

define delayed/subacute infection?

A

3-24 months of insidious onset of pane. Thinks CoNs or cutibacterium

40
Q

dfine late acute infection?

A

> 2 years of acute onset of fever, joint pain, swelling. THink hematenous seding, virulent organisms (staph aureus, strep)

41
Q

what is the most common pathogen after cat bite?

A

Pasteurella Multocida

42
Q

what is the microbiological characteristics for pasteurella?

A

small aerobic gram negative bacillus

43
Q

what 6 pathogens that can cause infection after cat bite?

A

pasteurella, anaerobic bacteria (Fusobacteria), bartonella henselae, rabies virus, S.aureus, Streptococal

44
Q

what commonly prescribed abx is sensitive and what is resistant to pasteurella?

A

amoxicillin sensitive, keflex resistant

45
Q

what are potential pathogens to dog bites?

A

dog’s mouth: pasteurella canis, capnocytophaga canimorsus. Human skin: s.aureus, s.pyogenes

46
Q

Typical resistance and sensitivity profiles to pasturella species?

A

CCDE - cephalexin, clindamycin, dicloxacillin, and often erythromycin resistant. penicillin, doxycycline, bactrim, and extended spectrum cephalosporins sensitive.

47
Q

Typical resistance/sensitivity profiles to capnocytophaga?

A

susceptible to augmentin, penicillin, and clindamycin. Resistant to bactrim, and maybe vancomycin

48
Q

post-exposure prophylaxis is indicated in wounds with which animals?

A

coyotes, foxes, catle

49
Q

rat bite fever is caused by which organisms and which vector?

A

usa is streptobacillus moniliformis. in asia, spirillium minus. From bites or contaminated food or water.

50
Q

Tx of rat bite fever?

A

penicillin or doxycycline

51
Q

symptoms of rat bite fever in the uS?

A

fever, macular/papular pustular petechial rash and symmetrical polyarthralgia

52
Q

Describe microbiological features of Eikenella Corrodens?

A

anaerobic gram negative bacilli

53
Q

what is the susceptibility profile to Eikenella?

A

suscepitble to penicillin, FQ, bactrim, doxy, and extended spectrum cephalosporins.

54
Q

what is the resistance profile to eikenella?

A

resistant to keflex, clindamycin, erythromycin, and metronidazole

55
Q

Ddx of organisms causing superficial folliculitis?

A

S.aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, candida albicans, M.Furfur, Eosinopphilic pustular folliculitis

56
Q

what is erysipelas?

A

nonpurulent acute onset of painful rapidly spreading red plaque of inflammation involving epidermis, dermis and subcutaenous layers

57
Q

what abx should you avoid in treatment of erysipelas?

A

avoid macroliedes and bactrim

58
Q

what are elements of staph TSS?

A

staph has no focal pain, rare tissue necrosis, common erythoderma, very rare bacteremia with low mortality associated with tampons/surgery.

59
Q

what are elements of strep TSS?

A

cuts, burns, varicella with focal pain, tissue necrosis, bacteremia, less erythoderma, with high mortality

60
Q

organisms whose growth is stimulated by excess iron?

A

VELARY: vibrio vulnificus, E.Coli, Listeria monocytogenes, Aeromonas hydrophilia, Rhizopus (mucor), Yersinia enterocolitica

61
Q

Leeches

A

aeromonas

62
Q

cutaneous anthrax

A

painless edematous ulcerated papule; woolsorter

63
Q

Erythrasma due to C.Minutissimum

A

intertriginous infection and coral red with UV light (woods lamp)

64
Q

M.Fortuitum, M.chelonae association

A

nail salon, whirlpool, tattoo parlor