AntiInflammatory, Antipyretic and Analgesic Agents Flashcards

1
Q

what is inflammation?

A

A normal body response

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2
Q

inflammation occurs in response to

A
  1. infection
  2. physical trauma
  3. noxious chemicals
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3
Q

Goals of inflammation (3)

A
  1. prevent damage from invading organisms
  2. set stage for tissue repair
  3. remove toxins
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4
Q

what released blood clotting proteins at wound sites

A

platelets

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5
Q

what secretes factors that mediate vasodilation and vasoconstriction

A

mast cells

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6
Q

what secretes factors that kill and degrade pathogens

A

neutrophils

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7
Q

what removes pathogens by phagocytosis? (2)

A

neutrophils and macrophages

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8
Q

what secretes hormones called cytokines that attract immune system cells to the site and activate cells

A

macrophages

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9
Q

the inflammatory response continues until the foreign material is ____ and the wound is ______

A

eliminated, repaired

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10
Q

the inflammatory response is ____

A

complex

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11
Q

name 4 inflammatory agents

A
  1. prostaglandins
  2. bradykinin
  3. histamine
  4. chemotactic factors
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12
Q

when healing is complete the inflammatory response usually _____

A

subsides

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13
Q

what is produced from almost all cells in the body

A

prostaglandin

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14
Q

what is derived from unsaturated fatty acids present in membranes

A

prostaglandins

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15
Q

prostaglandins work as ____ hormones

A

local

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16
Q

True or False: Prostaglandins produce locally and act locally

A

TRUE

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17
Q

what makes prostaglandins different from endocrine hormones?

A

prostaglandins produce locally and act locally, endocrine glands produce locally but act distantly

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18
Q

what acid are prostaglandins derived from?

A

arachidonic acid

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19
Q

arachidonic acid is a component of the ____ ______ _____ and is also ______

A

cell membrane phospholipid, proinflammatory

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20
Q

what separates arachidonic acid from plasma lipids in response to inflammatory stimuli

A

phospholipase A2

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21
Q

what is the starting point for inflammation?

A

phospholipase A2

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22
Q

phospholipase A2 is inhibited by _____ to reduce inflammation

A

steroids

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23
Q

once arachidonic acid is freed from the cell membrane can follow 1 of 2 pathways, what are they?

A
  1. Lipoxygenase
  2. cycloxygenase
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24
Q

lipoxygenase pathway includes

A

leukotrienes

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25
Q

cyclooxygenase

A

prostaglandins, thromboxanes, prostacyclines

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26
Q

thromboxanes are

A

procoagulant

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27
Q

prostacyclines are

A

anticoagulant

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28
Q

how many isoforms of cyclooxygenase exist?

A

2

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29
Q

what are the 2 isoforms of cyclooxygenase?

A

COX 1 and COX 2

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30
Q

COX 1 has two main functions, name them

A

Gastric protection, platlet function

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31
Q

COX 2 has 3 main functions, name them

A

pain, bone formation, fever

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32
Q

Do COX 1/2 have the same or different binding sites?

A

different

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33
Q

why is it important that COX 1/2 have different binding sites?

A

to allow for selective targeting

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34
Q

5 total functions of COX1

A

GI protection, platlet function, vascular homeostasis, reproductive and kidney functions, pain/fever/inflammation

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35
Q

4 total functions of COX2

A

pain/fever/inflammation, bone formation

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36
Q

vascular homeostasis is a function of

A

COX1

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37
Q

vascular homeostasis requires the production of (2)

A

Prostaclycin (PG12) and Thromboxane A2 (TX A2)

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38
Q

Prostacyclin (PG12) in vascular homeostasis is responsible for

A

producing vascular endothelium and works as an anticoagulant

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39
Q

Thromboxane A2 (TX A2) in vascular homeostasis is responsible for

A

Platelet production and pro-coagulation

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40
Q

3 primary functions of prostacyclin in vascular homeostasis

A
  1. keep platelets inactive
  2. prevent platelet aggregation
  3. promote vasodilation
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41
Q

3 primary functions of thromboxane A2 in vascular homeostasis

A
  1. activate platelets
  2. recruits platelets to site of injury
  3. promotes vasoconstriction
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42
Q

prostacyclin (PG12) inhibits _____ _____ secretion

A

gastric acid

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43
Q

PG2 and PGF2a stimulate

A

production of protective mucus in small intestine and stomach

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44
Q

what prostaglandin production is Cox-2 responsible for?

A

Prostaglandin E2

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45
Q

Prostaglandin E2 is responsible for (5)

A
  1. temp regulation
  2. pain
  3. inflammation
  4. bone healing
  5. vasodilation
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46
Q

COX-1 and COX-2 both impact (3)

A
  1. pain
  2. fever
  3. inflammation
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47
Q

COX-1 ONLY impacts

A
  1. GI protection
  2. platelet production
  3. vascular homeostasis
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48
Q

what are NSAIDs?

A

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

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49
Q

what are NSAIDs NOT?

A

steroids

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50
Q

true or false: steroids have powerful anti-inflammatory actions

A

TRUE

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51
Q

are NSAIDs stronger or weaker than steroids?

A

weaker

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52
Q

what are 2 pros to NSAIDs rather than steroids?

A
  1. long term therapy
  2. less toxic side effects
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53
Q

what is a toxic side effect from steroids?

A

hyperglycemia

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54
Q

what is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs

A

Competitive Cyclooxygenase inhibitors

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55
Q

what medication is the one exception in NSAIDs that are not competitve COX inhibitors?

A

aspirin

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56
Q

how do competitive COX inhibitors work?

A

by blocking the hydrophobic channel by which the substrate arachidonic acid accesses the active enzyme site

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57
Q

3 primary therapuetic effects of a competitive COX inhibitor?

A
  1. anti-inflammatory
  2. Analgesia
  3. Anti-pyrexia
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58
Q

What does COX inhibition do during its anti-inflammatory property?

A

COX inhibition decreases prostaglandin formation

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59
Q

do NSAIDs alone fix the underlying process or cause of the inflammation?

A

NO

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60
Q

if you wanted to treat chronic inflammation what should you do with your NSAID doseage?

A

increase it

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61
Q

NSAID dose increase =

A

more adverse side effects

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62
Q

what is thought to be responsible for analgesia?

A

COX2 inhibition

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63
Q

what are the most important prostaglandins involved in pain?

A

PGE2 and PG12

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64
Q

how does PGE2 work?

A

sensitizes nerve endings to actions of chemomediators released by inflammatory process

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65
Q

what is pain production by PGE2 and PG12 inhibited by

A

NSAIDs

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66
Q

True or False: NSAIDs have relatively equivalent efficacy

A

TRUE

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67
Q

NSAIDs are best for which pain?

A

muscular, bone, vascular

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68
Q

what type of pain are NSAIDs not good for?

A

visceral (abdomen/organs)

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69
Q
A
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70
Q

PGE2 synthesis leads to an elevated

A

set-point of anterior hypothalamus thermoregulatory center (cause of fever)

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71
Q

do NSAIDs inhibit or promote or inhibit PGE2 synthesis and release?

72
Q

do NSAIDs have an effect on normal body temperature?

73
Q

how are NSAIDs absorbed

A

near complete GI absorption. absorbed rapidly

74
Q

does food reduce the rate of absorption of NSAIDs

75
Q

does food reduce the extent of absorption

76
Q

where are most NSAIDs metabolized?

77
Q

NSAIDs with a short halflife

A

Diclofenac, ketoprofen, ibuprofen, indomethacin

78
Q

NSAIDs with a long halflife

A

Naproxen, sulindac, nabumetone, piroxicam

79
Q

most NSAIDs peak in

80
Q

What are 7 adverse effects to NSAIDs

A
  1. Nausea
  2. Vomiting
  3. GI distress
  4. Peptic Ulceration
  5. Bleeding
  6. HA & Dizziness
  7. Elevated LFT
81
Q

what medication might prevent adverse NSAID effects?

A

concomitant use of H2 receptor blockers or PPIs

82
Q

what is a way to decrease adverse NSAID effects

A

taking NSAIDs with food or milk

83
Q

How could NSAIDs cause possible bleeding?

A

stops platelets from sticking together

84
Q

the inhibition of vasodilation prostaglandins. Could decrease renal blood flow and GFR leading to tissue injury

A

Nephrotoxicity

85
Q

Nephrotoxicity leads to retention of

A

sodium and water

86
Q

what does sodium/water retention lead to

A

edema, HTN, increased creatinine, hyperkalemia

87
Q

What is an adverse effect with NSAIDs specifically for asthmatics?

A

hypersensitive reactions (rash, bronchospasm)

88
Q

How are COX-2 inhibitors unique?

A

in their selectivity

89
Q

how are COX-2 inhibitors unique in their selectivity?

A

they inhibit COX2 while leaving COX1 unaffected

90
Q

Pros of using a COX2 inhibitor

A

less GI bleeding, less dyspepsia, no effect on platelet function

91
Q

what are adverse effects to COX2 inhibitors

A

increase risk of cardiovascular thrombotic events (MI & Stroke)

92
Q

what medication is contraindicated in a patient with a sulfa allergy?

93
Q

indications for COX2 inhibitors

A

rheumatoid arthritis, osteoarthritis, acute pain

94
Q

COX2 agents

A

Celecoxib, Meloxicam

95
Q

what are two medications that were removed from market due to their double incidence of MI and CVA

A

Rofecoxib and valdecoxib

96
Q

what is aspirin?

A

irreversible inhibitor of COX1 at low doses

97
Q

reversible COX inhibitors include

98
Q

how does aspirin work?

A

by decreasing thromboxane A2

99
Q

when is aspirin considered anti-inflammatory?

A

high doses

100
Q

why is aspirin anti-inflammatory only at high doses?

A

it lacks significant COX-2 effect

101
Q

is aspirin a better anti platelet or a better anti-inflammatory?

A

anti platelet

102
Q

Aspirin has a higher relative specificity for COX-1 meaning that there is a higher risk

103
Q

Adverse GI effects are common due to (especially in high doses)

A

decreased mucus secretions

104
Q

More adverse effects to aspirin

A

Nausea, heartburn, dose-related GI bleeding, ulcer bleeding, gastric perforation

105
Q

How do you decrease GI side effects with aspirin?

A

co-administering aspirin with a PPI (prilosec, nexium, prevacid) OR enteric coated ASA

106
Q

cons of enteric coated ASA

A

may decrease antiplatelet function

107
Q

how long do you hold aspirin prior to surgery?

108
Q

is aspirin reversible or irreversible?

A

irreversible effect for life of plaetlet

109
Q

why do we use caution when combining ASA and NSAIDs

A

NSAIDs have a greater affinity for COX-1, it could antagonize the protective effects (anti-platelet) of ASA

110
Q

bronchospasms as a result of hypersensitivity from ASA are more common in patients with (3)

A
  1. asthma
  2. nasal polyps
  3. recurrent rhinitis
111
Q

in addition to bronchospasms in ASA hypersensitivity, what else could you see in a patient affected by this?

A

rash, rhinitis, edema, anaphylaxis & shock`

112
Q

aspirin is contraindicated in

113
Q

letting a child take aspirin could increase their risk of

A

Reye’s Syndrome

114
Q

Reye’s syndrome is (rapid/slow) progressing

115
Q

What are effects of Reye’s Syndrome

A

Liver Failure, Cerebral Edema, Death

116
Q

what is the mortality rate for Reye’s Syndrome

117
Q

Is ASA given more a secondary or primary prevention?

118
Q

A Secondary Prevention medication is something that

A

reduces the risk of that illness recurring immediately after (ex. MI and ASA)

119
Q

Primary prevention in medication

A

a preventative measure for people who meet the criteria to be at risk for the disease

120
Q

Tertiary prevention is

121
Q

a constellation of symptoms associated to a mild form of toxicity

A

Salicyilism

122
Q

When can Salicyilism occur?

A

pts with chronic use of large doses of ASA

123
Q

earliest signs of Salicylism toxicity

A

N/V, diaphoresis, sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus

124
Q

later symptoms of Salicylism toxicity

A

vertigo, hyperventilation, tachycardia, hyperactivity

125
Q

what type of kinetics do you want with ASA?

A

first order

126
Q

first order kinetics

A

rate of elimination is proportional to dose

127
Q

if you increase ASA doses, the metabolism becomes saturated and you begin following

A

zero order kinetics, causes increase of halflife

128
Q

zero order kinetics

A

fixed amount of drug metabolized per unit of time

129
Q

salicylic acid is a (weak/strong) acid

130
Q

Salicylic acid exists in a (charged/uncharged) form

131
Q

uncharged molecules can move easily across

A

cellular barriers

132
Q

Hallmarks of Acute Salicylate overdose

A

Hyperpnea, tachypnea, metabolic acidosis, tachycardia

133
Q

severe salicylate intoxication can cause

A

AMS, coma, death, hyperthermia

134
Q

what are the goals of treatment in acute salicylate poisoning

A

correct fluid and electrolyte balance and enhance excretion

135
Q

what do you administer to increase the systemic pH in acute salicylate poisoning?

A

Sodium Bicarbonate

136
Q

how does sodium bicarbonate work?

A

Alkalinization - it traps salicylate anions in the blood and within the renal tubule which limits diffusion to the CNA and facilitate excretion

137
Q

Acetaminophen is considered a (strong/weak) inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis

138
Q

what does Acetaminophen inhibit

A

prostaglandin synthesis in CNS

139
Q

what are the main effects of acetaminphen?

A
  1. analgesia (block pain impulse)
  2. antipyresis (inhibit hypothalamic heat regulation)
140
Q

what does acetaminophen not do?

A

anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet effect

141
Q

functions of analgesia and antipyresis start how long after taking tylenol?

A

analgesia - 5-10 min
antipyresis - 30 min

142
Q

how long does tylenol last

143
Q

IV acetaminophen is how much more expensive than oral

A

at least 10x

144
Q

adverse effects of acetominophen

A
  1. hepatotoxicity
  2. rash
145
Q

hepatoxicity can cause

A

hepatic necrosis and is high risk in pt with underlying disease

146
Q

does acetominophen have an adverse effect on the GI system?

147
Q

where is acetaminophen primarily absorbed?

A

small intestine

148
Q

what is the primary metabolism for acetaminophen?

A

hepatic metabolism

149
Q

where is most of acetaminophen conjugated?

A

the liver to inactive glucronidated or sulfated metabolite

150
Q

a small portion of acetaminopehn is hydroxylated to form

151
Q

NAPQI is a

A

highly reactive metabolite - can react with sulfhydryl groups and lead to liver damage

152
Q

maximum dose of tylenol

A

no more than 1 gram every 4 hours and no more than 4 grams every 24 hours

153
Q

what is the leading cause of drug-induced liver failure in the US?

A

acetaminophen

154
Q

Phase 1 (0-24 hours) of acetaminophen toxicity

A

N/V, general malaise, ASYMPTOMATIC

155
Q

Phase 2 (24-72 hours) of acetaminophen toxicity

A

RUQ pain, elevated liver enzymes, pronlonged PT

156
Q

Phase 3 (72-96 hours) of acetaminophen toxicity

A

hepatic necrosis, encephalopathy, coagulopathy, renal failure

157
Q

Phase 4 (4 days-2wks) of acetaminophen toxicity

A

complete resolution of hepatic dysfunction

158
Q

what graph is used for acetaminophen overdose?

A

Rumack-matthew nomogram

159
Q

treatment for acetaminophen overdose

A

N-acetylcysteine (NAC)

160
Q

how does NAC work?

A

maintains or restores glutathione levels and acts as a substrate for conjugation of NAPQI

161
Q

NAC reduces the extent of ____ injury

162
Q

when is NAC most effective

A

when given early (within 8 hours)

163
Q

is all inflammation temporary?

164
Q

are all causes of inflammation the same?

165
Q

a collection of disorders where the body is being damaged by its own immune system

A

autoimmune diseases

166
Q

autoimmune disorders require a combination of _____ and _____

A

anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents

167
Q

a group of medicines used in combination with anti-inflammatory medications to treat autoimmune diseases

A

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

168
Q

goals of DMARDs

A
  1. slow disease progression
  2. prevent further tissue damage
  3. induce remission
169
Q

traditional DMARDs (5)

A
  1. Methotrexate
  2. Hydroxychloroquine
  3. Leflunomide
  4. Sulfasalazine
  5. glucocorticoids
170
Q

Biologic DMARDs (7)

A
  1. adalimumab
  2. etanercept
  3. rituximab
  4. certolizumab
  5. golimumab
  6. infliximab
  7. abatacept
171
Q

methotrexate is a ____

A

folate acid antagonist

172
Q

how does methotrexate work?

A

inhibits cytokine production and purine nucleotide biosynthesis

173
Q

True or False: methotrexate is a immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory

174
Q

can methotrexate be combined with other agents

175
Q

side effects of methotrexate (4)

A
  1. mucosal ulceration
  2. nausea
  3. cytopenia
  4. liver function test elevation
176
Q

methotrexate is contraindicated in