SOPS 200 / 300 Flashcards

1
Q

What is minimum staffing number?

A

67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How long can minimum staffing drop?

A

No more than 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Can minimum staffing be suspended?

A

Yes, during a disaster or General/Emergency recall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BE136 in city response

A

Tandem with ME136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

WT133 in city response

A

Tandem with ME133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BE136 out of city response

A

All 4 personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

WT133 out of city response

A

Captain / ENGB qualified
Engineer / ENOP qualified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Within how long should a PIA be conducted?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 types of post incident analysis?

A

Tailboard
Informal
Company Level
Formal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When shall a formal PIA be conducted?

A

Multi alarm incidents
Major disaster
Unusual incidents
Injury to FF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should you consider a formal PIA?

A

Fatality
Unusual extinguishing problem
Unusual event
FF close call
Multi unit hazmat/USAR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should crews be notified of formal PIA?

A

Within 1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Level A staffing?

A

Non disaster, emergency less than 24 hours, staff reserves as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Level B staffing?

A

Major emergency/local disaster, 48 hours or less, emergency order in, all personnel report for duty, may staff reserves and OES, on duty crews remain on duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Level C staffing?

A

Regional disaster, greater than 48 hours, 2 platoon schedule, staff all reserves and OES, 3 personnel/1PM, emergency order in, all personnel report, on duty crews remain on duty, T8/R8, E3/WT, E9/HM tandem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should ICS be used?

A

3 or more companies or:
Direct 1:1 control not possible
Number of companies too great for communications
Complex interior operations
Immediate company coordination desired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is investigation mode?

A

Scene requires investigations, command function remains with first arriving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is attack mode?

A

Situation requires immediate action by all personnel to stabilize
Actions taken on command, then switch to TAC
Command to 2nd due unit
Standby team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is command mode?

A

Required by virtue of size, complexity, or potential
Strong direct command from the onset
Assignments on command
Accountability remains with officer
Give: Report on conditions, size up, name incident, define alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do we do transfer of command?

A

Face to face, then communicate transfer over radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Level 1 staging

A

1 block out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Level 2 staging

A

Staging location, assigned staging officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is Alpha?

A

Address side, unless tactical alpha assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is two in two out required?

A

Prior to IDLH entry on all incidents with no known rescues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many members is standby?

A

2 members, 1 may be assigned additional role as long as immediately available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Structure fire response

A

2 BC
3 ME
1 T
Inv
Amb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Commercial fire response

A

2 BC
4 ME
2 T
Inv
Amb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the standby teams call sign?

A

“Standby Team”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is RIC cache?

A

Spot light
Halligan
Axe
RIC bag
TIC
Search line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How often is RIC 360 performed?

A

Every 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is established by RIC after 360?

A

Rescue Action Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who oversees a RIC deployment

A

Rescue group supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What units should be requested after a MAYDAY?

A

2 closest OFD engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What tone signifies MAYDAY?

A

Alert tone 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does the RIC team enter the structure?

A

Eng 1st with rope bag
Cast 2nd, shoulder to shoulder with TIC
FFs irons, RIC bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

High rise 1st engine PDA

A

Fire attack / divisional control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

High rise 2nd engine PDA

A

Fire attack / protection systems / supply FDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

High rise 3rd engine PDA

A

Lobby control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

High rise 4th engine PDA

A

Exposure floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

High rise 1st truck PDA

A

Fire floor search and rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Engine high rise strip

A

Bundles
Lights
Axe and halligan
Cylinders
Knox keys
Sound phone
TIC
High rise bag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Truck high rise strip

A

TIC
Rope bags
Air cylinders
Pike poles
Sound phone
Knox keys
Irons
Lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When do we use warehouse PDAs?

A

Alarms or unknown fire location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Warehouse 1st engine PDA

A

Investigation / fire attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Warehouse 2nd engine PDA

A

360, RIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Warehouse 3rd engine PDA

A

Water supply, fire attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Warehouse 1st truck PDA

A

Forcible entry / ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who would pump sprinklers on warehouse fire

A

Unit from second alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Warehouse tool strip

A

Bolt cutters
Irons
Lights
TIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Direct channel and zones for warehouse fire?

A

8CAFIR1D
Zone 8 and Zone 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Explorer program age

A

15-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explorer meeting day and times

A

1,3,5 thursdays 1800-2100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Explore ride alongs

A

0800-2100, observes only, assist at capts discretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who may carry chemical agents?

A

Personnel designated by fire chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who do you report chemical agent discharge too? What do you do after?

A

Dispatch, OPD, supervisor

Memo, forward to BC, attach to image trend report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is an alert 1?

A

Ground emergency, station 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is an alert 2?

A

Airborne emergency, station 10 / 2 BCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is an alert 3?

A

Airplane crash, full ARFF response plus outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Who responds to N SAP

A

E8, T8, R8, E5, B1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who responds to S SAP

A

E3, WT, E9, HM, E6, T1, B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Who handles alarms or fires in terminals?

A

Station 10, with outside assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When should we consider securing a supply line?

A

Visible evidence of structure fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What lines are used for interior attacks?

A

1 3/4” 2 1/2”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Can you lay a supply line on other reported fires? Can you use other attack lines on other reported fires?

A

Yes, capt discretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who coordinates a relay pumping operation?

A

Water resource officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the units involved in relay pump operation?

A

Supply, relay 1,2,3, attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What size line do we use for relay pump?

A

4”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Other pumping specifics for relay pumping?

A

pressure mode, 200 PSI, residual 10 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What PPE required for TC?

A

Brush jacket, vest, helmet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What PPE required for extrication?

A

Full turnouts, eye protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When can a brush jacket and particulate mask be worn for overhaul?

A

No longer IDLH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What may operating engineers wear on structure fire?

A

Brush jacket and helmet (full turnouts for standby)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When must seatbelts be worn?

A

At all times while apparatus is moving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the truck company get automatically dispatched to?

A

FS/FC
FCA
TCT
USAR
Mutual aid with BC approval (unless requested by captain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Truck company public assists

A

Ladder requests
Elevator rescue with first in ME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Truck company solo response in district

A

SH
Odor
FCAR/FSAR
CO
Water salvage
Wires down no fire or injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is CAD doesn’t automatically dispatch truck to a truck call?

A

Captain responsible to take call

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Emergency call on freeway response

A

2 units both directions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Non emergency call on freeway response

A

1 unit, agency with jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Who handles the report on a freeway TC?

A

First on unit regardless of jurisdiction

81
Q

What is the minimum EOD response?

A

2 technicians

82
Q

Evacuation distance for EOD calls

A

500’

83
Q

Radio / cell silence distance on EOD call

A

1,000’

84
Q

How far from the waters edge should you be in turnouts?

A

10’

85
Q

Order of operations for swift water

A

Search
Talk
Throw

Wade
Row
Go
Helo

86
Q

Water rescue response

A

4 E
2 T
USAR + all members
2 BC
Amb

87
Q

Water rescue in vehicle..how do you approach?

A

Downstream approach

88
Q

What should be performed following water rescue?

A

On scene decon

89
Q

What does the USAR respond on?

A

Collapse
Rope rescue
CS
Trench
MCI - aircraft/rail/highway
WR
WMD
IC request

90
Q

Minimum USAR response

A

1 member

91
Q

Full USAR response

A

6 members

92
Q

3 classes of confined spaces

A

A - IDLH
B - potential for harm
C - no modifications of work procedure

93
Q

Confined space definition

A

Large enough to perform work
Limited entry/egress
Not designed for continuous occupancy

94
Q

Permit required confined space definition

A

AEIO
Atmosphere(hazard), engulfment hazards, inwardly converging walls, other hazards

95
Q

Confined space FAIT

A

Flammable
Asphyxiant
Irritants
Toxic

96
Q

CS response

A

1 E
2 T
USAR + all members
HM + all members
AMB
BC

97
Q

First in captain responsibilities on CS

A

Size up
Entry permit
ICS
gather info
Atmospheric monitoring
Stabilize area, lockout tag out, eliminate ignition
Lighting

98
Q

What is phase 1 elevator control?

A

Recall, key on outside wall

99
Q

What is phase 2 elevator control

A

Operation, key inside car

100
Q

Will elevators respond to operation if fire in hoist way?

A

No

101
Q

Minimum floor requirement for elevator use during fire

A

7th floor or above

102
Q

How many floors below fire do you stop elevator?

A

2

103
Q

Which assignment controls elevators?

A

Lobby control

104
Q

Can we evacuate passengers stuck in elevator?

A

Yes, under supervision of technician..captain discretion for extended ETA

105
Q

Who is responsible for public info on scene?

A

IC

106
Q

What requires a PIO?

A

IC discretion
Multi alarm, injuries, deaths
Significant arson
FD TC
3 or more medic units
Aircraft/train accident
Large evacuation
Veg fire major potential
Red flag
Op period >1hour

107
Q

High threat tactical response

A

2 BC
4 ME
1 T
utility
EOD
4 AMB
AMB supervisor
INV

108
Q

High threat 1st engine PDA

A

START triage in warm, PT count, extract furthest immediate

109
Q

High threat 2nd / 3rd engine PDA

A

stabilizing treatment, extract first immediates encountered

110
Q

High threat 4th engine PDA

A

Med Com, triage group, treatment group

111
Q

High threat 1st truck PDA

A

Line of sight protection from warm to treatment zone

112
Q

What will crews working on high threat be designated?

A

RTF 131, RTF T131

113
Q

High threat tool cache

A

Forcible entry
Lights
Addtl drag devices
TIC

114
Q

High threat critical treatments

A

Massive hemorrhage
Airway
Respiratory
Circulation
Head injury/hypothermia

115
Q

Age for ride alongs?

A

14 YO

116
Q

Who do you notify of a ride along? When?

A

BC prior to start

117
Q

What needs to be filled out for the ride along?

A

Ride along waiver (in policy)

118
Q

Ride along times

A

0800-2200 public over 18
0800-2100 explorers

119
Q

When is PAS implemented?

A

When IC established

120
Q

Who is responsible for accountability of crew?

A

Company officer

121
Q

When is role call performed?

A

15 mins or
Building collapse
Abandon structure
Mayday
Flashover, backdraft, explosion
Operational retreat

122
Q

What is light exposure?

A

Dry products for short time, gross decon

123
Q

What is moderate exposure?

A

SCBA donned for exterior operations, PPE in trash bags outside of cab

124
Q

What is heavy exposure?

A

Interior FF ops, extended exterior operations, PPE in trash bags outside of cab

125
Q

Where is gross decon performed?

A

On scene, gear in drop zone

126
Q

What is the unit status until decon is completed?

A

OOS

127
Q

What is the definition of a trench?

A

Narrow excavation, depth greater than width, no greater than 15’

128
Q

Trench response

A

1 E
2 T
USAR + all members
HM + all members
AMB
BC
Consider vac truck

129
Q

First in captain on trench responsibilities

A

Size up, # of patients, rescue or recovery

130
Q

What positions must be assigned on trench rescue?

A

Extrication officer
Safety officer

131
Q

How far should the spool pile be from trench lip?

A

2 feet

132
Q

COAST info

A

M-TH, 4/10, 0700-1800, @OPD

133
Q

Who may request a PIA?

A

Anyone, through chain of command

134
Q

Where is a tailboard critique performed?

A

On scene

135
Q

Where is a company level PIA performed?

A

At the station or a location that offers privacy

136
Q

Who is responsible for facilitating all formal PIAs?

A

Chief Officer

137
Q

When should the transition to Level C staffing occur?

A

By the end of the first operational period

138
Q

What does “All Clear” mean?

A

Primary search complete, transition of incident priority

139
Q

What does “Contained” mean?

A

Confined within protected boundaries

140
Q

What does “Under Control” mean?

A

Incident stabilized

141
Q

In MAYDAY situation, if interior crews can assist with rescue where do they get reassigned?

A

RIC 1

142
Q

What constitutes a high rise?

A

4 stores or greater

143
Q

What group does the truck create on a high rise?

A

Rescue Group

144
Q

Who establishes PAS on a high rise?

A

3rd engine

145
Q

What do all units assist with on a Warehouse fire?

A

Investigation

146
Q

Warehouse: deep travel into IDLH should be avoided until initiation of ___

A

ventilation

147
Q

Who pumps the sprinklers on a warehouse?

A

Unit from a second alarm

148
Q

Can you change an ARFF response without changing Alert level?

A

Yes

149
Q

Can unbadged personnel proceed onto AOA during an ALERT 3?

A

No, must have approved escort

150
Q

Where should the largest capacity pumper be positioned during relay pumping?

A

Supply Pump

151
Q

What is the minimum PPE for fires and incidents with IDLH?

A

Full turnouts

152
Q

What should be used while traveling on the right shoulder of the freeway

A

Rear emergency and hazards, do not use forward facing red lights

153
Q

Lights when stopped at the scene on the shoulder of the freeway?

A

No emergency lights, only for when stopped in traffic

154
Q

If no CHP at night on freeway…

A

deploy flares, cones during the day

155
Q

What lights are used when merging back into freeway from scene?

A

All emergency lights

156
Q

What tactical objective needs to be completed prior to landing an airship on the freeway?

A

Extrication

157
Q

When will an EOD tech be dispatched solo?

A

Never

158
Q

How many EOD technicians for initial approach?

A

1

159
Q

Who is responsible for EOD searches?

A

PD

160
Q

When will EOD assist OPD in a search?

A

Passenger aircraft

161
Q

Swift water speed

A

Greater than 1 knot (1.15 mph)

162
Q

When designating river left and right, should you be looking up or down stream?

A

Down stream

163
Q

Down stream agency notification distance for water rescue

A

5 miles

164
Q

Who should complete decon following a water rescue?

A

Any resources exposed to flood waters

165
Q

What is level 1 decontamination?

A

Emergency decon

166
Q

What is level 2 decontamination?

A

Three pool decontamination

167
Q

What is the augmented staffing for flood potential?

A

4 USAR swift water technicians
Safety officer

168
Q

How many haz mat personnel should be assigned per shift?

A

4

169
Q

How many usar personal should be assigned per shift

A

4

170
Q

Hazardous atmospheres in confined space

A

flammability of 10% LEL
O2 <19.5 or >23.5
Combustible dust > LEL (5 feet vision obscured)

171
Q

What positions are required on a confined space?

A

Safety officer
Entry Supervisor
In minimal staffing they can be the same person, must be USAR

172
Q

Confined space height that requires fall protection

A

5’ or greater

173
Q

Confined space max travel on SAR

A

300 feet

174
Q

Confined space gas exchanges required prior to entry?

A

4

175
Q

How long is confined space permit kept on file?

A

Minimum 1 year

176
Q

Who can carry a firearm?

A

Specific personal designated by the Fire Chief

177
Q

Who must be notified for firearm discharge?

A

BC, Fire Chief, PD

178
Q

What is phase I elevator control also called

A

Recall

179
Q

What is phase 2 elevator control also called

A

Firefighter override

180
Q

How often should you stop elevator to inspect hoist way?

A

Every 5 floors

181
Q

How many fire companies can be in an elevator at a time?

A

1

182
Q

Who can request temporary flight restrictions?

A

IC

183
Q

What two things does a casualty collection point need to have?

A

Cover and concealment

184
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to maintain high threat PPE?

A

Engineer

185
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to maintain high threat medical equipment?

A

PMs

186
Q

What do you do as an RTF if you encounter an IED?

A

Advise force protection

187
Q

In which zone do RTFs function?

A

Warm zone

188
Q

Who are family member ride alongs coordinated through?

A

BC, notified prior to ride along start

189
Q

Who are ride alongs scheduled through?

A

Operations division

190
Q

Can student ride alongs assist with mop up, salvage, and overhaul?

A

Yes, under direct supervision when in appropriate safety gear

191
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure personnel have the correct helmet designators?

A

Captain

192
Q

What is unity of command?

A

Report to one and only one supervisor

193
Q

Who’s responsibility is to to ensure all PAS tags are updated?

A

Captain

194
Q

If a FF is unaccounted for during a roll call, where does his PAS tag go?

A

Removed from the rig and identified as “missing” on accountability board

195
Q

What needs to happen to turnouts after secondary decontamination at station?

A

Advanced cleaning

196
Q

How far apart should ladders be placed on a trench rescue?

A

25’

197
Q

Who does COAST report to?

A

Community Engagement Team Sergeant

198
Q

What 3 things are considered stop points in RTF

A

Shooter / bomb encountered
No more victims
No more equipment

199
Q

Who can request a vacuum truck for CS or Trench calls?

A

IC