IF Flashcards

1
Q

What category of aircraft is a Phenom?

A

Cat B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the lowest minima for precision approaches?

A

DH 200ft
RVR 550M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the minima for non-precision approach?

A

MDH 250ft
RVR 800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much do you need to add to minima if you have a White rating?

A

+200ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the Engine Out Allowance for Phenom?

A

Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Pressure Error correction for the Phenom?

A

Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a rate one turn?

A

180°/ minute
3°/ second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you calculate AOB for a rate 1 turn?

A

(Speed/ 10) + 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the UP recovery procedure?

A

AP/ YD: Disconnect
Check Speed: Check IAS
Thrust: If speed reducing, thrust to TOGA, if speed increasing thrust to Idle
Roll: Roll to wings level
Pitch: Smoothly pitch to a safe vector
Thrust: Set for level flight

Post Occurence Checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If you are below safety altitude on a UP what should you do?

A

Low Level Abort

Wings Level
TOGA
30° Climb Attitude til speed decays to 130, climb at 130 until salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What nose up attitude are you selecting on T/O?

A

9.5° NU normal
6° NU wingstab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What speed and power do you initially set in the pattern?

A

170 kts, 60% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When do you select Flap 1?

A

On base leg (around 3nm from localiser)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What speed do you select when Flap 1 is selected?

A

150 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do you select landing gear?

A

Approx 2nm to descent point or 1.5 dots on the GS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What speed are you targeting when the gear is down?

A

130 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When do you select Flap 3?

A

When you have about 0.5 dots, and are approaching ToD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What speed are you maintaining on the descent?

A

130 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are you doing at 1000ft?

A

Reduce thrust by ~4% and cross check RADALT and distance to go

20
Q

What speed are you aiming for below 1000ft?

A

Taper from 130 kts to Vref

21
Q

What is the Cat B missed approach speed?

A

150 kts

22
Q

If further climb is required when asymmetric at the end of the NTOFP, what speed do you use?

A

Vfs + 10 kts

23
Q

What power setting is used for an asymmetric pattern?

A

Approx 10-12% higher (70-72%)

24
Q

Once established on an ALT, what causes the ALTSEL to go to Yellow on Black?

A

If it deviates by 200ft

25
Q

What does ROL mode do?

A

Maintain the inputted roll rate when AP was engaged. If the bank is less than 6°, the AP will take it to wings level.

26
Q

What does HDG mode do?

A

AFCS will command a turn to the bugged heading, it will turn in the same direction the knob was turned (unless >340°)

27
Q

What does NAV mode do?

A

Using the info from the selected CDI source it will load GPS, ILS LOCaliser or VOR information. When active, NAV will steer along the FMS route.

28
Q

What does FLC mode do?

A

It gives pitch commands to maintain a bugged IAS or Mach. FLC will not initiate a climb or descent without a Thrust level change.

It will arm and active ALTS and ALT.

29
Q

What does PIT mode do?

A

Maintains current altitude

30
Q

What does VS mode do?

A

AFCS will maintain a given vertical speed

31
Q

What does VNAV mode do?

A

The aircraft will descend on an FMS profile

32
Q

When do you select APR mode and what does it do?

A

When you are cleared onto an Approach you select and it will arm the vertical and lateral modes of the approach based on the CDI source

33
Q

What does BANK mode do?

A

Limits the bank commands to 15° rather than the default mode. This mode automatically becomes active above FL310.

34
Q

On a FD non precision approach who inputs VS changes and headings?

A

PF - VS changes
PM - Headings

35
Q

How do you work out the required RoD for a VS approach with a 3° glide path?

A

Multiply actual groundspeed by 5 (divide by 2 x 10)

36
Q

If you go around at DDH, when should you make any lateral MAP changes?

A

Not until after the missed approach point

37
Q

What selections do you use for a localiser only approach?

A

FMS- Load approach by PROC
CDI- P Loc 1, C Loc 2
AFCS- When cleared select NAV (not approach) and VS. Put the ALT sel on MAP.

38
Q

What necessitates a circling approach?

A

The final approach track is more than 30° off the landing runway QFU.

39
Q

When flying non-precision to circling, what should you add to the published MDH for CDFA?

A

Don’t. Fly as published.

40
Q

If you lose IF references on a circling approach how should you fly the MAP?

A

Turn the shortest way round to fly the MAP for the instrument runway

41
Q

What thrust setting is used entering a circling approach?

A

75% N1

42
Q

What speed is used for a circling approach?

A

130 kts

43
Q

How far should you extend past the landing runway before turning?

A

10 seconds

44
Q

When should you disengage autopilot on a circling approach?

A

Before the final turn

45
Q

What power setting is used for a final turn on a circling approach?

A

48% N1