soph safety & sanitation Flashcards

1
Q

define article and give an example

A

an item used to complement a service. Examples are neck, strips, towels, linens, and capes.

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2
Q

define and give an example for supplies and materials

A

Items used to complement use of tools and implements Examples are tints, bleach, chemicals.

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3
Q

define tools and implements and give examples

A

All portable articles and instruments Examples are nail clippers and combs

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4
Q

define equipment and give examples

A

What is used on a client I needed to operate Facility examples are styling chair and shampoo bowl

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5
Q

what is the art or science of beautifying and improving skin nails and hair and the study of cosmetics called?

A

cosmetology

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6
Q

The use of any product which restructures or moves hair or changes the shape or appearance of hair skin and nails is called what

A

Chemical

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7
Q

what are the requirements of a dispensing area?

A

Nonporous surface, sink with hot cold, running water and adequate ventilation

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8
Q

how long must client records be kept when offering aesthetics or nail technology services?

A

no longer required for nails and three years for esthetics

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9
Q

define pathogenic and non-pathogenic

A

Pathogenic is a harmful bacteria and non-pathogenic Is a harmless bacteria and beneficial

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10
Q

describe cocci

A

round and group or single

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11
Q

describe bacilli

A

Rod shaped bacteria cells

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12
Q

describe spirilla

A

spiral bacteria that causes sypnillis or lymes

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13
Q

which is the most common type of bacteria?

A

bacilli

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14
Q

List three specific types of cocci bacteria

A

staphylococci, streptococci, and diplococci

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15
Q

what disease/ infection is caused by streptococci

A

strep throat

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16
Q

what disease/ infection is caused by staphylococci

A

staph infection

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17
Q

what disease/ infection is caused by diplococci

A

pheumonia

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18
Q

what strength of quinary ammonium compounds is required to disinfect combs/brushes

A

1000 parts/million (low level)

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19
Q

what is the difference between premises and common area?

A

premises is a whole area and common area is a main area used by all

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20
Q

What’s the definition for segregated?

A

potentially hazardous chemical separated by distance or barrier

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21
Q

What’s the definition of hazardous?

A

Means capable of causing an unplanned uncontrolled reaction

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22
Q

define authorization

A

Certificate, license, permit or registration that allows a person to practice

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23
Q

how many days does a facility license holder have to notify OHLA that they are closing the facility? What about a change in personal mailing address? What about moving the facility?

A

30 days

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24
Q

how many days does a practitioner have to notify the agency of a name or work location change

A

30 days

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25
Q

how many days does an independent contractor have to notify the agency of any changes? How will you be notified that it is time to renew your authorization?

A

30 days / OHLA (Oregon health license administration)

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26
Q

what is required when body piercings and tattoo services are provided in a cosmetology facility

A

Authorization, program and license

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27
Q

what is the technical name for ringworm and what causes ringworm?

A

tinea and caused by fungal disease

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28
Q

where are clean towels stored?

A

Clean cabinet or drawer

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29
Q

where are chemically soiled towels stored?

A

Closed fire retardant container

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30
Q

what must be done in order to reuse protective gloves?

A

clean with soap and water and disinfect

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31
Q

What’s the definition of a natural person and how does this relate to facilities?

A

Natural person is one loving person and can be a facility license holder

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32
Q

outer surfaces of waste containers must be kept what?

A

clean

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33
Q

sealable plastic bags and what must be made available to all authorization holders

A

Biohazard container

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34
Q

define efficacy

A

what the product will destroy and be effective against

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35
Q

what agency requires efficacy labels on disinfectants?

A

EPA

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36
Q

what is the purpose of an antiseptic?

A

to destroy and kill some viruses

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37
Q

how does an antiseptic differ from a disinfectant?

A

disinfectants are chemicals and antics are ointments

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38
Q

what items must be posted in public view?

A

Facility license recent inspection certificate license registration

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39
Q

chemicals that are highly reactive or kept in containers greater than 1 gallon must be stored in ______ or ______ or______

A

separate cabinets or safety value container or isolated from other chemicals

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40
Q

define soiled, and how often are electric clipper blades disinfected

A

A dirty item that has been used and isn’t clean, clipper blades are disinfected after each client

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41
Q

what should be done with disposable sharp objects that have come into contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials?

A

Puncture proof, container and thrown in biohazard trash

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42
Q

what is the difference between EPA registered low-level and high-level disinfectants?

A

Low level- bacterocidal, germicidal, fungicidal. high level- contains
Tuberculocidal

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43
Q

chemicals must be mixed in where

A

The dispensing area

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44
Q

cosmetic products Containing hazardous substances are banned by the____

A

FDA

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45
Q

define independent contractor

A

Who is not under the control and direction of the facility

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46
Q

define define registration

A

Written authorization issued to an independent contractor to hold forth to the public as a business entity, providing services in a field of practice

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47
Q

define practitioner

A

A person certified to perform services included within a field of practice

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48
Q

Define Certificate

A

Written authorization for the holder to perform in one or more field of practice

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49
Q

define facility

A

And establishment operated on a regular basis for the purpose of providing services in one or more fields of practice

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50
Q

define license

A

Written authorization to a person to operate facilities/freelance

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51
Q

define freelance license

A

Written authorization that allows a practitioner to provide outside or away from a licensed facility

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52
Q

define temporary facility permit

A

Provide services on temporary basis in one or more field of practice

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53
Q

define demonstration permit

A

ran authorization for a person to practice, demonstrate teach one or more fields of practice on a temporary basis

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54
Q

define affidavit of Licensure

A

an original document or other approval verifying license history

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55
Q

what is the minimum age to apply for a facility license

A

18

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56
Q

What is the minimum age to apply for an independent contractors registration?

A

18

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57
Q

what is the minimum age to apply for a practitioner certificate?

A

No age required

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58
Q

Define immunity and explain the difference between natural immunity and passive/acquired immunity

A

bodies ability to destroy infections against that enter. Natural is acquired from exposure to agent. Passive is received through injection like shots

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59
Q

floors, roller receptacles, shampoo, sinks, and workstations must be kept what

A

Clean

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60
Q

if spattering is likely to occur, what must the authorization holder wear

A

I goggles, shield or mask

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61
Q

quats is short for what? and it must be mixed at _____ ppm?

A

quaternaries . 1000

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62
Q

items that come in direct contact with the client skin, but do not require disinfecting must be what

A

Clean

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63
Q

If they can’t be cleaned or disinfected, they must be what

A

Disposed

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64
Q

where do we dispose of chemical waste at the conclusion of each service? What about at the end of the business day?

A

Fire retardant closed trashcan at the end of the day and a closed container after each service

65
Q

when can a sink be located in a restroom qualify as a water source

A

Only if natural hair services are provided

66
Q

What type of soap is prohibited and what may be substituted for individual cloth or paper towels?

A

Bar soap and a hand dryer

67
Q

what type of containers require either resin coding or to be stored in rubber buckets/sleeves

A

Glass

68
Q

where must an independent contractor post the most recent inspection Certificate

A

Public view

69
Q

What are the responsibilities of OSHA

A

Enforces, safety, and health and workplace

70
Q

which branch of the federal government approves and registers chemical compounds and agents

A

EPA

71
Q

is the authorization holder allowed to treat headlights in the facility?

A

Head lice may be treated at the discretion of the authorized holder

72
Q

always containing blood or other potentially infectious materials must be placed in a Glover plastic bag and then disposed of in a covered container with a _______

A

Red bag/garbage liner

73
Q

Define natural hair care and field of practice

A

The field, which you choose to practice natural hair care is only caring for natural hair, such as braiding, corn, growing, and hair extensions

74
Q

Chemicals may be stored in containers approved by organ department of _______ for shipping

A

transportation

75
Q

What is another term used to describe one-celled microbes or germs?

A

bacteria

76
Q

describe pathogenic bacteria

A

harmful bacteria; causes infection and disease

77
Q

describe non pathogenic bacteria

A

harmless bacteria; does not produce disease

78
Q

what does staphylococci look like under a microscope? what disease/ disorder is it associated with?

A

bunches; found in boils, pus forming

79
Q

what does streptococci look like under a microscope? what disease/ disorder is it associated with

A

long chain; causes strep throat, pus forming

80
Q

what does diplococci look like under a microscope? what disease/ disorder is it associated with

A

pairs; causes pneumonia

81
Q

define EPA

A

Environmental Protection Agency

82
Q

define CDC

A

Center for Disease Control and Prevention

83
Q

define FDA

A

Food and Drug Administration

84
Q

define OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

85
Q

What are organisms that grow and feed on other living organisms called?

A

external parasites

86
Q

What is the difference between a local and general infection?

A

local: one or small area
general: all parts of body (giant)

87
Q

what is the ability to destroy infectious agents that enter the body

A

immunity

88
Q

What is the difference between natural and passive (acquired) immunity?

A

natural: natural resistance, partially inherited
passive: antibodies given through vaccine (acquired)

89
Q

list the bones in the arm, wrist, and hand

A

humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

90
Q

How are the radius and ulna bones similar and how are they different?

A

radius: small bone on the thumb side of lower arm
ulna: small bone on the little finger side

91
Q

What type of connective tissue holds together the 8 small bones of the carpus?

A

ligaments

92
Q

what are the 3 parts of the muscle?

A

origin, belly, insertion

93
Q

Muscles affected by massage are generally manipulated from insertion to _____

A

origin

94
Q

Which muscle located in the mid-forearm, straightens the fingers and wrist?

A

extensor radialis

95
Q

Which nail product is described as a clear, highly flammable liquid solvent, used in both nail polish removers and artificial nail product removers?

A

acetone

96
Q

What chemical used for acrylic nail systems was outlawed in 1974 by the FDA?

A

methyl methacrylate (MMA)

97
Q

technical name for the nail

A

onyx

98
Q

Describe the free edge and explain the primary purpose of the free edge.

A

part that extends beyond the fingertip; protects the fingertip

99
Q

define the lunula

A

half moon shape at the base of the nail

100
Q

What is the difference between nail walls and nail folds? Which of these two nail structures is sometimes called nail grooves?

A

nail wall: folds of skin on each side of the nail groove
nail fold: tracks on either side of the nail that the nail moves on as it grows

101
Q

define perionychium

A

skin that overlaps the sides of the nail

102
Q

Where is the hyponychium located and what is its purpose?

A

under the free edge; acts as a watertight seal to prevent bacteria from entering nail bed

103
Q

Define the nail matrix and explain what may happen, if the matrix is injured

A

active tissue that generates cells that harden as they move outward from the nail root to the nail plate; may regrow with a deformity

104
Q

average nail growth a month

A

1/8 inch

105
Q

what does a healthy nail look like?

A

smooth, curved without hollows, translucent pinkish color

106
Q

Which nail disease is described as an inflammation of the skin around the nail caused by a bacterial infection like when a hang nail gets infected?

A

paronychia of felon

107
Q

what is the difference between paronychia and onychia

A

paronychia: inflammation of the skin around the nail
onychia: inflammation of the nail matrix

108
Q

What are the main differences between nail diseases and nail disorders?

A

disease: can’t be worked on, refer to physician
disorder: can be worked on, physical result of injury or disease

109
Q

describe onychomychosis

A

ringworm of the nail

109
Q

describe onychomadesis

A

loss of nail plate with separation at nail matrix

110
Q

describe onychoptosis

A

shedding or falling off of the nail

111
Q

describe onychia

A

inflammation of the nail matrix

112
Q
A
113
Q

describe onycholysis

A

loosening or separation of the nail

114
Q

the nail disorder described as indented vertical lines down the nail plate that may be caused by injury to matrix; nutritional deficiency; or using too much force when pushing back cuticles is called ____

A

furrows

115
Q

What is the living skin that becomes attached to the nail plate either at the eponychium or hyponychium called?

A

pterygium

116
Q

True or False: Corrugations are vertical lines in the nail?

A

false

117
Q

Describe agnails (AKA hang nails) and explain how you would modify the nail service for a client with agnails

A

overly dry, spilt cuticle. trim separated hangnail, moisturize

117
Q

technical term for ingrown nail

A

onychocryptosis

118
Q

what is the cause for onychocryptosis

A

filing too deep on sides of nails, wearing tight shoes, hereditary

119
Q

What is the difference between tile shaped nails and pilcatured nails?

A

tile: deep C curve
pilcatured: flat on top, one or both side walls angled 90 degrees

120
Q

What is another term used for trumpet nails or nails that narrow towards the free edge?

A

pincer nails

121
Q

What are some of the causes of onychorhexxis?

A

injury, improper filing

122
Q

Which nail disorder is caused by a stress related nervous habit and would benefit from weekly nail services including polish?

A

onychophagy

123
Q

nail disorder with white spots on nail

A

leukonychia

124
Q

what is the disorder that appears with a tan, brown or black pigmented stripe down the length of the nail called?

A

melonychia

125
Q

Describe the symptoms of fungal infection of the nail (AKA nail fungus)

A

yellow/ green or black spot, separate in layers

126
Q

describe vesicle

A

fluid filled elevation on the skin

127
Q

describe eczema

A

dry or moist lesions, redness, itching

127
Q

describe psoriasis

A

thick, silvery, scaly patches

128
Q

describe bulla

A

larger vesicle filled with clear watery fluids, usually from friction

129
Q

describe tyloma

A

thickened epidermis, usually on hands or feet, what friction repeatedly occurs

130
Q

What is the technical term used for athlete’s foot and describe symptoms of this skin infection?

A

tinea pedis; itching and peeling of skin on foot

131
Q

Describe tinea manus:

A

ringworm of hand

132
Q

When should the guest sign the client release statement and when should the consultation occur?

A

before starting service

133
Q

The part of the client consultation form that identifies health factors including allergies or recent surgeries is called the ____

A

medical history

134
Q

Which massage movement is described as light or gentle stroking and is performed with the fingertips or palms of the hand to begin and end a massage?

A

effleurage

135
Q

What product softens dead cuticle tissue to allow gentle pushing back and to aid in its removal?

A

cuticle remover/ softener

136
Q

What is the main ingredient found in cuticle remover?

A

potassium hydroxide or sodium hydroxide; 2-5%

137
Q

to remove dead skin cells and allow products to penetrate better, small amounts of alpha hydroxy acids are found in ____

A

cuticle creams

138
Q

What is the purpose of nail bleach? Where is nail bleach applied? What is the active ingredient found in nail bleach?

A

to remove stains; applied to nail plate; 6% hydrogen peroxide

139
Q

Which nail product helps prevent nails from chipping or breaking and may contain strengthening fibers or formaldehyde?

A

nail strengthener

140
Q

Which tools or implements used during a manicure should be discarded after use

A

orange wood stick, emery board, cotton

141
Q

Which manicuring implement is described as a metal instrument with two blades that pinch together and are used to trim excess cuticle?

A

cuticle nippers

142
Q

Which of the five shapes of the nails are the strongest and which shape tends to break when worn at a longer length?

A

strongest: square
weakest: stiletto

143
Q

what are the plastic, nylon or acetate fingernail-shaped extensions that are applied to the natural nail using a nail adhesive called?

A

nail tips

144
Q

Describe the difference between the tip-well and the position stop:

A

tip well: area that adheres to the natural nail
position stop: ridge on nail tip where free edge fits into place

145
Q

When sizing a nail tip, make sure the C-curve matches the natural nail shape and that the tip fits from ___

A

sidewall to sidewall

146
Q

What should be done when the client is between tip sizes

A

file bigger tip to size

147
Q

Which acrylic nail product often contains a corrosive acid to improve adhesion of the acrylic to the natural nail?

A

primer

148
Q

Why do we use a dehydrator when doing artificial nails?

A

to remove moisture from the nail plate

149
Q

How often should a guest receive a fill for the maintenance of artificial nails?

A

every 2 weeks

150
Q

True or False: The contact area is the portion of the natural nail where the tip-well adheres to the nail plate.

A

true

151
Q

True or False: Sable bristle brushes are generally used for light cured gel nails.

A

false

152
Q

Which type of artificial nail enhancement uses a special light to create a chemical reaction to harden the product?

A

gel nails

153
Q

Which type of artificial nail does not dissolve in acetone or any other solvent?

A

gel nails (hard gel)

154
Q

define pH

A

number measurement that indicates the acidity of a substance

155
Q

where is pure/ distilled water found on the pH scale?

A

7 (neutral)