Spinal Surgery Anesthesia Unit 1 Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Lateral rotation of the spine > 10° with vertebral rotation.

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2
Q

symptoms of adult scoliosis

A

back pain: arthritis, disc degeneration, spinal stenosis (worse standing)

radiculopathy: pinching of the nerve root at the spinal column

sciatica

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3
Q

What are the effects of thoracic spine scoliosis?

A
  • ↓ Chest wall compliance
  • Restrictive lung disease
  • ↓ exercise tolerance

Get PFTs!

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4
Q

With thoracic scoliosis, what preop exam can you do to assess for pulmonary HTN

A

Echo

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5
Q

Normal Values:
○Vt:

○Minute ventilation:

○Functional residual capacity :

○Forced vital capacity

○Forced expiratory volume FEV1:

○Peak Expiratory flow rate :

A

○Vt: 500 ml
○Minute ventilation: Vt x (# of breaths) 5-10 L
○Functional residual capacity : 3L
○Forced vital capacity 4.5 L
○Forced expiratory volume FEV1: 0.8 or 80&
○Peak Expiratory flow rate : 400-700 L/min

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6
Q

Thoracic scoliosis can lead to chronic _____ secondary to V/Q mismatch

A

chronic hypoxemia

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7
Q

Increased ____ is common in Thoracic scoliosis, especially with the occurrence of Cor Pulmonale.

A

pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

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8
Q

____ _____ is a condition in which the right side of the heart becomes enlarged and weakened due to increased pressure in the pulmonary arteries.

A

Cor Pulmonale

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9
Q

What changes to you see on an EKG with an enlarged right ventricle and an enlarged right atrium

A

right axis deviation:

a large R wave in the right precordial leads (V1 and V2)

and a deep S wave in the left precordial leads: (V5 and V6)

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10
Q

What EKG/cardiac findings might one suspect to find on a scoliosis patient? (Select all that apply)

a. RVH
b. RAE
c. LVH
d. Bi-atrial enlargement

A

a & b

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11
Q

Corrective surgery for thoracic scholiosis, you expect large blood loss r/t (7)

A

● Surgical technique
● Operative time
● Number of vertebral levels fused
● Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
○Will be using surgical
hypotension technique
● Platelet abnormalities
● Dilutional coagulopathy
● Primary fibrinolysis

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12
Q

Spinal cord injury:

What muscles would you expect to be affected by a C5 injury?

A
  • Partial diaphragmatic paralaysis
  • Deltoids
  • Biceps
  • Brachialis
  • Brachio-radialis
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13
Q

Innervation from (___ - ___) keep the diaphragm alive

A

C3-C5

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14
Q

What are the hemodynamic consequences of injuries T5 and higher?

A

Physiologic Sympathectomy
- ↓BP
- ↓HR

  • tx midodrine
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15
Q

____ - ____ are the cardiac accelerators

A

T1-T4

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16
Q

Injuries are higher than T1-T4 and the pt has bradycardia. What medications will you give?

A

jump straight to epinephrine

anticholinergics like atropine and glycopyrrolate will not work

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17
Q

Autonomic Hyperreflexia is most often seen with complete cord transection above the ____ level.

A

T5/T6

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18
Q

With automonic hyperreflexia:

below the injury, there is ____

&

above the injury, there is ___

A

below the injury there is vasoconstriction –> severe transient HTN –> bradycardia & dysrhtyhmias

&

above the injury, there is cutaneous vasodilation

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19
Q

In autonomic hyperreflexia, cutaneous vasodilation is seen _____ the site of injury, whilst cutaneous vasoconstriction is seen ____ the site of injury.

A

above ; below

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20
Q

What is the basic pathophysiology of Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A

● Cranial nerve 9 (glossopharyngeal nerve) contributes to bradycardia in autonomic hyperreflexia by carrying sensory information from the carotid sinus baroreceptors to the brainstem, which then triggers a parasympathetic response via the vagus nerve (cranial nerve 10), leading to a decreased heart rate as a compensatory mechanism to the sudden rise in blood pressure associated with autonomic hyperreflexia.

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21
Q

What are the most common causes of Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A
  1. Distended bladder/bowel
  2. Noxious stimuli (think surgical pain)
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22
Q

What is the treatment for Autonomic Dysreflexia?

A
  1. Removal of stimulus
  2. Deepen anesthetic
  3. Direct-acting Vasodilators
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23
Q

Injury to C3-C5 results in….

A

Diaphragmatic respiratory failure

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24
Q

Is respiratory function affected by injury to C5-C7?

A

Yes; impairment of abdominal and intercostal respiratory support

  • impairment of expiration
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25
Q

Why is there an increased risk of pulmonary infection with cervical spine injuries (C5-C7)?

A
  • Inability to cough/ clear secretions
  • Atelectasis
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26
Q

What is poikilothermia?

A

Inability to maintain constant core temp

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27
Q

What is the pathophysiology of poikilothermia?

A
  • disruption of sympathetic pathways
  • Temperature sensation disruption
  • Inability to vasoconstrict below spinal cord injury
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28
Q

Spinal deformities are associated with _______ respiratory patterns, often necessitating PFT’s and an ABG.

A

Restrictive

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29
Q

There can be CV compromise in severe ____ requiring spine surgery

A

kyphoscoliosis

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30
Q

With spinal surgeries, you should assess/evaluate these 6 things

A

respiratory

cardiac

musculoskeletal (ROM/surgical positioning)

Neuro: sensor and motor deficits

Labs

cervical spine:
○C-collar: pre-op C-spine clearance
○Halo
○Cervical Spine Traction
○Assess and Document neuro deficits
○Atlanto-axial instability (C1&C2 stability)

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31
Q

Flaccidity in which two muscles would indicated possible cervical spine fracture?

A
  • Deltoids
  • Biceps
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32
Q

What is the greatest risk with a total sitting position?

A

VAE (Venous Air Embolism)

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33
Q

Do you commonly use NMBD in spinal surgery?

A

Not if you need to monitor SSEP/MEP/EMG

GETA most common

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34
Q

Spinal surgery:

Goals:

-avoid injury to (3)

A

Eyes

peripheral nerves

bony prominences

and maintain low venous pressure to surgical site

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35
Q

Cervical spine anterior approach position

A

supine

arms tucked/neutral position

head on a padded headrest

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36
Q

Cervical spine posterior approach positioning

A

prone

arms tucked neurtrally

head in mayfield device (pins)
*very stimulating make sure the pt is deep enough

37
Q

what is a prone table called

A

Jackson table

38
Q

An anterior approach for a thoracic spine procedure requires what position and equipment?

A
  • Lateral position with bag
  • Double Lumen ETT or bronchial blocker

May have to drop lung for access.

39
Q

A posterior approach for a thoracic spine procedure requires what position and equipment?

A
  • Prone with arms tucked or < 90° abduction
  • Single lumen ETT.

-gel headrest/prone view

40
Q

if you patient will be in the prone position for a period of time, what drug class should you consider giving in preop

A

anti-sialogogue

41
Q

Once you flip your patient to prone, what can you do to prevent accidental extubation and tube placement

A

add corrugated adaptor and asses for _ BL breath sounds

42
Q

What are the three causes of postoperative vision loss secondary to prone positioning?

A
  • Ischemic Optic Neuropathy (ION)**
  • Retinal artery/vein occlusion
  • Cortical brain ischemia
43
Q

T/F. Ischemic optic neuropathy occurrence requires direct pressure placed on the eyes?

A

False. Can occur without direct pressure.

*Occurs due to ↓ blood flow or O₂ delivery.

44
Q

What are risk factors for ION?

A
  • Male
  • Obesity
  • Wilson Frame Use
  • > 6 hour surgery
  • ↓ colloid usage
  • Blood loss > 1000 mL
45
Q

about how long does crystalloids stay in the vascular space?

A

20-40 mins

46
Q

What is castillo’s rule of thumb as to when you should switch from a crystalloid to a colloid

47
Q

What is the typical onset of ION?

A

24 - 48 hours

48
Q

What are the symptoms of ischemic optic neuropathy (ION)?

A

Bilateral
- Painless vision loss
- Non-reactive pupils
- No light perception

** make sure to assess pupils in preop so you know if there has been a change

49
Q

What are the treatments for ION?

A
  • Acetazolamide: diuretic
    -diuretic (loop)
  • Corticosteroids
  • increasing BP or Hgb
    -Hyperbaric O₂
50
Q

What is it called when blood supply to the entire retina is decreased or an occlusion of the retinal arterial branch

A

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

51
Q

What time of frame pictured below?

A

Wilson Frame

52
Q

What is this prone table called

A

Jackson spine table

53
Q

What are the respiratory effects of prone positioning?

A

↓ FRC
↓ compliance
increased WOB

Due to ↑ intrabdominal pressures → ↑ intrathoracic pressures.

54
Q

With prone position what happens to epidural veins?

A

increased intrathoracic pressure –> increased bleeding from epidural veins

55
Q

Does venous return increase or decrease in prone positioning?

56
Q

Which of the following positioning devices is the most stable?

A

Mayfield Tongs

57
Q

What cardiac consequences are there to prone positioning?
Why?

A
  • ↓ preload
  • ↓ CO
  • ↓ BP

Due to pooling of blood in extremities and compression of abdominal contents and muscles.

58
Q

What neurological consequences occur due to prone positioning if there is extreme head rotation?

A

↓ cerebral venous drainage and ↓ CBF

59
Q

memorize this chart

60
Q

What risk factors are there for increased blood loss during spinal surgery? (6)

A
  • Number of vertebrae
  • > 50 yo
  • Obesity
  • Tumor surgery
  • ↑ intrabdominal pressure
  • Transpedicular osteotomy
61
Q

What should you consider when deciding to transfuse spinal surgery patients? (4)

A

■ Consider comorbidities
■ Hemodynamic profile
■ Higher allowable blood loss
■ Hgb 7-8g/dL

62
Q

A cell saver can be used in the OR. What is it?

A

cell saver is a medical device that collects, processes, and returns a patient’s own blood during surgery or other procedures.

63
Q

When is autologous blood donation contraindicated in spinal surgery?

A
  • Significant cardiac disease
  • Infection
64
Q

When is autologous blood donation considered in spinal surgery?

A

when anticipated EBL 500-1000 mL

65
Q

What is the push dose of TXA?

What is the max of TXA?

A
  • 10 mg/kg IV

-2.5 g

66
Q

What is the infusion dose of TXA?

A

2 mg/kg/hr

*d/c infusion at the end of the procedure

67
Q

What is the push dose of aminocaproic acid (antifibrinolytic)?

Infusion dose?

A

Push dose: 100 mg/kg IV

Infusion: 10 - 15 mg/kg/hr (d/c at the end of the procedure)

68
Q

What is intraoperative hemodilution?

A

■Removal of 450-500mL blood after anesthesia induction
■Maintain normovolemia w/ crystalloid or colloid
■Then transfuse the blood back at the end of the procedures

69
Q

Neurophysiologic monitoring used in corrective surgery

-intraop wake-up test following completion of instrumentation to evaluate gross motor movement of UE & LE

complications include: (3)

A

○Inadvertent extubation
○Air embolism
○Violent movements → movement of instrumentation

70
Q

Somatosensory Evoked Potentials (SSEPs) are associated with what spinal column and sensations?

A

Dorsal column pathways (afferent)
- Proprioception
- Vibration

*impulse from peripheral nerve measured centrally

71
Q

Motor Evoked Potentials (MEPs) are associated with what spinal column and sensations?

A

Anterior/ Motor Column

*impulse triggered in brain –> monitored in specific muscle group (UE & LE)

72
Q

Adverse effects for MEP include: (6)

A

● Cognitive defects
● Seizures
● Intra-op awareness
● Scalp burns
● Cardiac arrhythmias
● Bite injuries:
○Soft bite block b/w molars
○Prevents tongue biting/dental injury

73
Q

MEP monitoring is contraindicated if (3)

A

patients with…

-active seizures
-vascular clips in the brain
-cochlear implants

74
Q

During spinal surgery, electromyogram (EMG) is used to monitor for what during pedicle screw placement and nerve decompression?

A

Monitor for nerve root injury.

75
Q

What is an SSEP?

A

Impulse from a peripheral nerve that is measured centrally.

76
Q

What are Motor Evoked Potentials (MEPs)?

A

Impulse triggered in the brain (centrally) and monitored in specific muscle groups.

77
Q

Differentiate amplitude and latency in regards to neurophysiologic monitoring.

A

Amplitude: signal strength
Latency: time for signal to travel through spinal cord.

78
Q

What physiologic factors commonly can affect amplitude and latency of neurophysiologic monitoring?

A
  • Hypothermia
  • Hypotension
  • Hypocarbia
  • Hypoxia
    -Anemia
  • Volatile agents
79
Q

How do VAAs affect neurophysiologic agents?

A

Dose dependent
- ↓ amplitude
- ↑ latency

** can avoid this by using TIVA

80
Q

Out of the following drugs, which affects our MEPs the most?
- Opioids
- Midazolam
- Ketamine
- Propofol

A

Propofol depresses MEPs.

The others have little effect on MEPs.

81
Q

If you have to use VAA at what dose do you run them at for MEP monitoring

A

@ 0.5 MAC

  • avoid N2O: decreased amplitude; eliminate during MEP monitoring
82
Q

How much does muscle relaxant requirements increase when using MEPs?

A

Trick question. No muscle relaxants after intubation.

83
Q

if there are acute changes in amplitude/latency during monitoring what are the 3 things you should consider

A

d/c surgery

check BP –> (normal to 20% baseline)

decrease or d/c volatile agents

84
Q

4 things that may signal that you need post-op ventilation after spinal surgery

A

■Prolonged procedures
● > 4 hrs → assess for edema
○Leak test
●Consider extubating over tube
exchanger

■Thoracic cavity invasion
■EBL > 30 mL/kg or > 2000mL
■Facial/laryngeal edema

85
Q

Multimodal approach for pain management for postop pain w/ spinal surgeries include…

A

-PCA pumps
-wound local anesthetic infiltration
-intrathecal morphine
-epidural
-peripheral nerve block

** avoid NSAIDS (ex: ketorolac)

86
Q

Continuous epidural infusion for postop pain management includes what considerations

A

○Double epidural techniques for multiple levels
○Consider initial dose of opioids rather than local anesthetic
○Hydromorphone PF (preservative free) 0.5-1 mg

87
Q

What type of nerve block might be used for spinal surgery?

A

Erector Spinae block

88
Q

During what surgery is venous air embolism at its greatest risk of happening?

A

Laminectomies
- Large amount of exposed bone
- Surgical site above the heart

89
Q

What are some s/s of VAE?

A
  • Unexplained ↓BP
  • ↑ EtN₂
  • ↓ EtCO₂