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march 2016 exam > Some shit > Flashcards

Some shit Flashcards

1
Q

What Pub supplies data on hero and the hazards of RF , Laser , and ionizing radiation (NAVSEA and NAVAIR pub number )?

A

NAVSEA OP 3565/NAVAIR 16-1-529

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2
Q

To what publication would you refer for information on what assembly of missiles ?

A

NA-11-140-6.1/6.2/6.3

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3
Q

What instruction governs to ordnance certification program ?

A

OPNAVINST 8023.24

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4
Q

What person ensures the appropriate HERO condition has been set ?

A

Operations Officer

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5
Q

What is the definition of a NALC?

A

Naval Ammunition Logistics Code. A Four digit code assigned by SPCC

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6
Q

The missile serial number is located where on the AIM 9X

A

The aft end of the missile

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7
Q

Where is the missile serial number located on the AGM-84 Harpoon missile

A

Warhead

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8
Q

What is to be done after you break the hermetic seal on a container containing and on cads ?

A

Use indelible ink and mark the open date on the outside of the container and on each cad inside the container

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9
Q

What is an AO’s responsibility as far as CADs used on personal escape devices ?

A

AOs are responsible for properly stowing , handling and issue of these cartridges and devices

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10
Q

What cartridge is used in practice bombs during day time operations ?

A

CXU-3

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11
Q

What cartridge is used in practice bombs during night time operation

A

MK-4

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12
Q

The available settings on the FMU-139 electrical tail fuze are

A

2.6/60 , 2.6/25 , 2.6/10 2.6/inst

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13
Q

The MK-123 MOD 0 arming safety switch must be installed in what type of environment

A

Radhaz free environment

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14
Q

What is to be done if during weapons loading the MK 122 Safe arm device lanyard is pulled out

A

It must be replaced

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15
Q

No matter what configuration the missile is in , what number is used to track the missile

A

It varies check the OPNAVINST 8000.16c

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16
Q

In the missile designation AGM-88 what does the G indicate

A

Surface attack , vehicle designed to destroy enemy land or sea targets

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17
Q

When a plane returns to the flight deck with a CATM-9 Sidewinder Missile , what has to be done to safe the missile

A

Placing the arm/safe handle in the safe position

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18
Q

How do you fight a pyrotechnic fire

A

flooding quantities of water at low pressure

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19
Q

What adapter is used with the MHU-191 to make a flatbed transporter

A

Aero 71

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20
Q

What is the safe working load of the Aero 71A skid adapter

A

4,000 lbs

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21
Q

Concerning magazines , what do the stenciled markings that must be located on the bulkheads , overheads , and decks 12 feet apart state on them

A

Ammunition Far Side

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22
Q

When can personnel ride on elevators

A

Injured personnel or when performing maintenance

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23
Q

What is the governing instruction for qualifying and certifying personnel for handling ammunition and explosives

A

OPNAVINST 8023.24

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24
Q

Can a non-certified person handle live ordnance

A

No , not without the written approval from TYCOM

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25
Q

Who must be present when handling ordnance

A

TL, QA/SO and the appropriate amount of TM’s

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26
Q

What are the different levels of certification

A

Team Member , Individual , Team Leader , Quality Assurance , Safety Observer

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27
Q

How long is an individual’s certification good for ?

A

One year up to the last day of the month the individual was certified

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28
Q

Can ordnance certifications be transferred from one command to another for the purpose of permanent change of duty stations

A

No , unless there is written approval from the TYCOM or REGCOM

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29
Q

Who signs your ordnance certification certifying you to handle ammunition and explosives

A

Board chairman

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30
Q

Who must sign off on a proficiency demonstration on your OJT 8020/4 form prior to being certified ?

A

A certified Board Member

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31
Q

Who designated in writing ordnance certification board members

A

Commanding officer

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32
Q

Who is the command’s Ordnance Qualification/Certification Board Chairman

A

Gun Boss

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33
Q

Who designates in writing the command’s Board Chairman

A

Commanding Officer

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34
Q

Can an individual be re-certified in the event they have been previously decertified

A

Yes, after they have been retrained or returned to a physically qualified status

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35
Q

Can an individual be re-certified if their certification has been revoked

A

No. unless there is approval from the TYCOM

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36
Q

What are the work task codes on your OJT form 8020/4

A

There are the different functions you are certified to perform when handling ordnance

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37
Q

What year was the qualification/certification established and what event lead to the establishment of the program ?

A

1966 , incident with a MK 24 aircraft parachute flare on the USS Oriskany

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38
Q

What publication discusses inspection criteria for general purpose bombs

A

NAVAIR 11-140-10

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39
Q

What publication is used for the inspection and the assembly/disassembly of Precision Guided Munitions ?

A

NAVAIR 11-140-10

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40
Q

What publication is used for the inspection and break out of Cluster Bombs

A

NAVAIR 11-140-9

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41
Q

What publication is used for aviation weapons support equipment ?

A

NAVAIR 11-140-25

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42
Q

What publication is used to break out and inspect air to air missiles

A

NAVAIR 11-140-6.1

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43
Q

What publication is used to break out and inspect air to ground missiles

A

NAVAIR 11-140-6.2

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44
Q

What publication is used to break out and inspect CATMs and DATMs

A

NAVAIR 11-140-6.3

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45
Q

What publication is used for inspecting and loading a LALS

A

NAVAIR 11-140-119

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46
Q

What publication is used for the configuring AWSE

A

NAVAIR 11-140-25

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47
Q

What is the minimum number of personnel required to push a skid

A

2

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48
Q

Who is required to verify torque values when assembling weapons

A

QA

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49
Q

What publication is used to inspect pyrotechnics and explosives countermeasures

A

NAVAIR 11-140-7

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50
Q

What chapter in weapons assembly manuals refer to common procedures

A

Chapter 5

51
Q

How can you tell if a FMU 139 electric tail fuze is potentially armed

A

The gag rod is extended and red and black striping is visible

52
Q

How can you tell if a M904E4 is safe

A

White 6 or 18 on green back ground on upper window and vacant in the lower window

53
Q

How can you tell if a M904E4 is partially armed

A

Green back ground with no number or any number other than 18 or 6 or any number other than the selected in the upper window and the lower window is vacant or dark in color

54
Q

How can you tell if a M904E4 is armed

A

Red with a black letter A in the upper window and red with black A in lower window

55
Q

What do 2 yellow stripes mean on a MK 80 series bomb

A

Thermally protected , high explosive

56
Q

What do 3 yellow stripes mean on a BLU series bomb

A

The ally protected , high explosive , PBXN-109 explosive filler

57
Q

What is the first thing to look for when you receive a skid of missiles

A

That it is safe

58
Q

What is the definition of a warning

A

An operating procedure , practice , etc., which , if not correctly followed , could result in personnel injury or loss of life

59
Q

What is the definition of a caution

A

An operating procedure , practice , etc., which , if not strictly observed , could result in damage to or destruction of equipment

60
Q

What is the definition of a note

A

An operating procedure , condition , etc., which it is essential to highlight

61
Q

How do you know HERO is set on the Flight Deck

A

Blue light on the Island is turning

62
Q

What is the required items needed to build MK 76’s

A

Bucket of water , goggles

63
Q

What does a black letter A against red background in upper or lower window on a M904 fuze indicate

A

Fuze is fully armed

64
Q

What can be done with ordnance during thunder 1

A

Dearming of recovering A/C

65
Q

What is the AIM-9x checklist

A

NAVAIR 11-140-6.1-8

66
Q

When inspecting the AIM 9x what is the first thing you look for ?

A

Ensure the safety is on

67
Q

What year was the Qual Cert program established

A

1966

68
Q

How long is an individual’s certification good for

A

One year up to the last day of the month the individual was certified

69
Q

Who must be present when handling ordnance

A

TL, QA/SO , and the appropriate amount of TM’s

70
Q

What publication is used for the configuring AWSE

A

NAVAIR 11-140-25

71
Q

What Pub prescribes the minimum requirements and regulations on ammunition afloat ?

A

OP 4

72
Q

What must always be present when building MK 76 practice bombs ?

A

Bucket of water

73
Q

Who must be present to move ordnance

A

QASO

74
Q

Aboard an aircraft carrier , jettison lockers are located in what area

A

Above the waterline and O2 level catwalk

75
Q

Aboard an aircraft carrier , what person is responsible for the security of live ordnance stage in the “bomb farm” area of the flight deck

A

Bomb farm watch

76
Q

On the BLU-109 how many square inches of thermal coating may be missing before it is rejected

A

20/40 over all

77
Q

When loading ordnance what is the maximum amount of weight you are allowed to manually lift

A

1,000 lbs

78
Q

The M61A1/A2 automatic gun can be internally mounted in which A/C

A

F/18A/F

79
Q

What is the pilot selectable firing rate of the M61A1/A2

A

4000L/6000H

80
Q

What component restrains the individual barrel movement during firing

A

Muzzle clamp assembly

81
Q

What components are mounted in the bearing retainer and provide the front mounting for a M61A1/A2 gun

A

Recoil adapters

82
Q

What are the total number of steel ball bearings in the entrance cover

A

252

83
Q

On the M61A1/A2 where is the indexing pin located

A

Housing assembly

84
Q

Viewed from the rear in what direction does the rotor move when the gun is operating

A

Counter clockwise

85
Q

How is the M61A1/A2 gun driven and controlled

A

Hydraulically driven electrically controlled

86
Q

What are the primary parts of the M61A1/A2

A

Barrels , rotor assembly , and housing assembly

87
Q

What are the means used to secure the guns barrel to the stub rotor of an M61A1/A2

A

Interrupted locking lugs

88
Q

The history of rockets covers a span of how many centuries

A

8

89
Q

What initiating device ignites the propellant grain of a rocket

A

Igniter

90
Q

What component of a rocket contains the propellant , ignited , and nozzle

A

Motor

91
Q

The gases produced when rocket motor propellant burns create what type of force

A

Thrust

92
Q

Rockets are propelled by what means

A

The expulsion of gases

93
Q

What type of HE-Frag warhead is used with a 5.0 rocket

A

MK 63 Mod 0

94
Q

What type of warhead combines the effectiveness of HE-FRAG and HEAT warheads

A

AT/APERS

95
Q

Which NAVAIR publication provides authorized assemblies , safety precautions and restrictions for airborne rockets

A

11-75A-92

96
Q

A rocket motor should not be used if dropped more than what prescribed number of feet

A

A rocket motor should never be used if dropped

97
Q

When , if ever , should you attempt to remove the base from a rocket warhead

A

Never

98
Q

What aircraft uses the BRU-12A/A bomb rack

A

P-3

99
Q

The BRU-12A/A bomb rack can carry weapons/stores up to what maximum weight

A

1,450 pounds

100
Q

The BRU-14A bomb rack can carry weapons/stores up to what maximum weight

A

2,200 pounds

101
Q

What is the acronym CAD

A

Cartridge Actuated Device

102
Q

What bomb rack is used on the wing stations of the P-3 aircraft

A

BRU-15/A

103
Q

A BRU-32A/A bomb rack is used to suspend all EXCEPT which of the following items

A

LAU-7

104
Q

How far apart are the suspension hooks of the BRU-32A/A be ejector rack

A

14 & 30 inches

105
Q

A BRU-32B/A bomb ejector rack will accommodate weapons/stores up to what maximum weight

A

4,200 pounds

106
Q

The BRU-33 (series) rack has provisions for what type of fixing

A

Mechanical and electrical fuzing

107
Q

What is the interface that is used in the BRU-55 bomb ejector rack for aircraft to rack and rack to weapons

A

MIL-STD-1760

108
Q

What is the acronym for IMER

A

Improved multiple ejector rack

109
Q

What is the acronym for for ITER

A

Improved triple ejector rack

110
Q

How many major subassemblies are there on the BRU-41-42 ejector racks

A

Four

111
Q

An electronic control unit is capable of releasing stores at what prescribed intervals

A

35-millisecond

112
Q

what assembly forms the main support for an IMER or ITER

A

Adapter

113
Q

To mechanically safe an IMER or ITER ejector unit assembly , which of the following components should be used

A

A safety stop lever

114
Q

What component of an IMER or ITER ejectors unit assembly actuated the store sensing switch

A

The forward suspension hook

115
Q

Practice bomb adapters can be used in conjunction with an IMER/ITER ejector unit assembly for which of the following purposes

A

To attach practice bombs, carry aircraft parachutes flares externally , carry marine location markers externally

116
Q

When empty , the SUU-25F/A weighs how many pounds

A

260 pounds

117
Q

How many breeches are provided for the SUU-25F/A dispenser

A

8

118
Q

The stepper switch on the SUU-25F/A dispenser has what maximum number of functional settings

A

10

119
Q

The AN/ALE-39 magazine dispensing system block has a capacity of what total number of rounds

A

30 rounds

120
Q

What is used with the AN/ALE-38 dispensing system block when assembling the payload

A

Printed wiring board

121
Q

What is used during AN/ALE-39 dispenser payload downloading procedures

A

Chaff sleeve extractor

122
Q

The AN/ALE-47 CMDS is designed to employ electronic and infrared countermeasures according to a program developed and implemented by whom

A

The aircrew

123
Q

During AN/ALE-47 magazine assembly , you must insert the expendable a into the block from what side

A

The breech plate side

march 2016 exam (30 decks)

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