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Phenom Stuff > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for an engine start?

A

10 kts

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2
Q

What wind speed requires the wheels to be chocked and gust locks installed?

A

25kts

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3
Q

What mode must the transponder be set to on the ground?

A

STBY

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4
Q

What is the min battery voltage for an internal start?

A

24v

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5
Q

On an internal start how long should you allow between each engine start?

A

2 minutes

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6
Q

What are the max taxiing speeds? (General, Icy and on ASP)

A

10kts on ASP and on Icy surfaces
20kts otherwise

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7
Q

What are the taxi fuel figures for CWL runways?

A

26 - 40kgs
08 - 20kgs

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8
Q

In what circumstances is a V1 speed not required?

A
  1. When operating from the main runway at Cranwell, Waddington or Coningsby (Dry or Wet) with WINGSTAB off for take off
  2. When AUW <=4500 for take off with a tailwind of =>5 kts
  3. When AUW <=4700 for take off with no tailwind
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9
Q

Engine AI should be set to ON prior to departure if it will be required below what height?

A

1500ft (to prevent any FADEC logic failures)

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10
Q

Below what speed should a take off be aborted for any abnormality? (Low speed abort)

A

70 kts

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11
Q

Under what circumstances should a take off be rejected above 70kts?

A

CAS Message
Sign of FIRE
Undemanded loss of thrust
Loss of directional control
Any other situation the pilot considers merits an abort

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12
Q

What are PFs duties on an aborted take off?

A

Retard both thrust levers to Idle
Use maximum braking to maintain directional control
Once stationary apply the parking brake

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13
Q

What are PMs duties on an aborted take off?

A

Monitor the PFs actions
Call distance to go and groundspeed
Call ATC “Callsign stopping”

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14
Q

What direction should you turn in relation to wind in the event of a fire?

A

Headwind and Crosswind: Turn towards the fire to put the fire downwind

Tailwind: Turn away from the fire to put the fire downwind

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15
Q

When can you assume two engine performance on a MID for meeting a required climb gradient?

A

When it is for noise abatement or ATC purposes

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16
Q

What category of aircraft is the Phenom?

A

Cat B

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17
Q

What is the max IAS for turning for a CAT B aircraft on a MID?

A

165 kts

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18
Q

What is the standard climb speed for the Phenom up to FL200?

A

180kts

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19
Q

What is the standard climb speed for a Phenom between FL200 and FL300?

A

200 kts

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20
Q

What is the standard climb speed above FL300?

A

Mach 0.55

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21
Q

If operating with a Navlog, what performance climb can be used?

A

200kts to FL300 then Mach 0.55

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22
Q

For a One Engine Inoperative climb, what speed and power settings should be used after the Net Take Off Flight Path is complete?

A

Use Vfs on CON/CLB until all obstacles are cleared; once at a safe altitude, Vfs+10kts can be employed

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23
Q

At what altitude should both WSLD 1 and 2 be turned on?

A

FL150

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24
Q

What is the standard cruise technique on 45 sqn?

A

Long Range Cruise (best compromise on range and speed)

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25
Q

What is a danger of using max cruise speed?

A

At lower altitudes Vmo can easily be exceeded?

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26
Q

When should a fuel log be maintained?

A
  1. On transit or on navigation sorties exceeding 1 hours
  2. Whenever it is deemed necessary by the aircraft commander
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27
Q

What speed must be maintained when operating at SAT BELOW -56°?

A

Mach 0.4

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28
Q

What covers the extra fuel in the case of an en route engine failure?

A

The 5% contingency fuel (but on long journeys with few en route diversations extra contingency fuels may be required)

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29
Q

What is the standard descent speed?

A

200kts

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30
Q

What height should a stabilised call be made in the visual circuit?

A

Between 400ft and 200ft

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31
Q

What height should the stabilise call be made on a standard approach?

A

200ft

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32
Q

What are the criteria for making a stabilised call?

A
  1. Established on runway centreline
  2. Maintaining the desire approach path
  3. Speed is between Vref and Vref+20 (with stable thrust)
  4. Appropriate trim in all 3 axes
  5. Ac in the briefed landing configuration
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33
Q

What are the short final checks carried out by PF?

A

Clearance- The appropriate ATC clearance has been received
ALT SEL- The appropriate missed approach altitude has been set
Checks Complete- All checklistd have been completed

(If MAP is not applicable, set something appropriate like SALT or a climb out restriction)

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34
Q

What height must you be at to ingress/ egress from either pilot seat?

A

1000ft AGL

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35
Q

What is the min speed for the final turn?

A

Vref f3 + 15kts and applies till wings level

36
Q

What is the final turn speed bugged as?

37
Q

What is the missed approach climb speed?

38
Q

What technique should be used for non precision approaches?

A

CDFA and DDH/DDA

39
Q

What is the procedure for achieving ‘best speed’ if required by ATC?

A
  1. Select gear in the usual position and descend on the approach at 160kts
  2. At 4nm from touchdown reduce speed, select F3 and fly a standard profile flown from that point.
40
Q

What speed should holds be flown up to FL140?

41
Q

What does WINGSTAB do to required LDA and Vref?

A

Significantly increases

42
Q

With WINGSTAB on, what changes are made to the warnings/ anti stall system?

A
  1. There is no increase speed aural warning
  2. The stall audio and stick pusher activate at a lower AoA
43
Q

What is visible moisture defined as?

A

Visible moisture is defined as clouds, fog/ mist with a visibility =<1610m, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals

44
Q

On a missed approach, where you need to turn WINGSTAB back on, when should you turn it on?

A

For a missed approach, select the WINGSTAB ON when above 150 and before entering icing conditions.

45
Q

What is the tyre limiting speed?

46
Q

What is the normal flap setting for landing?

A

F3 (Ffull available at ac commanders discretion)

47
Q

What are the landing distance limits for a touch and go?

A

Dry Runway - LDA > 4500ft or 1372m
Wet Runway - LDA > 5200ft or 1582m

48
Q

What is the max tailwind component for a touch and go?

49
Q

When landing past cables, what must you treat the cable as?

A

An inset runway threshold (you must cross it at 50ft Vref)

50
Q

What are the minimums for landing on a runway with a cable?

A

Minimum cloudbase: 300ft
Minimum visibility: 2km
The cable must be visually acquired prior to any touchdown

51
Q

What flap setting must be used for an asymmetric approach?

52
Q

If landing off a simulated approach, what factor must you multiply F3 factored landing distance by to get the LDR?

53
Q

What is the TOGA time limit?

54
Q

What is the procedure for initial take offs to avoid busting TOGA limits?

A

The initial take off must continue to climb to at least 1500ft on the RadAlt and the FADEC annunciation must he out of TO mode

55
Q

How many TOGA events can be used per engine on a single sortie?
(Assuming they the initial take off doesn’t include an EFATO)

56
Q

How many TOGA events per engine can be used on a single sortie if the initial take off includes an EFATO?

57
Q

What are the different TOGA event values?

A

One Event: Touch and Go; OEO Go Around; stall in the final turn; stall in the approach configuration

Four events: Simulated asymmetric Go Around; SEFATO following a touch and go or low approach with the FADEC in GA mode

Zero events: A SEFATO following a touch and go or low approach where the FADEC is in CLB mode

58
Q

What calls should be made by the PM when approaching any cleared FL/ Alt/ Ht?

A

1000 to go
Approaching level (at 200-300ft to the cleared level)

59
Q

What heights/ altitudes should altimeters be checked in the climb?

A

Altimeters should be checked at FL100/ 10000ft and ever 5000ft above

60
Q

What heights/ altitudes should altimeters be checked in the descent?

A

Every 5000ft above FL100/10000ft and every 1000ft below. SALT should also be acknowledged by the crew.

61
Q

On an instrument approach, when should altimeters be cross checked?

A

1000ft agl

62
Q

When the PM calls 1000ftQFE/ XXXXft QNH.. now , what should the PF include in their acknowledgement?

A

Range to touchdown, current RADALT height and confirmation that the ALT S is set.

63
Q

What are the standard calls from the PM on the final descent profile?

A

200 to DH
100 to DH
Decision (for a DH/ DA) or Approaching MDH (MDA)

64
Q

What isnthe default altimeter setting at UK civil airfields for 45 sqn?

65
Q

What is the minimum oxygen to be carried for local training flights?

A

Enough for all passengers and crew to be on oxygen for 30 minutes.

Approx 1050 psi

66
Q

What is the normal minimum oxygen pressure for ac departing on landaways and overseas flights?

67
Q

What range is recommended on the MFD in MAP mode for departures and arrivals?

A

30 or 50 nm

68
Q

En route, what range should be used on the MFD MAP mode?

69
Q

The radar must be in STANDBY if there is any chance of scanning personnel within what range?

A

3 metres (12 ft)

70
Q

Major weather returns (such as active CB cells) should be avoided by what distance?

A

At least 10nm

71
Q

When operating below SALT, what should be minimised?

A

Flt deck communications

72
Q

In the Phenom, when should TA only be selected?

A
  1. During stalling exercises
  2. As lead ac when flying in a formation
  3. In the visual circuit
73
Q

If you have MA trainees on board, what changes are made to your timelines?

A

Crew brief 10 mins earlier than usual
Out brief 10 mins earlier than usual as a whole crew

74
Q

If using Type II or Type IV de-icing fluids, crews must ensure that Vr is greater than what speed?

75
Q

Why must you not spray deicing fluid onto or forward of the windshield?

A

It might run back on take off and degrade visibility

76
Q

At what temperature does the most severe ice formation occur?

A

TAT of -5 degrees C

77
Q

What should crew avoid excessive use of in hot weather?

78
Q

In strong winds or gusty approaches, what margin might crews add to their Vap?

A

The rule of thumb is half the gust factor

79
Q

In strong winds or gusty approaches, what adjustment might crews make to Vref?

A

Vref should not be adjusted for gusts

80
Q

If you have to fly into a storm, what speed should be used?

A

Max speed of 230 kts < FL280 > 0.59M

81
Q

What is the procedure if you suspect severe windshear?

A
  1. Disconnect the autopilot
  2. Set max thrust
  3. Ensure the wings are level and select 15° nose up attitude and decelerate to the top of the yellow speed band
82
Q

When does EDM arm?

A

When pressure altitude is greater than 25,500ft with AP engaged

83
Q

When does EDM activate?

A

With the CAB ALTITUDE HI warning

84
Q

How do you deactivate EDM?

A

Disengage the autopilot

85
Q

In an Emegency Descent, what actions can assist the Altitude section of the MIs?

A

a. CWS - Consider using to expedite initial descent
b. ALT SEL - 3 winds ccw (not below MSA)
c. FLC - Press
d. SPD SEL - 3 winds cw

Phenom Stuff (6 decks)

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