Special Population Considerations Flashcards

1
Q

over the last several decades, 1st trimester use of perscription medications increased over ___%

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

in general, medications should be ____ during pregnancy

A

avoided

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when to use medication during pregnancy (1)

A

when necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what percent of birth defects may be a result of a medication

A

2-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pregnant women are what is considered a ____ _____ in medicine

A

vulnerable population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most medications are not ____ for pregnancy

A

tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the placental barrier is a ______ membrane

A

semi-permeable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the placental barrier (2)

A
  1. site of metabolism for some drugs
  2. has protective effect on fetus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

drugs that have crossed the placenta enter the fetal umbilical cord via the _____

A

umbilical vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

40-60% umbilical venous flow goes to ___ ____

A

fetal liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

by entering the fetal liver prior, this allows for _____ ______ before entering fetal circulation

A

partial metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

factors affecting placental drug transfer (5)

A
  1. stage of placental/fetal development
  2. physiochemical properties of drug
  3. rate at which drug crosses placenta
  4. duration of exposure to drug
  5. distribution characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what type of drugs tend to readily diffuse across the placenta and enter fetal circulation?

A

lipophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

drug passage is dependent on (2)

A
  1. lipid solubility
  2. degree of ionization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

drugs of what size easily cross the placenta

A

250-500MW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

drugs of what size cross the placenta with difficulty

A

500-1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

drugs of what size are restricted from crossing the placecnta

A

> 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

certain transporters pump drugs back into maternal circulation and others are upregulated

A

drug transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what might affect the rate of transfer and amount transferred

A

protein binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

in some cases, like when using corticosteriods to simtulate fetal lung matuation the (fetus/mom) is the target of drug therapy

A

fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

corticosteroids stimulate

A

fetal lung maturation in expected preterm birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

by using corticosteroids it reduces the occurence of ____ _____ _____ _____

A

infant respiratory distress syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the period of optimal benefit for corticosteroids in preterm fetus’

A

24 hrs after dose, up to 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

other benefits of corticosteroids in fetus (3)

A
  1. decrease risk of inter-ventricular hemorrhage (brain bleed)
  2. decrease risk of systemic infections
  3. lower neonatal mortality rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the most important factor in premature fetus?

A

lung maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

antenatal steroids are

A

before birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what do antenatal steroids work on?

A

type II pneumocytes in alveoli of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does antenatal steroids do (2)

A
  1. increase maturation
  2. increase production of surfactant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

chronic maternal opioid use can lead to

A

dependence in the fetus (neonatal abstinence syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

associated risks of opioid use during pregnancy (7)

A
  1. preeclampsia
  2. increased risk of defects
  3. increased risk placental abruption
  4. problems with fetal growth
  5. miscarriage / stillbirth
  6. sudden infant death syndrome
  7. maternal cardiac arrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

teratogenicity allows you to (2)

A
  1. exert effects at certain stage of fetal development
  2. show dose-dependent incidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

substance or process resulting in characteristic set of malformations

A

teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

teratogenic mechanisms negative outcomes(4)

A
  1. direct effect on maternal tissues
  2. interference with oxygen/nutrients passage through placenta & rapidly metabolizing
  3. direct actions on processes of differentiation in developing tissues
  4. deficiency of a critical substance (enzyme inhibition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

a shit ton of development occurs in the fetus from ____ weeks

A

1-8ish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

gestation is divided into four stages, name then

A
  1. blastocyst
  2. organogenesis
  3. histogenesis and maturation
  4. labor and delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

days/weeks for gestation
1. blastocyst
2. organogensis
3. histogenesis and maturation
4. labor and delivery

A
  1. 0-16 days
  2. 17-60 days
  3. 2nd and 3rd triemester
  4. birth (duh)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

blastocyst (days, what occurs if exposed to teratogen)

A

0-16
teratogen exposure may result in pregnancy termination
ALL or NONE phenomena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

organogenesis (days, what occurs if exposed to teratogen)

A

17-60 days
teratogen exposure during stage can cause gross structural malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

histogenesis (what occurs, what happens if teratogen exposure occurs)

A

ongoing growth and fetal development
teratogen exposure = effects on growth and development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

examples of effects of teratogen exposure during histogenesis and maturation (3)

A

pre-term labor and delivery, IUGR, low birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

effects of teratogen exposure during labor and delivery stage

A

behavioral changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pitocin/fentanyl associated with decreased _____ in ____ ____ _____

A

suckling in skin to skin contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what was thalidomide perscribed for?

A

sleep aid and for nausea and vomiting, used for morning sickness in pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

when did thalidomide become OTC in Germany?

A

1957

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why did they approve thalidomide?

A

it worked in rats lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what was the adverse effect of thalidomide

A

phocomelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when was the first case of phocomelia reported?

48
Q

what is phocomelia?

A

congenital absence or underdevelopment of extremities. affecyed >10,000 children, ~50% survived

49
Q

what is thalidomide used for now?

A

first line for multiple myeloma

50
Q

when was the USFDA drug classification system established?

51
Q

how many categories in the FDA classification system?

52
Q

Classification of:
A
B
C
D
X

A

A: no risk on human studies
B: no evidence of risk on animal studies
C: risk cannot be ruled out, concerning animal data
D:positive evidence of human fetal risk, can be justified in certain circumstances
X: contraindicated in pregnancy

53
Q

the pregnancy letter category system is overly _____

A

simplistic

54
Q

how did they fix the pregnancy grading system?

A

pregnancy and lactation labeling (PLLR)

55
Q

PLLR assisted healthcare providers in what way?

A
  1. assess benefit vs risk
  2. changing content/format of information of drug labeling
56
Q

updated labeling categories (3)

A
  1. Pregnancy
  2. Lactation
  3. Females and Males of Reproductive potential
57
Q

meds pass through the breast milk via _____ _____

A

passive diffusion

58
Q

factors affecting distribution of breastfeeding/lactation and drug therapy

A
  1. breast milk is more acidic than plasma
  2. weakly acidic drugs less likely to pass through membrane
  3. meds that are high protein bound, low lipid solubility, or large molecular weight do not enter breastmilk
59
Q

drugs that are prescribed directly to ____ are usually safe

60
Q

doses transferred via breastmilk are ____ than therapeutic doses

A

much lower

61
Q

breastfed infants are generally not affected by medications with poor _____ bioavailability

A

oral (like insulin or heparin)

62
Q

to avoid interactions while breastfeeding, breastfeeding _____ to medication administration is good

63
Q

the greatest exposure to drug therapy during breastfeeding occurs within the ____ _____ ____ after med admin

A

first few hours

64
Q

drugs with longer half lives are more likely to maintain _____ levels in breastmilk

65
Q

how much of the medication dose transfers to infant while breastfeeding?

66
Q

what medications decrease breast milk volume

A
  1. dopamine agonists (bromocriptine)
  2. decongestants (Zyrtec, Claritin, Allegra)
  3. estrogens (contraceptives)
67
Q

bromocriptine is assosiated with maternal

A

death (from MI)

68
Q

what is lactmed

A

online website to see how medicines interact with infant through breastmilk

69
Q

what is the definition of a premature neonate (age)

70
Q

full term neonate

A

37-42 weeks

71
Q

postnatal age

72
Q

infant age

73
Q

pediatric child age

A

1-12 years

74
Q

pediatric adolescent age

A

13-17 years

75
Q

pediatric absorption factors to think about (3)

A
  1. blood flow at site of admin
  2. Skin thickness/hydration
  3. Gastric acid production
76
Q

blood flow at site of administration

A
  1. reduced muscle mass
  2. diminished peripheral perfusion
    (can result in erratic absorption)
77
Q

skin thickness and hydration

A

enhanced absorption with topical products

78
Q

gastric acid production

A

reduced in infants, increased pH in stomach (more basic)

79
Q

when do infants achieve adult gastric acid values

80
Q

when do preterm infants produce gastric acid

81
Q

what type of absorption is affected by gastric acid production

82
Q

distribution factors in neonate (3)

A
  1. higher percent of body weight in form of water
  2. extracellular water is increased
  3. total body fat is greater in full term vs preterm
83
Q

water soluble drugs will have an _____ volume of distribution in neonates

84
Q

adjust dose based on patients

85
Q

in lipophilic drugs adipose tissue acts as a _____ _____

A

drug reservoir

86
Q

if a preterm infant has a lower body fat there will be

A

increased risk for high serum concentration

87
Q

is protein binding increased or decreased in neonates and infants?

88
Q

a decreased amount of bound drug in infants and neonates means that there will be an _____ amount of free drug

89
Q

drugs given to neonates with jaundice displaces ______ from _______

A

bilirubin from albumin

90
Q

bilirubin entering the brain =

A

kernicterus

91
Q

is the liver mature at infant birth?

92
Q

why do we have a dosage schedule for children, aka not dosing children like “mini adults”

A

their livers are not fully developed - that would be bad

93
Q

if we dosed children like mini adults what would happen?

A

increased risk of drug toxicity

94
Q

what other major organ is immature at birth?

95
Q

how is the kidney immature at birth?

A

anatomically, functionally, nephrogenesis occurs til 35 weeks gestation

96
Q

Glomerular filtration rate in newborns important to knows (4)

A
  1. much lower in newborns than infants/children
  2. even lower in neonates before 34 wks gestation
  3. functional improves within 1st week of life
  4. drug dependent on renal function cleared SLOW in first weeks of life
97
Q

how does pediatric dosing work?

A

mg/kg or mg/m2

98
Q

when calculating a pediatric dose you DO NOT

A

exceed adult doses

99
Q

is there a standard dose for kids?

A

NO, calculated by body or surface area

100
Q

what are the types of pediatric oral liquids?

A
  1. Elixers
  2. suspension
101
Q

difference between an elixir and a suspension

A

elixer contains alcohol to help dissolve better. Suspension has undissolved particles… you gotta shake!!

102
Q

common volumes for oral liquids in pediatric doses

A

teaspoon = 5 mL
tablespoon = 15 mL

103
Q

what are 4 compliance considerations to tell parents when giving a child an oral medication

A
  1. use calibrated medication syringe - not a spoon lol
  2. choose a convenient dose forms and make a schedule
  3. educate when to re dose
  4. make sure they FINISH the antibiotic (if thats what theyre taking)
104
Q

does the functional capacity of organ systems decline as get older? if so what age do you think it starts?

105
Q

geriatric patients do not LOSE functions at an accelerated rate they ACCUMULATE more _______

A

deficiencies

106
Q

absorption in geratric patients is altered due to (3 things)

A
  1. altered nutrition habits
  2. increased consumption of OTC meds
  3. slower gastric emptying
107
Q

the altered absorption factors in geriatric patients are altered mainly due to

A

increased gastric pH

108
Q

distribution of medication in geriatric patients affected due to (a million things, name a few lol)

A
  1. decreased lean body mass
  2. decreased total and percentage body water
  3. increased percent body fat
  4. reduced concentration of serum albumin
  5. decreased blood flow
  6. decreased liver function –> 7. decreased metabolism
109
Q

metabolism of meds in geriatric patients is affected by

A
  1. capacity of liver does not consistently decline with age for all drugs
  2. greatest change in PHASE 1 REACTIONS - conjugation less affected
  3. decreased blood flow to liver and regeneration
110
Q

excretion of meds in geriatric patients is affected by

A
  1. age-related decline in renal function
  2. prolongation of half-life in drugs = accumulation
111
Q

are elderly at risk to experience an adverse drug reaction, if so why?

A

yes, they take a shit ton of drugs and dont know what half of them do, mix and match is fun in pill form!

112
Q

what are some potential explanations to adverse drug reactions? (other than fun pill mix and match)

A
  1. poly-pharmacy
  2. error in prescription
  3. error in drug use (noncompliance, cost, forgetfulness, etc)
  4. OTC meds
113
Q

prescribing cascade =

A

when you get a side effect to a med, and you fix it with a new med. then your new med causes a side effect so you get a med for the med that you were using to fix the side effect of the first med. works sometimes - not often lol there are better ways to avoid this problem.

114
Q

tips for managing polypharmacy (5)

A
  1. keep an accurate updated list
  2. inform doc of any supplements you start
  3. understand why you take the medication
  4. simplify meds, discontinue ones you don’t need
  5. take ALL AS PRESCRIBED
115
Q

promoting adherence in drug therapy in geriatric patients

A
  1. clearly label, easy open containers
  2. daily reminders
  3. ensure a support system is in place
  4. frequently monitor patients