Non-Operating Room Anesthesia (NORA) Flashcards

1
Q

What type of anesthetic is recommended for cerebral coiling?

A

GETA w/ arterial line and large bore IV.

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2
Q

what standard?

pt’s rights: autonomy, privacy, safety

A

1

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3
Q

what standard?

Pre-anesthesia assessment/eval

A

2

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4
Q

what standard?

Transfer of Care (GA needs appropriate recovery)

A

11

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5
Q

what standard?

infection control

A

10

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6
Q

what standard?

patient posiitoning

A

8

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7
Q

what standard?

monitoring/alarms

A

9

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8
Q

what standard?

pt specific plan

A

3

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9
Q

what standard?

documentation: accurate, timely, legible

A

5

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10
Q

what standard?

informed consent

A

4

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11
Q

what standard?

Equipment: verify functioning

A

6

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12
Q

What standard?

Plan/modification of plan

*CRNA provides anesthesia care until the responsibility has been accepted by another professional

A

7

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13
Q

what are the five components of modified aldrete scoring system?

A

○ 1. Respirations
○ 2. Oxygen Saturation
○ 3. Consciousness
○ 4. Circulation
○ 5.Activity

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14
Q

Post Anesthesia Discharge Scoring System 5 components

A

○ 1. Vital signs
○ 2. Surgical bleeding
○ 3. Activity & mental status
○ 4. Intake & Output
○ 5. Pain/Nausea/Vomiting

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15
Q

Conscious sedation or
General anesthesia?

responsiveness: purposeful response to verbal or tactile stimulation

A

conscious sedation

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16
Q

Level of sedation:

■Responds to verbal commands
■Anxiolysis

A

minimal

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17
Q

Level of sedation:

■Responds to painful stimuli
■Independent ventilation may be impaired

A

deep

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18
Q

Level of sedation:

■Responds to verbal/tactile stimulation
■Depressed LOC

A

moderate

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19
Q

at what point dose conscious sedation turn into general anesthesia?

A

●If a patient loses consciousness and the ability to respond purposefully, the anesthesia care is a general anesthetic

does not matter if patient is still maintaining their own airway

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20
Q

Conscious sedation or
General anesthesia?

airway: intervention often required

A

GA

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21
Q

Conscious sedation or
General anesthesia?

spontaneous ventilation: frequently inadequate

22
Q

Conscious sedation or
General anesthesia?

cardiovascular function: usually maintained

A

conscious sedation

23
Q

increased ETCO2 has what effect in the brain and in the lungs?

A

cerebral vasodilation

lungs: vasoconstriction

24
Q

What type of anesthetic and recommended for abdominal aneurysms?

A

large bore IV

a-line

foley catheter

controlled mild HoTN

frequent ACTs (heparin/protamine)

25
Q

What does TIPS stand for

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt

26
Q

The shunt that is placed in a TIPS procedure connects what two veins

A

hepatic vein to portal vein

27
Q

the catheter is fed through what vein to place the shunt in a TIPS procedure

A

internal jugular vein

28
Q

With liver patients what do you need to think about when picking your anesthetic plan?

A

decreased protein binding

29
Q

TAVR stands for

A

transcatheter aortic valve replacement

29
Q

Induction approach for TIPS patients

A

RSI and GETA

30
Q

If you suspect moderate blood loss in a procedure, do you want to get a type and cross or a type and screen?

A

type and cross

31
Q

What is most important in prevention of radiation damage, shielding or distance?

32
Q

What parenteral drugs are thrombin fXA? (2)

A

Heparin

LMWH

33
Q

What parenteral drug(s) works on fXA?

A

fondaparinux (arixtra)

34
Q

These are anesthesia considerations for what procedure?

■Bite block, Cetacaine spray (preop cough?)
■Standards still apply!
■Propofol till loss of gag/lash reflex (keep them breathing!)
■Versed/Ketamine alternative - NO LIDOCAINE

A

cardioversion

be prepared for multiple attempts w/cardioversion

*synchronized cardioversion: 50-100 J

35
Q

How do direct thrombin inhibitors work?

A

Antagonizes thrombin to prevent fibrinogen → fibrin

36
Q

What laboratory test will measure Pradaxa’s (Dabigatran) effects?

37
Q

What drug(s) is/are Factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
  • Apixaban (Eliquis)
  • Edoxaban (Savaysa)
38
Q

What is the MOA of Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Prevents cleavage of prothrombin → thrombin

39
Q

What drugs can reverse the effects of coumadin?

A

Vitamin K
FFP

40
Q

What drugs reverse the effects of direct thrombin inhibitors and factor Xa inhibitors?

A
  • Factor concentrates
    3 (II,IX,X) OR 4 (II,VII,IX,X)
  • PCC: prothrombin complex
41
Q

What is the effect of CO₂ levels on cerebral blood flow?

A

Hypercapnia = Increased CBF

42
Q

What procedure is done to diagnose/tx biliary and pancreatic disorders

A

ERCP: endoscopic retorgrade cholangiopancreatography

43
Q

what is the pt position for ERCP?

A

Prone with head turned to side

*GETA recommended

44
Q

Tx of spasm of oddi

*prevention: avoid narcotis

A

all given IV

-Glucagon 2mg
-naloxone: 40 mcg
-atropine 0.2 mg
-nalbuphine 10 mg
-NTG: 50 mcg

45
Q

What are the physiologic responses after electro-convulsive therapy?

A

■Initial parasympathetic activity
■10-20 minute sympathetic stimulation
■Incontinence
■Myalgias (may last for 2-7 days)
■Headache
■Emergence agitation/confusion

46
Q

Anesthesia implications for ECT: (7)

A

■Pre-op eval.. Pregnancy test
■General Anesthesia
-Bag valve mask (Ambu) with
bite block
-Atropine/Glycopyrrolate :
given to counteract the
initial PSNS response
-Brevital (not used anymore),
Propofol, & Anectine
-Caffeine (to avoid
headaches afterwards)
■Hyperventilation
■Protection of extremities
■Ativan, haldol on standby (if pt becomes manic)
■Treat HTN w/ short acting B-blockers
■IVs discontinued in PACU (even if in pt)

47
Q

ablation effectiveness on 1st attempt?

48
Q

What surgery has this cons associated with the procedure?

●Often lengthy (2-6 hours)
●Often uncomfortable
●May induce V-tach and V-fib intra-op

49
Q

What VA should you avoid using for an ablation?

A

ISO

●ISO increases refractoriness, making it difficult for interpretation
●SEVO no effect… acceptable for ablation (DOC for general anesthesia for ablation