Orthopedic Anesthesia: Unit 1 Module 1-2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two biggest factors associated with development of osteoporosis?

A
  • Elderly age
  • Menopause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormonal changes are characteristic of osteoporosis?

A
  • ↑ PTH
  • ↓ Vit D
  • ↓ HGH
  • ↓ Insulin-like growth factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four most common meds used to treat osteoporosis?

A

dronate drugs
- Fosamax (Alendronate)
- Actonel (Risedronate)
- Boniva (Ibandronic Acid)
- Reclast (Zoledronate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Differentiate between Bouchard’s nodes and Heberden’s nodes.

A
  • Bouchard’s = proximal interphalangeal joints
  • Heberden’s = distal interphalangeal joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drug is the most common chondroprotective agent that helps protect the articular joint?

A

Glucosamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What anesthetic considerations should be given to glucosamine?

A

Glucosamine needs to be stopped two weeks prior to surgery due to PLT aggregation inhibition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Arthritis characterized by morning stiffness that improves throughout the day is….

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arthritis that is characterized by worsening symptoms throughout the course of the day is…

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What labs are typically elevated in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • ↑ Rheumatoid factor (RF)
  • ↑ Anti-immunoglobulin antibody
  • ↑ C-reactive protein (CRP)
  • ↑ Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What common dose of stress dose glucocorticoid is used for RA patients?

A

50mg hydrocortisone (Solu-cortef)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What two TNFα inhibitors are commonly used to treat RA?

A
  • Infliximab
  • Etanercept
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following drugs treat RA?
- Methotrexate
- Hydroxychloroquine
- Sulfasalazine
- Leflunomide

A

Trick question. All of them do
- Methotrexate
- Hydroxychloroquine
- Sulfasalazine
- Leflunomide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What airway concerns should be considered with RA patients?

A
  • Limited TMJ movement
  • Narrowed glottic opening
  • Cricoarytenoid arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the most instability typically located in the cervical spine of RA patients?

A

Atlantoaxial Junction

(be careful not to displace the odontoid process and impinge on the c-spine or vertebral arteries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of atlantoaxial subluxation?

A
  • Headache
  • Neck pain
  • Extremity paresthesias (especially with movement)
  • Bowel/bladder dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of vertebral artery occlusion?

A
  • N/V
  • Dysphagia
  • Blurred Vision
  • Transient LOC changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What ocular syndrome is typical of RA patients?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

(Dry eyes and mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What pulmonary issues are associated with RA?

A
  • Interstitial fibrosis
  • Restricted ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of ventilatory settings would be utilized for an RA patient exhibiting a restrictive ventilatory pattern?

A

Pressure Control @ 5mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What artery is typically injured due to pelvic fractures? Where is the bleeding located in this instance?

A

Iliac artery → retroperitoneal space bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the typical worst complication of long bone fractures?

A

Bone marrow fat embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What technique is used for intubation of a patient who has c-spine concerns?

A

MILS

Manual In-Line Stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the MILS technique

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase and limits the availability of Vitamin K throughout the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the mechanism of action of LMWH?

A

LMWH binds to antithrombin thus → no thrombin → no fibrinogen forming into fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some typical triggers for delirium? (11)

A
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypotension
  • Hypercarbia
  • Sleep Deprivation
  • Hypervolemia
  • Infection
  • Electrolyte abnormalities
  • Pain
  • Benzos
  • Anticholinergics
  • Circadian Rhythm disruption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

FEV₁ decreases by ___% for each decade of life.

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What occurs with closing volume as we age?

A

Closing volume increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the goal of regional anesthesia vs general anesthesia?

A

Avoid:

  • DVT
  • PE
  • EBL
  • Respiratory complications
  • Death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

With placement of what device is fat embolism syndrome most likely to occur?

A

Femoral Medullary Canal Rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the s/s Triad of fat embolism syndrome?
When do s/s typically present?

A
  1. Dyspnea
  2. Confusion
  3. Petechiae

Typically presents in 12 - 72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What lab findings are noted with fat embolism syndrome?

A
  • Fat macroglobulinemia
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • ↑ ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is ESR? What are normal values for males and females?

A
  • Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
  • Male: 0 - 22 mm/hr
  • Female: 0 - 29 mm/hr
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What minor s/s can be construed to characterize fat embolization syndrome?

A
  • Fever
  • ↑HR
  • Jaundice
  • Renal Changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the anesthetic management techniques for fat embolization syndrome?

A

Supportive Therapy
- 100% FiO₂
- No N₂O
- IV Heparin
- CV & Resp support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What factors contribute to the development of DVT’s? (7)

A
  • Lack of Prophylaxis
  • Obesity
  • > 60yrs old
  • > 30min procedure
  • Tourniquet use
  • > 4 days immobilization
  • > Lower extremity fracture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which three surgery types present the greatest risk for DVT formation?

A
  • Hip surgery
  • TKA
  • Lower extremity trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When does LMWH need to be initiated?

A

12 hours preop
or
12 hours postop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Can neuraxial anesthesia be done after LMWH 40 mg (qD) has been given?

A

Yes, if 12 hours after the dose.

Delay next dose 4 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Can an epidural be placed in a patient on LMWH anticoagulation therapy twice daily?

A

No. Neuraxial catheter NOT okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Neuraxial catheters must be removed ___ hours before the intiation of LMWH therapy (twice daily dose).

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Can a patient have neuraxial anesthesia if on warfarin?

A

Only if the INR is ≤ 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can you give the next dose of warfarin after DCing neuraxial catheter?

A

2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When can you give the next dose of heparin after DCing neuraxial catheter?

A

1 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When can you give the next dose of Fondaparinux (Arixtra) 2.5 mg or 5-10 mg SQ qd after DCing neuraxial catheter?

A

6-12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When can you give the next dose of Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

1 mg/kg SQ bid

or 1.5mg/kg SQ qd (full dose)

after DCing neuraxial catheter?

A

24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When can you give the next dose of Lovenox (40 mg SQ qd) after DCing neuraxial catheter?

A

6-8 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

indwelling catheters are contraindicated with antithrombotic agents except 1 traditional anticoagulant

A

heparin

antithrombotic agents are contraindicated with indwelling catheters when taking

OTHER TRADITIONAL ANTICOUGULANTS:
-warfarin, fondaparinux lovenox

DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITORS:
-Argatroban, Bivalirudin (ANGIOMAX), Lepirudin (Refludan), Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

oral antiplatelet agents

GP IIB/IIIA inhibiors

Thrombolytic agents

Apixaban (Eliquis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking warfarin if….

A

INR < 1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Heparin full dose IV if….

A

aPTT < 40 after holding medication for 2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Heparin minidose (5000 u) SQ BID if….

A

No contraindication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking heparin (minidose 5000 u SQ TID) if….

A

aPTT < 40 or 6 hrs after the last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking heparin full dose (>5000 u SQ BID or TID) if….

A

aPTT < 40 or 6 hrs after the last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Fondaparinux (Arixtra) <2.5 mg SQ qd (prophylaxis) if….

A

36-42 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Fondaparinux (Arixtra) 5-10 mg SQ qd (full dose) if…

A

contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

1 mg/kg SQ bid or

1.5mg/kg SQ qd (full dose)

if…

A

after 24 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A spinal injection or catheter placement can be done after taking Lovenox 40 mg SQ qd (prophylaxis)

A

12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Flip card for Anticoagulation guidelines for Neuraxial procedures.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Flip card for additional Anticoagulation guidelines for Neuraxial procedures.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What advantages does neuraxial anesthesia present in the prevention of DVT’s?

A
  • ↑ extremity venous blood flow (sympathectomy).
  • LA systemic anti-inflammatory properties.
  • ↓ PLT reactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the maximum dose of TXA? (Tranexamic Acid)

A

2.5 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is typical dosing of TXA?

A

10 , 15, or 30 mg/kg

1000mg is typical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tourniquet pain typically begins ___ minutes after application.

A

45 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The width of a tourniquet must be greater than ____ its diameter.

A

½

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How long can tourniquets be placed on an extremity?

A
  • 2 hours is typically not exceeded
  • 3 hours is max.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What mmHg is typically used for thigh tourniquets?

A

300 mmHg
(or 100 mmHg > SBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What mmHg is typically used for arm tourniquets?

A

250 mmHg
(or 50 mmHg > SBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When utilizing a double tourniquet, it is important to remember to…

A

inflate proximal → deflate distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What occurs with tourniquet deflation?

A
  • Transient lactic acidosis
  • Transient Hypercarbia
  • ↑ HR
  • ↓ pain
  • ↓ CVP, BP, & temp
    -increased minute ventilation
    -metabolic acidosis
    -hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Prolonged inflation of tourniquet > 2 hrs can lead to …

A

nerve injury
-risk of ischemia & rhabdomyolysis

-mechanical trauma

** minimize risk by deflating the tourniquet 20-30 mins to allow for reperfusion

71
Q

What are some important points of assessment necessary for upper body procedures preoperatively?

A
  • Baseline vitals: BP and HR
  • Airway
  • Pre-existing nerve conduction issues
  • Examine pupils
72
Q

Most common reasons for shoulder surgery (4)

A
  • Rotator Cuff Tear
  • Subacromial Impingement
  • Glenohumeral Instability
  • Labral Tear
73
Q

two most common positions for shoulder surgery

A

beach chair and lateral decubitus

74
Q

What are the cardiac consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?

A
  • ↓ CO & BP
  • ↑ HR & SVR

Due to pooling of blood in lower body.

75
Q

What are the respiratory consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?

A
  • ↑ FRC & lung volumes
76
Q

What are the neurologic consequences of sitting/Beach Chair position?

77
Q

How is venous air embolism prevented in a beach chair patient?

A

↑ CVP (above 0) to prevent a “suction” effect

78
Q

VAE: air enters the right ventricle interfering iwth blood fow into the pulmonary artery causing pulmonary ____ & reflex ____

A

pulmonary edema and reflex bronchoconstriction

79
Q

VAE: air may reach the cerebral and coronary circulation via a patent ___ ____

A

foramen ovale

80
Q

In what percent of the population is a patent foramen ovale present?

81
Q

How does one treat venous air embolism?

Besides prevention…

A
  • Inform surgeon → irrigation & occlusive dressing
  • DC N₂O if being used
  • Bilateral compression of jugular veins (prevent neuro consequences)
  • Place patient in head down position to trap in right atrium
  • Withdraw air through right atrial catheter
  • CV collapse will need tx with pressor
  • & Resp support
82
Q

The ultrasound transducer is being utilized to located venous air embolism in a patient. Where do you place the probe?

A

2ⁿᵈ - 3rd ICS right of sternum

Over the Right Atrium

83
Q

Though ultrasound over the right atrium is the most sensitive indicator of VAE (venous air embolism), the most definitive is….

84
Q

The characteristic sound of a VAE is a _____________ murmur.

A

“Mill-Wheel” murmur

85
Q

What would be an indicator of a sudden decreased perfusion to the lungs?

A

↓ EtCO₂

86
Q

________ of the neck in a sitting position patient can accidentally extubate them.

A

Hyperextension

87
Q

In a sitting position patient, where would one zero their art line?

A

Tragus of the ear

Establishes knowledge of brain BP & thus perfusion.

88
Q

What are ocular conditions do we want to avoid due to the hypotension inherent to the sitting position?

A
  • Retinal Ischemia
  • Ischemia Optic Neuropathy

Also avoid corneal abrasion.

89
Q

There is a 40cm distance from the patients heart to their brain. The patient’s BP measured on the arm is 120/70. What is the estimated BP in the brain?

A

40cm x 0.77mmHg = 30.8mmHg

120 - 30.8 = 89.2mmHg
70 - 30.8 = 39.2mmHg

The patient’s brain BP is 89/39 Thus indicating hypotension and necessary correction.

90
Q

A standing patient’s NIBP on the arm is 134/92. The distance between the patient’s knee and the NIBP cuff is 120cm. What is the BP in the patient’s knee?

A

120 x 0.77 = 92.4

134 + 92
92 + 92

Patient’s “knee” BP standing up is 226/184

91
Q

What is the Bezold-Jarisch reflex?

A

Cardiac inhibitory reflex resulting in signification HoTN & ↓HR.

r/T venous pooling (decreased preload) & hypercontractile ventricle

  • can prevent by giving zofran upfront
92
Q

What are possible complications of a brachial plexus block?

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • Horner Syndrome (SE)
  • Hoarseness
  • Dysphagia –> aspiration
93
Q

Why can respiratory depression occur with brachial plexus blocks?

A

Hemidiaphragmatic Paresis from Phrenic nerve blockade.

94
Q

What is the triad of Horner Syndrome?

A
  • Ptosis
  • Miosis
  • Anhydrosis
95
Q

Postop concerns for shoulder surgery (3)

A

assess for nerve injury

pain management (opioid/regional)

delirium/confusion (elderly)

96
Q

What commonly regional blocks do elbow surgeries require?

A

infraclavicular and axillary

** The brachial plexus block might not cover the elbow

97
Q

What are the cardiac consequences of a lateral decubitus position? (2)

A

*Cardiac output remains unchanged unless venous return is obstructed (e.g. kidney rest).

*Arterial BP may fall as a result of decreased vascular resistance (right side > left side).

98
Q

What are the respiratory consequences of a vented pt in lateral decubitus position?

A

(VQ mismatch)
- ↓ ventilation of dependent lung.
- ↑ perfusion of dependent lung.

  • further decreases in dependent lung ventilation with paralysis and open chest
99
Q

During mechanical ventilation in left lateral decubitus patient, which lung is overventilated?

A

Right lung (nondependent lung)

100
Q

During mechanical ventilation in left lateral decubitus patient, which lung more perfused?

A

Left lung (dependent lung)

101
Q

What are the respiratory consequences of pt in lateral decubitus position who is spontaneously breathing?

A

increased ventilation of dependent lung (no V/Q mismathc)

102
Q

Where is an axillary roll placed on a lateral decubitus patient?

A

Caudad to the axilla to avoid compression of the neurovascular bundle.

** axillary roll displaces the head of the humerus against the brachial plexus (stretch and compression)

103
Q

How is the upper arm placed during lateral decubitus?

A

the upper arm can rest on pillows or be placed in a padded support bar ( Allen arm rest), making sure not to stretch the brachial plexus

104
Q

how should the neck be in lateral decubitus?

A

keep the neck in normal alignment via shea, pillow, or donut

** check that there is no pressure on the dependent eye and that the dependent ear is flat against the head.

105
Q

How should the legs be positioned while in lateral decubitus?

A

-pillow placed btw the knees,

-dependent leg should be flexed slightly to pad bony prominences and lessen stretch on nerves.

** check breast and genitalia is free of pressure as well

106
Q

When using an inflated bingbag during lateral decubitus, what effects does it have on respiration?

A

pushing abdominal contents cephalad –> decreased Vt & FRC and increases closing volume

107
Q

Where should a pulse oximeter be placed in a lateral decubitus patient?

A

Dependent hand to ensure that there is no neurovascular compromise

108
Q

Elbow surgeries need what additional block (in comparison to shoulder surgeries) ?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve

  • most commonly missed
109
Q

When a surgery requires a tourniquet what all do you need to document?

A
  1. inflation and delfation time
  2. total inflated time
  3. inflation pressure and any changes
110
Q

Post op considerations for elbow surgery

A

-Pain management: (opioids/ NSAIDS/regional)

-immobility

111
Q

Preop considerations for forearm to hand surgeries (4)

A
  1. preexisting nerve conduction issues
  2. fracture?
  3. Nerve impingement
  4. Traumatic amputation
  5. Typical assessment: head to tow or system to system
112
Q

Positioning for forearm/hand surgeries

A

Supine w/ hand table

113
Q

What blocks are used for forearm/hand surgeries

A

Axillary (supplement musculocutaneous nerve) & Bier block

114
Q

Postop considerations for forearm/hand surgeries

A

pain management and immobilization

115
Q

Is a patient with a hip fracture induced on the OR table or on the bed/stretcher?

A

Bed/Stretcher to avoid pain from movement to OR table.

116
Q

Hip fracture mortality for

-initial hospitalization

-1 year

A

-initial hospitalization: about 10%

-1 year 25-30%

117
Q

Why is the morality rate much higher at 1 year for hip fractures?

A

immobility and sedentary life style significanlty increases the risk of

-Cardiac and pulmonary conditions

-DVT

-Delirium

118
Q

Preop: hip fracture (6)

A

Pain management
*Early surgery = lower pain
scores
Intravascular fluid status
Hgb & Hct
Central line & arterial line?
Baseline VS
*SpO2 on room air
Full stomach?

119
Q

What is the position for hip fracture surgeries?

A

supine with fracture table

120
Q

Postop consideration for hip fractures (4)

A

pain managment

mental status

blood transfusion

ICU admission?

121
Q

What are the benefits of neuraxial anesthesia for hip fracture repairs?

A
  • ↓ delirium
  • ↓ DVT
  • ↓ hospital stay
  • Better pain control
122
Q

Preop: total hip arthroplasty (4)

A

-mental status (confusion/delerium)

-Labs: H&H/anti-coagulation

-medications

-typical assessment

123
Q

Etiology: total hip arthroplasty (8)

A

Osteoarthritis

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Degenerative Synovium or Cartilage Disease

Avascular Necrosis

Tumors

Congenital Deformity

Dislocation

Failed Reconstruction

124
Q

What are the three life-threatening complications of total hip arthroplasty?

A
  • BCIS: bone cement implantation syndrome
  • Hemorrhage (Intra and postoperative)
  • VTE
125
Q

What is the position for THA?

A

Lateral decubitus

-operative side up, padding, axillary roll

126
Q

What are the benefits of neuraxial anesthesia for Total hip arthroplasty?

A

-decreased EBL
-Decreased DVT and PE incidence
-Decreased incidence of postop delirium

*Most hips get a spinal with hydromorphone or doromorph

127
Q

Is muscle relaxation required in THA?

128
Q

What chemical is bone cement?

A

PolyMethylMethAcrylate (PMMA)

129
Q

What does bone cement do when introduced to the intramedullary bone surface?

A

Release heat and pressurize (Intramedullary HTN >500mmHg!)

This can lead to possible embolization of fat, bone marrow, and cement.

130
Q

If cement is systemically absorbed, what happens?

A

-vasodilation, decreased SVR –> HoTN

-Plt aggregation: r/t tissue thromboplastin release

-Microthrombus in lungs

-CV instability

131
Q

Prevention of BCIS (5)

A

o Minimize hypotension & hypovolemia

o Maximize FiO2 (100%) & SpO2

o Vent hole in femur

o Lavage of femoral shaft

o Avoid bone cement

132
Q

S/S of BCIS (5)

A

hypoxia

hypotension

arrhythmias

pulmonary HTN

Decreased CO

133
Q

What is the anesthetic management of BCIS?

A
  • ↑ FiO₂
    -Maintain euvolemia
    -Manage HoTN with vasopressors
134
Q

What are the most common complications post THA? (5)

A

-Cardiac events

-PE

-Pneumonia

-Respiratory failure

-infection

135
Q

Indications for hip arthroscopy (4)

A

Femoro-acetabular impingement
Acetabular labral tears
Loose bodies
Osteoarthritis

136
Q

Positioning for hip arthroscopy

A

supine w/ weighted traction

other equipment

137
Q

What are the 8 pressure points you worry about when pt is in the supine position?

A

-Toes
-heel
-thighs
-sacrum
-elbow
-humerous
-vertebrae
-occiput

138
Q

What are the cardiac physiological changes when a pt is lying supine?

A

*equalization of pressures throughout the arterial system

*increased right-sided filling and cardiac output

*decreased heart rate and peripheral vascular resistance (PVR)

139
Q

What respiratory physiological changes occur in supine ?

A

*Gravity increases perfusion of dependent (posterior) lung segments

*abdominal viscera displace diaphragm cephalad

*FRC decreases (~800 mL) and may increase/fall below CV (closing volume) in older patients

*further exacerbated by an enlarged abdomen such as with obesity, pregnancy, or ascites.

140
Q

In a supine position, spontaneous ventilation favors _______ lung segments, whilst closing volume favors ________ lung segments.

A

Dependent ; independent

141
Q

The most common postoperative peripheral neuropathy is:
a. Ulnar neuropathy
b. Brachial plexus injury
c. Median nerve injury
d. Sciatic nerve compression

A

a. Ulnar Neuropathy

142
Q

Where are the two major sites of injury in ulnar nerve injury?

A

Elbow at the condylar groove and cubital tunnel.

143
Q

How is the condylar groove formed?

A

*the medial epicondyle of the humerus

*the olecranon process of the ulna.

*The ulnar nerve is shallow at this point pre-disposing to compression injury, especially in males where there is less protective adipose tissue

144
Q

How is ulnar nerve injury avoided?

A

Supinate hands (palms up!)

145
Q

Preop hip dislocation (4)

A

NPO status
Comorbidities
Intravenous fluid status
Require closed reduction

146
Q

What common drugs are often used for “conscious sedation” of a hip dislocation?

A

Ketamine/Propofol Mix
Succinylcholine

147
Q

Postop management of hip dislocation

A

Pain management

mental status

  • may be admitted for observation
148
Q

Positioning for knee arthroscopy

A

supine with knee flexed

149
Q

is neuraxial anesthesia common for knee arthroscopy?

A

No, it is a quick procedure and neuraxial can delay discharge

usually sedation with extraarticular and intraarticular injections

150
Q

Post op pain management is typically what for knee arthroscopy?

A

peripheral nerve block or injections by the surgeon

151
Q

Preop: Total knee arthoplasty

A

Mental status
*Confusion/delirium
Labs
*Hgb & Hct
*Coagulation
Medications
Typical assessment

152
Q

Anesthesia management: TKA

-position

-general

-Neuraxial

-Peripheral nerve block (2)

-tourniquet applied:

A

-position: supine

-general

-Neuraxial: preferred * spinal

-Peripheral nerve block (2)
-femoral & sciatic

-tourniquet applied:
-blood loss begins w/d
deflation
-risk of peroneal nerve palsy

153
Q

What are the possible complications of tourniquet placement for knee surgeries?

A
  • Blood loss on deflation (note for 24hrs)
  • Peroneal Nerve Palsy
154
Q

What are the 4 artificial components to a TKA (Total Knee Arthroplasty) ?

A
  1. Tibial Component
  2. Femoral Component
  3. Patellar Component
  4. Plastic Spacer
155
Q

There is significant post op pain after a TKA. What are some pain management considerations?

A

indwelling epidural catheter

continuous peripheral nerve block

156
Q

What three conditions (that anesthesia can control) are most often associated with wound infections?

A
  • Peri-operative glucose control
  • Post-op hypoxia
  • Post-op hypothermia
157
Q

What are techniques that can be implemented to decreased risk of wound infections in the OR? (4)

A

-Decrease traffic in and out of the OR

-prep & drape

-preop abx

-use of hoods

158
Q

Preop: amputation

A

comorbidities:
-diabetics: FBS
-pressure ulcers

Full sensory assessment

psychological support

159
Q

positioning for amputation

A

supine

** make sure there is appropriate padding for obese and cachectic pts

160
Q

is general or neuraxial anesthesia preferred for amputation?

A

neuraxial dt decreased incidence of delirium and potentially less phantom pain

161
Q

When can phantom pain occur after amputation

A

a few days of surgery

** can feel like shooting, stabbing, squeezing, burning, or throbbing pain (C-fibers and A-delta fibers)

162
Q

what are some triggers for phantom pain?

A

weather changes

emotional stress

pressure on the remaining area

163
Q

What are some causes of phantom pain? (5)

A

 Remapping of circuitry
 Damaged nerve endings
 Scar tissue
 Physical memory
 Pain prior to amputation

164
Q

TX of phantom pain

A

biofeedback

relaxation

massage

TENS unit

medication

165
Q

What medication classes can be used to treat phantom pain from amputation?

A
  • Neuroleptics
  • Antidepressants
  • Na⁺ channel blockers
166
Q

What position is the pt in for an achilles tendon repair?

A

lateral or prone

** all other ankle/foot procedures are usually done supine

167
Q

Ankle and foot procedures can be done with three different anesthetic approaches. What are they

A

General, neuraxial or regional

168
Q

What are the 5 nerves that innervate the foot?

A

Posterior tibial nerve

Saphenous nerve

Deep peroneal nerve

Superficial peroneal nerve

Sural nerve

169
Q

What nerve innervates the plantar surface?

A

Posterior Tibial nerve

170
Q

What nerve innervates the medial malleolus?

A

Saphenous nerve

171
Q

What nerve innervates the interspace between the great & 2ⁿᵈ toes?

A

Deep Peroneal nerve

172
Q

What nerve innervates the space between the dorsum of the foot and the 2ⁿᵈ - 5th toes?

A

Superficial peroneal nerve

173
Q

What nerve innervates the lateral foot and lateral 5th toe?

A

Sural nerve

174
Q

Postop management for foot/ankle surgery

A

pain management

immobilization

*typically outpatient surgery