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H&S > Specific stuff following practice > Flashcards

Specific stuff following practice Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of schools in child mental health promotion?

A
  • Ensure all students have equal access to learning
  • Look out for signs of poor mental health or behavioural issues and alert parents
  • Attempt strategies to manage behaviour and support children
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2
Q

What is the role of a health visitor in child mental health promotion?

A
  • Provide support and someone to talk to
  • Offer advice on lifestyle, diet, exercise, healthy eating, hygiene and day to day living
  • Tell parents about other roles that may be useful
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3
Q

What is the role of social services in child mental health promotion?

A
  • Provide initial assessments in areas where they have specialist skills, e.g. behavioural issues
  • Provide reports to courts and child mental health services
  • Provide mental health consultations and training to other services (e.g. schools)
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4
Q

What is the role of an educational psychologist in child mental health?

A
  • Tackle problems with learning difficulties, social or emotional problems
  • Provide reports for children for allocation to specialist education places
  • Work with individual children, e.g. observing, assessing, counselling
  • Advise teaching staff on special considerations and how to meet a child’s needs
  • Facilitate group work in schools, e.g. social/anger management skills
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5
Q

What does an independent mental health advocate do?

A
  • Allocated worker to support patient
  • Allows them to express their views and concerns, and helps defend their rights
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6
Q

What does a second opinion appointed doctor do?

A

Used to give supportive second opinion on treatment or sectioning

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7
Q

What is an approved mental health professional?

A
  • Usually a psychiatrist, but can be a social worker, CPN, etc
  • Someone with specialist training in mental health who makes application for sectioning
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8
Q

What is a Section 12 approved doctor?

A

A doctor, usually a psychiatrist, who has been approved under the MHA to carry out sectioning

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9
Q

What is the nature of a mental health condition?

A

The history of the condition

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10
Q

What is the degree of a mental health condition?

A

The current manifestation of a condition

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11
Q

What does a Section 2 do and for how long does it last?

A

Allows detention of an individual for assessment for up to 28 days

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12
Q

What does a Section 3 do and how long does it last?

A
  • Allows detention of an individual in hospital for treatment for 6 months
  • Must be reviewed at 3 months
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13
Q

What its required for a Section 3?

A

Patient must have a specific diagnosis

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14
Q

Who can apply for a Section 2/3?

A

Must be applied for by AMHP & approved by 2 doctors (one must be section 12 approved) = 2 independent doctors

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15
Q

What does a Section 4 do, how long does it last and when is it used?

A

Allows detention in hospital for emergency assessment for 72 hours when a Section 12 doctor can’t be obtained quickly

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16
Q

When its a Section 5(2) used, what’s its duration and who would use it?

A
  • Used by a doctor when they don’t think a patient should leave a locked ward
  • Lasts 72 hours
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17
Q

When is a Section 5(4) used, who would use it and what’s its duration?

A
  • Used by a nurse when they don’t think a patient should leave a locked ward
  • Lasts 6 hours
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18
Q

What does a Section 135 do, who would use it and how long does it last?

A
  • Used by police to detain someone and take them to a safe place when they are suffering from a MH disorder at home
  • Lasts 36 hours but can be extended
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19
Q

What does a Section 136 do, who would use it and how long does it last?

A
  • Used by police to detain someone and take them to a safe place when they are suffering from a mental health disorder in public
  • Lasts 24 hours but can be extended by 12 hours
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20
Q

Roles of MDT?

A
  • MANSG
  • Management plan, audits, new diagnoses, specialist nurse, guidelines
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21
Q

What its the key statutory guidance for child protection?

A

Working together to safeguard children 2018

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22
Q

What relevant Sections to child protection are there in the Children’s Act 1989?

A
  • Section 17
  • Section 44
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23
Q

Describe section 17 of the Children’s Act 1989?

A
  • If child in immediate danger give safeguarding referral to local authorities/police
  • this is what you do
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24
Q

Describe Section 44 of the Children’s Act 1989?

A
  • EPO
  • Child taken to safe place/can’t be removed from safe place by local authority
  • Lasts 8 days
25
Q

Do you have to inform parents if you’re going to make a child protection referral?

A

Ideally but not if it risks child

26
Q

What is the Healthy Child Programme?

A
  • A policy introduced to ensure healthy development of children and screen for abuse
  • Conception-5 (health visitor)
  • 5-19 (school nurse)
27
Q

What does the healthy child programme look at?

A
  • Obvious things (e.g. smoking, alcohol, obesity)
  • Oral health
  • Vaccines
  • Family MH
28
Q

Examples of children’s health promotion?

A
  • Healthy Child Programme
  • Vaccines and screening
  • Change4Life
  • Free dental checkups
  • Free schools meals
  • Target vulnerable children
29
Q

Causes of squint?

A
  • Down’s
  • Cerebral palsy
  • Retinoblastoma
  • Neonatal jaundice
  • Family history
  • Facial abnormality
30
Q

Leading causes of UK blindness?

A
  • ARMD
  • Glaucoma
  • Cataracts
31
Q

Leading causes of global blindness?

A
  • ARMD
  • Cataracts
  • Diabetic
32
Q

What childhood hearing tests are commonly done?

A
  • AOAR ( and ABSR)
  • Pure tone audiometry
  • Generalised SaL milestones
33
Q

Prevention of hearing loss?

A
  • Vaccination
  • Knowledge of ototoxic drugs
  • Avoid loud music
  • Protect ears during loud events
  • Avoid insertion of foreign bodies into ear
34
Q

What are the aspects of a suicide risk assessment?

A
  • SADPERSONS
  • Sex (male)
  • Age (30-40)
  • Depression
  • Previous attempts
  • Ethanol
  • Rational thinking (lack of)
  • Social support (lacking)
  • Organised plan
  • No spouse
  • Sickness (chronicity)
35
Q

What are the 2 types of clinical reasoning?

A

1) Intuitive (quicker)
2) Rational (longer more reasoned; hypothetical deductive reasoning)

36
Q

What is the ceiling of care?

A

The predetermined maximum level of care that is deemed appropriate for a patient by a medical team, aligning with patient and family wishes, values and beliefs

37
Q

What are the levels of care?

A

0) 8:1
1) 4:1
2) 2:1 (HDU)
3) 1:1 (ICU)

38
Q

What are 3 scoring systems used to assess fitness for surgery?

A
  • ASA
  • POSSUM
  • Lee’s Revised Cardiac Index
39
Q

What does the ASA predict?

A

The likelihood of intra- and post-op complications

40
Q

What does Lee’s predict?

A

Likelihood of intra- and post- op cardiac complications from non-cardiac surgery

41
Q

What does POSSUM predict?

A

30 day mortality from any surgery

42
Q

Why are WHO surgical checklist used?

A
  • Prevent never events
  • Cost effectiveness
43
Q

When are WHO surgical checklists used?

A
  • Before anaesthetising
  • Before cutting skin
  • Before patient leaves the room
44
Q

Role of surgical brief and debrief?

A
  • Make sure everyone knows roles, make sure correct patient, make sure correct procedure
  • Reflect on surgery, what went well, room for improvement and near misses
45
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Female, age (>70/post menopausal) hyperparathyroidism, alcohol, smoking, sedentary lifestyle, steroids, thin, early menopause, low testosterone, renal failure, bone disease, drugs, diet

46
Q

Examples of primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention of osteoporosis?

A
  • Primary: vit D supplements, education on risk factors, weight training
  • Secondary: bisphosphonates, reduce falls risk
  • Tertiary: hip replacement
47
Q

Screening of osteoporosis?

A
  • FRAX
  • DEXA
  • Q-risk for fracture
48
Q

What are the yellow flags for back pain?

A
  • Belief back pain is due to serious underlying condition
  • Negative attitude that back pain is severely disabling
  • Fear avoidance behaviour
  • Want passive treatment over active treatment
  • Unsupportive family
49
Q

What are some community support groups for patients with neuro conditions?

A
  • Parkinsons UK
  • Headway
  • Dementia UK
  • Stroke Association
50
Q

Epilepsy and the DVLA?

A
  • 1st seizure: 6 months
  • 2nd seizure: 12 months
  • HGV: 5 years
  • Withdrawing epilepsy medication: 6 months
51
Q

What is the doctrine of double effect?

A
  • It’s ok to give a morally good treatment with a morally bad side effect, if the side effect wasn’t intended
  • This is true even if you were aware the bad effect would happen
52
Q

What is required for the Doctrine of Double Effect to be applied?

A
  • Action must be proportional to cause
  • Action must be appropriate
  • Good outcome must be achieved independently of bad outcome
  • Patient must have terminal illness
53
Q

Problems with doctrine of double effect?

A
  • We should anticipate the consequences of out actions
  • Intention is irrelevant
  • Death is not always a abad thing so doctrine is irrelevant
54
Q

What is the definition of palliative care?

A

A medical approach to improve a patient’s quality of life through symptom management and assessing their emotional, spiritual and psychosocial needs without attempting to cure or prolong life

55
Q

What are the aims of palliative care?

A
  • SEPIA
  • Support patient and family
  • Ensure patient remains active as long as possible
  • Provide pain relief/symptom management
  • Integrate spiritual and psychosocial needs
  • Affirm life and treat dying as normal
56
Q

What are the 3 end of life tools?

A
  • Gold standard framework
  • Amber care bundle
  • Supportive and Palliative Care Indicator Tool
57
Q

What are the 3 triggers in the GSF that suggest a patient is nearing the end of life?

A
  • Surprise question: would you be surprised if they died in weeks/months/days?
  • General indicators of decline
  • Specific clinical indicators
58
Q

What are the 7C’s of the gold standard framework?

A

Communication, coordination of care, control of symptoms, continuing support, continued learning, carer and family support, care in final days

H&S (5 decks)

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