Spring 25 - Farm Test 3 Flashcards

Locals and opioids

1
Q

What is the structure of local anesthetics?

A

A lipophilic benzene ring connected to a hydrophilic amine group via either an ester or amide linkage.

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2
Q

Name five amide local anesthetics.

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Prilocaine
  • Mepivacaine
  • Ropivacaine
  • Bupivacaine
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3
Q

Name five ester local anesthetics.

A
  • Cocaine
  • Procaine
  • 2-chloroprocaine
  • Tetracaine
  • Benzocaine
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4
Q

What type of bases are all local anesthetics?

A

Weak bases.

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5
Q

What is the significance of pKa in local anesthetics?

A

pKa is the pH at which 50% of the drug is in ionized and 50% in non-ionized form.

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6
Q

What does a lower pKa indicate regarding the onset of local anesthetics?

A

Faster onset due to more drug in neutral form at physiological pH.

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7
Q

How does increased lipophilicity affect local anesthetics?

A

It results in slower onset but longer duration of action.

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8
Q

How does increased protein binding affect the duration of action of local anesthetics?

A

It leads to a longer duration of action.

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9
Q

Which local anesthetics are not racemic mixtures?

A
  • Lidocaine
  • Ropivacaine
  • Levobupivacaine
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10
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine when used with local anesthetics?

A

Prolongs block duration and decreases systemic absorption by inducing vasoconstriction.

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11
Q

What is the common concentration of epinephrine used with local anesthetics?

A

1:200,000.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of alkalinization in local anesthetic administration?

A

Raises pH to increase the fraction of drug in lipid-soluble (active) form.

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13
Q

What is the primary route of metabolism for esters?

A

Metabolized by plasma cholinesterases via hydrolysis.

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14
Q

What is the primary route of metabolism for amides?

A

Metabolized by the liver’s cytochrome P450 system.

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15
Q

What factors increase the risk of local anesthetic toxicity?

A
  • Young and elderly patients
  • Pregnancy
  • Hepatic disease
  • Low cardiac output
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16
Q

What is the potency ranking of local anesthetics from highest to lowest?

A
  • Bupivacaine = Levobupivacaine
  • Etidocaine
  • Ropivacaine
  • Mepivacaine = Lidocaine = Prilocaine
  • Esters
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17
Q

What are the risk factors for CNS toxicity from local anesthetics?

A
  • Decreased protein binding
  • Decreased clearance
  • Rapid IV administration
  • Acidosis
  • Increased pCO₂
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18
Q

What are common symptoms of CNS toxicity from local anesthetics?

A
  • CNS depression at low plasma levels
  • CNS excitation and seizures at higher levels
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19
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Procaine?

A
  • Pediatric 350 mg (7 mg/kg)
  • Adult 600 mg
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20
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Chloroprocaine?

A
  • 800 mg plain (11 mg/kg)
  • 1000 mg with epinephrine (14 mg/kg)
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21
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Tetracaine?

A

20 mg.

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22
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Lidocaine?

A
  • 300 mg plain (4.5 mg/kg)
  • 500 mg with epinephrine (7mg/kg)
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23
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Prilocaine?

A

600 mg.

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24
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Mepivacaine?

A
  • 400 mg (plain)
  • 500 mg (with epinephrine)
  • 100 mg for spinal use
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25
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Bupivacaine?

A
  • 175 mg plain (2.5 mg/kg)
  • 225 mg with epinephrine
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26
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Ropivacaine?

A

200 mg (3 mg/kg)

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27
Q

What is the maximum single dose for Levobupivacaine?

A

150 mg (2 mg/kg)

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28
Q

What is the protocol for the Lipid Rescue™ treatment?

A

Intralipid 20%
* Bolus: 1.5 mL/kg IV over 1 minute
* Infusion: 0.25 mL/kg/min immediately after bolus
* Repeat bolus every 3–5 minutes (max cumulative bolus: 3 mL/kg)
* Continue infusion until hemodynamic stability is restored

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29
Q

Intralipid 20% practical application for 70 kg male

A
  • Use a 500 mL bag of Intralipid 20%
  • Draw up 50 mL x2 and give immediate IV push
  • Attach bag to IV set (macrodrip) and infuse over 15 minutes
    -Repeat bolus up to two more times if circulation does not return
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30
Q

What is the clinical use of Benzocaine?

A

Commonly used in 20% solution for topical application to mucous membranes.

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of Transient Neurologic Symptoms (TNS)?

A

Radiating pain from the lower back to buttocks and lower extremities.

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32
Q

What is a treatment option for TNS?

A

Supportive care: opioids, NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, warm compresses, trigger point injections

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33
Q

What is the incidence of TNS with spinal lidocaine administration?

A

Up to 40%.

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34
Q

What is the main risk factor for TNS?

A

Spinal lidocaine administration.

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35
Q

What is the significance of the para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) derivative in Procaine?

A

It indicates Procaine’s chemical structure.

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36
Q

What is the onset and duration of action for Tetracaine when used for spinal anesthesia?

A

Onset: 3–5 minutes, Duration: 2–3 hours.

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37
Q

What is the primary application of Chloroprocaine?

A

Epidural anesthesia during cesarean section.

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38
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Bupivacaine’s cardiotoxicity?

A
  • Slow dissociation during diastole
  • Central inhibition via nucleus tractus solitarius
  • Peripheral sympathetic inhibition and direct vasodilation
39
Q

What are the characteristics of Etidocaine?

A

Highly lipophilic with rapid onset and long duration.

40
Q

What is the significance of the S-enantiomer in Levobupivacaine?

A

Offers similar potency to bupivacaine with 30–40% less systemic toxicity.

41
Q

What is the risk associated with using Benzocaine at doses of 200–300 mg?

A

Methemoglobinemia risk.

42
Q

What is Intralipid 20% used for in emergency treatment?

A

Used as an IV push and then gtt for immediate treatment in local anesthetic-induced cardiac arrest.

A 500 mL bag is typically used, with doses of 50 mL administered as needed.

43
Q

When was opium first used by the Ancient Sumerians?

A

Around 3000 BC for religious rituals.

44
Q

What significant development in opioid history occurred in 1806?

A

Serturner isolates morphine.

45
Q

Define ‘opiates’.

A

Naturally derived from opium, including morphine, codeine, and related alkaloids.

46
Q

What are ‘opioids’?

A

A broad class that includes all agonists and antagonists, natural, semi-synthetic, and synthetic compounds, and all substances that bind to opioid receptors.

47
Q

What are the three major opioid receptors?

A
  • Mu (μ)
  • Kappa (κ)
  • Delta (δ)
48
Q

What is the mechanism of opioid receptor action?

A

G protein-coupled receptors that inhibit adenylyl cyclase, decrease cAMP, decrease Ca²⁺ channel conduction, and open K⁺ channels.

49
Q

What is desensitization in the context of opioid receptors?

A

Prolonged activation of receptors leads to reduced sensitivity.

50
Q

What is the role of endogenous opioid ligands?

A

Over 20 peptides from brain, pituitary, adrenal, and immune cells that interact with opioid receptors.

51
Q

List the effects of the Mu (μ) receptor.

A
  • Analgesia
  • Respiratory depression
  • Sedation
  • Euphoria
  • Constipation
  • Bradycardia
  • Hypothermia
  • Urinary retention
  • Physical dependence
52
Q

What are the clinical effects of opioids in the short term?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Respiratory depression
  • Sedation
  • Euphoria
  • Vasodilation
  • Bradycardia
  • Cough suppression
  • Miosis
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Constipation
  • Urinary retention
  • Biliary spasm
53
Q

What factors influence opioid response?

A
  • Pain location & intensity
  • Psychological factors
  • Drug interactions
  • Age
  • Pathologic and genetic factors
  • Sex differences
54
Q

Fill in the blank: Most clinically useful opioids are ____ receptor-selective.

55
Q

What is the primary route of opioid metabolism?

A

Primarily hepatic.

56
Q

What are the effects of opioids on the gastrointestinal system?

A
  • Decreased peristalsis
  • Constipation
  • Delayed gastric emptying
  • Postoperative ileus
57
Q

What symptoms characterize opioid withdrawal syndrome?

A
  • Restlessness
  • Mydriasis
  • Gooseflesh
  • Runny nose
  • Diarrhea
  • Chills
  • Drug-seeking behavior
58
Q

What is the difference between physical dependence and addiction?

A

Physical dependence refers to physiological adaptation to a drug, while addiction involves psychological dependence.

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action for naloxone?

A
  • Opioid antagonist
    Blocks opioid receptors for acute reversal of opioid toxicity.
60
Q

What are the side effects of neuraxial opioids?

A
  • Pruritus
  • Nausea/vomiting
61
Q

True or False: True opioid allergies are common.

62
Q

What is the risk associated with meperidine use in renal failure?

A

Accumulation of normeperidine, which can cause neurotoxicity and seizures.

63
Q

What is the effect of opioids on respiratory rate?

A

Dose-dependent depression of response to hypercapnia and hypoxia.

64
Q

List the four types of opioid agonists.

A
  • Natural/Semisynthetic
  • Synthetic
  • Others
  • Antitussive agents
65
Q

What is pruritis in the context of neuraxial opioids?

A

Generalized itching, worst in face, neck, upper thorax. More common in obstetrical patients due to estrogen interaction with receptors.

Not histamine mediated; involves opioid receptors in the trigeminal nucleus. Naloxone is effective; antihistamines help via sedation.

66
Q

What triggers nausea and vomiting with neuraxial opioids?

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone and depression of vomiting center. Responds well to anti-dopaminergic agents like metoclopramide and promethazine.

These agents help mitigate the effects of opioid-induced nausea.

67
Q

What causes urinary retention in neuraxial opioid use?

A

Activation of opioid receptors in the sacral spinal cord, leading to reduced parasympathetic outflow, detrusor relaxation, and increased bladder capacity.

68
Q

What are the risk factors for ventilatory depression with neuraxial opioids?

A

High dose, low lipid solubility, concomitant use of sedatives, lack of opioid tolerance, older age, high intrathoracic pressure, patient positioning.

Onset may be delayed (6–12 hours) after neuraxial morphine.

69
Q

What is the clinical significance of decreased level of consciousness (LOC) in opioid use?

A

Decreased LOC may be the most sensitive indicator of ventilatory depression.

70
Q

What is the duration of action for IM injection of morphine?

A

Onset: 15–30 min, Peak effect: 45–90 min, Duration: ~4 hours.

71
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of morphine?

A

Minimal risk of hypotension or myocardial depression in supine patients; risk of orthostatic hypotension when upright.

Bradycardia may occur from increased vagal tone.

72
Q

What is the potency of meperidine compared to morphine?

A

1/10th the potency of morphine.

73
Q

What is the primary metabolite of meperidine that poses a risk?

A

Normeperidine, which can cause CNS stimulation, myoclonus, seizures, and hallucinations.

74
Q

What are the key pharmacokinetics of fentanyl?

A

Potency: 75–125x more than morphine, Rapid onset, short duration, Hepatic metabolism, Renal excretion.

75
Q

What are the advantages of using fentanyl?

A

No direct myocardial depression, no histamine release, suppresses surgical stress response.

76
Q

What is sufentanil’s potency in relation to fentanyl?

A

5–10 times more potent than fentanyl.

77
Q

What is the clinical use of remifentanil?

A

Ideal for transient painful stimuli and preferred in neuro cases where rapid wake-up is needed.

78
Q

What is the unique characteristic of remifentanil’s metabolism?

A

Metabolized by nonspecific plasma/tissue esterases, leading to no cumulative effect.

79
Q

What is the primary use of naloxone?

A

Opioid overdose, post-op respiratory depression, neonatal depression, diagnostic for dependency.

80
Q

What is the side effect of naltrexone?

A

Not used for acute overdose due to delayed onset.

81
Q

Fill in the blank: The half-life of codeine is _______.

A

3–3.5 hours.

82
Q

What are the side effects associated with butorphanol?

A

Sedation, nausea, diaphoresis, less dysphoria than morphine, ventilatory depression.

83
Q

What is the duration of action for buprenorphine?

A

Long (IM = ~8 hours).

84
Q

What is the significance of the ceiling effect in nalbuphine?

A

It has a ceiling effect for respiratory depression, making it safer in some contexts.

85
Q

What is the primary use of Naltrexone (Revia)?

A

Long-term treatment for opioid or alcohol dependence

Naltrexone is administered orally and has a duration of up to 24 hours. It is not used for acute overdose due to its delayed onset.

86
Q

What is the structure of Nalmefene?

A

6-methylene analog of naltrexone

Nalmefene is used similarly to naloxone and has a dosing of 0.25 mg/kg IV over 2–5 minutes (max 1 mg/kg) with a duration of about 8 hours.

87
Q

What is the action of Methylnaltrexone (Relistor)?

A

Peripheral only – does not cross the blood-brain barrier

Methylnaltrexone is a quaternary opioid antagonist indicated for opioid-induced constipation (OIC) in chronic non-cancer pain and advanced illness (short-term, <4 months).

88
Q

What condition is Alvimopan (Entereg) indicated for?

A

Post-op ileus; accelerates bowel recovery after bowel resection

Alvimopan is used peri-operatively and has a risk of myocardial infarction with long-term use. It should be avoided in patients recently on chronic opioids.

89
Q

What is the mechanism of Naloxegol (Movantik)?

A

PEGylated naloxone derivative; peripherally acting

Naloxegol is indicated for the treatment of opioid-induced constipation.

90
Q

What are the effects of increased sympathetic tone?

A

↑HR, ↑BP

Increased sympathetic tone can be a response seen with N/V, especially with rapid IV push.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: Nalmefene dosing is ______ mg/kg IV over 2–5 minutes.

A

0.25

The maximum dosing for Nalmefene is 1 mg/kg.

92
Q

True or False: Methylnaltrexone crosses the blood-brain barrier.

A

False

Methylnaltrexone is designed to act peripherally and does not affect the central nervous system.

93
Q

What is the duration of action for Nalmefene?

A

Approximately 8 hours

Nalmefene is similar in use to naloxone but has a different dosing and duration.