Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPLEX - Micro/Immuno > Specific Immunity > Flashcards

Specific Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Function of T lymphocytes?

A

cellular immune response and regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of all leukocytes do eosiinophils comprise?

A

1-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When B cells encounter antigen, they differentiate into ____ and produce _____.

A

plasma cells; antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of WBCs do neutrophils comprise?

A

40-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cytotoxic T cells have which type of co-receptor?

A

CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first step in the complement cascade that combines the two pathways?

A

C3 activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cytokine stimulates the growth of helper T and NK cells?

A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Monocytes comprise what percent of all leukocytes?

A

2-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T-cell glycoproteins: What is the CD3 complex?

A

a cluster of polypeptides associated with a T-cell receptor. It is important in signal transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which Ig isotype is found in secretions?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which major cytokines re produced by macrophages? (3)

A

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name two markers present on T helper cells.

A

CD3, CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What influence doe gamma interferon have on MHCI and II?

A

upregulates MHCI and II in all cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do TNF-alpha and TNF-beta do? (3)

A

increase IL-2 output and B-cell proliferation, attract neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The amino terminal is part of which fragment of the antibody?

A

fab fragment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where do B-lymphocytes mature?

A

bone marrow (B= bone marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is secreted in the granules of a basophil? (2)

A

heparin (anticoagulant), histamine (vasodilator), other vasoactive amines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which cytokines promote the growth and differentiation of B cells? (3)

A

IL-4, IL-5, TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What recognizes endogenously synthesized (viral or self) proteins that are presented by MHC I?

A

TCR on cytotoxic T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the tissues, monocytes differentiate into which cells?

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CD4 cell secretes which growth factor to activate the CD8 cells?

A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which Ig isotype guards the mucous membranes from attachment of bacteria and viruses?

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name two markers present on cytotoxic T cells.

A

CD3, CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The classic pathway is initiated by which Ig isotypes?

A

IgM or IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which co-stimulatory signal is needed for a helper T cell to be activated by MHC II on an APC?

A

B7 (protein on APC) and CD28 (receptor on helper T cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of an eosinophil?

A

defend against heminthic and protozoan infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Primary granules in a neutrophil are called?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the term called when the antibody prevents bacterial adherence?

A

neutralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CD4 on helper T cells bind to what?

A

MHC II on antigen-presenting cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In an environment with a lot of IL-12, naive helper T cells will mature to which helper T cell?

A

Th1 cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which markers identify T cells? (2)

A

TCR and CD3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do primary granules in a neutrophil contain? (4)

A

hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase and lactoferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which cytokine stimulates the synthesis of IgA?

A

IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T-helper cells secrete which cytokines? (4)

A

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, gamma interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does CD stand for?

A

cluster of diffrentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the causes of eosinophilia? (6)

A

neoplastic, asthma, allergic processes, collage vascular diseases, parasites (NAACP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the effects of the cytokines produced by macrophages? (4)

A

causes the liver to make more complement; fever; mobilizes neutrophils from bone marrow; helps T-cells migrate to lymph nodes and mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which interleukin is an endogenous pyrogen?

A

IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which is the physically largest antibody isotype?

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which cytokine stimulates the synthesis of IgE and IgG?

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What marker disappears when B cells become anergic?

A

IgM is internalized in anergic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

B lymphocytes are part of the ______ immune response.

A

humoral

43
Q

Why do Th1 cells produce IL-2 and gamma-interferon?

A

to activate macrophages (increase killing efficiency of intracellular bacteria) and CD8 cells

44
Q

What does a lack of C1 esterase cause and why?

A

angioedema-which is basically overactive complement.

45
Q

Eosinophils are highly phagocytic for _________.

A

antigen-antibody complexes

46
Q

Which Ig isotype induces the release of mediators from maast cells and basophils when exposed to an antigen?

A

IgE

47
Q

Why does an antibody activate complement? (2)

A

to enhance opsonization and lysis

48
Q

What does C3a do?

A

think A for inflAme-anything that ends in ‘a’ acts to increase the inflammatory response. C3a leads to anaphylaxis, along with C5a.

49
Q

Name four types of cells that T cells differentiate into.

A

cytotoxic, helper, suppressor, delayed hypersensitivity

50
Q

Which helper T cell is involved in cell-mediated immunity?

A

Th1 cell

51
Q

Which cells secrete IL-2?

A

helper T cells

52
Q

Which growth factor induces the maturation from naive helper T cell to Th2 cell?

A

IL-4

53
Q

Which part of the light and heavy chain recognizes the antigen?

A

variable part

54
Q

What is the main antibody in a second response to an antigen?

A

IgG

55
Q

What markers are present on B-lymphocytes? (2)

A

CD19 and CD20

56
Q

T cells mature in the _______.

A

thymus

57
Q

Which cytokine stimulates eosinophil production?

A

IL-5

58
Q

What cytokines are responsible for the acute phase response? (3)

A

IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha

59
Q

IgE stimulates which type of hypersensitivity reaction?

A

type 1

60
Q

IL-4 and IL-5 are released from Th2 to activate what type of cell?

A

b cell

61
Q

The constant part of the heavy chain of IgM and IgG does what?

A

fixes complement

62
Q

The hypervarible region is a component of which fragment of the antibody?

A

fab fragment

63
Q

Which enzyme in neutrophils creates the free radicals which kill bacteria?

A

NADPH oxidase

64
Q

The helper T cell is activated to produce which two cytokines in cell-mediated immunity?

A

IL-2 and gamma-interferon

65
Q

T/F: The nucleus of basophil is trilobed.

A

false, bilobed

66
Q

Monoblasts are progenitors of _______.

A

monocytes

67
Q

Which helper T cell is involved in antibody-mediated immunity?

A

Th2 cell

68
Q

C3b does what?

A

think B for binding-anything that ends in b acts to opsonize bacteria

69
Q

Which type of cell is more sensitive to anergic stimulus?

A

T cells

70
Q

CD4 are on which type of T cells?

A

helper T cells

71
Q

Is a neutrophil response consistent with acute or chronic inflammation?

A

acute

72
Q

Which Ig isotype crosses the placenta?

A

IgG

73
Q

IL-1 by itself causes what effects? (5)

A

fever, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T and B cells neutrophils, fibroblasts and epithelial cells

74
Q

Cytoplasm of monocyte looks like _________.

A

frosted glass

75
Q

What is the shape of the nucleus of an eosinophil?

A

bilobed

76
Q

What do alpha and beta interferon do?

A

degrade viral mRNA, thereby inhibiting viral protein synthesis.

77
Q

What is the shape of monocyte nucleus?

A

kidney shaped

78
Q

Which cytokines act to attract neutrophils? (2)

A

IL-8 (major) and TNF-alpha (minor)

79
Q

When is IgM produced?

A

primary response to an antigen

80
Q

What is the purpose of interferons?

A

interferons interfere in viral infection of cells and replication. They also activate NK cells to kill infected cells.

81
Q

What is the difference between TNF-alpha and TNF-beta?

A

TNF-alpha is secreted by macrophages and TNF-beta is secreted by T lymphocytes. Their functions are similar.

82
Q

What is the purpose of opsonizaation?

A

the antibody promotes phagocytosis

83
Q

Th 1 secretes which growth factor to activate CD8 cells?

A

IL-2

84
Q

Why does complement act preferentially against gram bacteria?

A

complement initiators like to bind to carbohydrates, so gram-bacteria are noticed more than others.

85
Q

How does the acute phase reaction cause a fever? (3)

A

IL-1 acts on the hypothalamus to increase body temp, fat is mobilized to increase energy, and muscle mass is used to create heat

86
Q

CD4 cell secretes which three cytokines to activate B cells?

A

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

87
Q

What is the shape of the nucleus of lymphocyte?

A

small, round, densely staining

88
Q

What are the function of macrophages? (20

A

phagocytize bacteria, cell debris and senescent red cells; scavenge damaged cells and tissues.

89
Q

Which substances activate the aternate pathway?

A

everything else (other than IgG and IgM) -endotoxins, microbial surfaces, IgA, etc.

90
Q

What does a lack of C3 cause?

A

severe and recurrent pyrogenic infections of the sinuses and UR tract, because C3 is the first common step in both pathways

91
Q

Gamma interferon is secreted by which helper T cell to activate macrophages?

A

Th1 cell

92
Q

IL-2 from the helper T cell activates which cell to kill virus-infected cells?

A

cytotoxic T cell

93
Q

Which isotype fixes complement but does not cross the placenta?

A

IgM

94
Q

Which Ig isotype fixes complement, crosses the placenta, opsonizes bacteria, and neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses?

A

IgG

95
Q

Class ___ MHC molecules present antigen to CD ____ positive cytotoxic T cells.

A

class I; CD8

96
Q

Class ____ MHC molecules present antigen to CD ____ positive T helper cells.

A

class II; CD4

97
Q

Name two markers for NK cells.

A

receptors for MHC I, CD 16

98
Q

What kind of bacteria does complement act against?

A

gram negative

99
Q

In what pathologic condition are hypersegmented neutrophils seen?

A

B12/folate deficiency

100
Q

Which Ig isotype has the lowest concentration in the serum?

A

IgE

101
Q

CD8 on cytotoxic T cells bind to what?

A

MHC I on virus infeted cells

102
Q

Why do Th2 cells produce IL-4 and IL-5?

A

to help B cells make antibody

103
Q

T-cell glycoproteins: When a cell first gets infected with a virus which three cells respond?

A

APC, B cell (through IgM BCR), and CD8 (through TCR and MHC I on infected cell)

104
Q

Exotoxins are ____ molecules presented by ____ on antigen-presenting cells to ____ cells which stimulate ____

A

Exotoxins are peptide molecules presented by MHC II on antigen-presenting cells to CD4+ T cells which stimulate antibody and memory B cell generation.

NPLEX - Micro/Immuno (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions