Solid Organ Transplant Flashcards

1
Q

What patients are at the highest risk for organ rejection?

A
  • high panel reactive antibody (PRA levels > 20-80%)
  • HLA mismatching
  • previous organ transplant
  • african american patients
  • younger recipient (< 35) & older donor (> 60)
  • history of autoimmune disease
  • higher risk organs (hep C infected livers)
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2
Q

Define: Panel Reactive Antibody (PRA)

A

a test that measures the precentage of recipients antibodies react against the doners HLA antigens

higher precentage = increased risk of rejection

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3
Q

Define: Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)

A

proteins found on the surface of cells that help cells recognize “self” from “non-self”- matching is crucial to reduce risk of rejection

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4
Q

What are the phases of immunosuppression?

A
  1. induction= high intensity immunosuppression
  2. maintenance= long term immunosuppression to avoid chronic rejection
  3. rejection
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5
Q

What is the purpose of induction phase of immunosuppression?

A

prevents early or immediate after transplant

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6
Q

When should induction immunosuppression therapy be given?

A

before and during transplant

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7
Q

What medications are used for induction immunosuppression therapy?

A
  • antithymocyte globulin (ATG)= T cell depletion
  • basiliximab= IL-2 receptor antagonist
  • high dose corticosteroids
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8
Q

What drugs are considered non-depleting antibodies?

A

basiliximab

low risk patients

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9
Q

What drugs are considered depleting antibodies?

A
  • equine ATG
  • rabbit ATG
  • alemtuzumab

high risk patients

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10
Q

What are the KDIGO recommendations for induction immunosuppressive therapy?

A

use antithymocyte globulin (ATG) in patients with higher immunologic risk: increased HLA mismatch, younger recipients with older donors, african american patients, blood group incompatibility

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of antithymocyte globulins (ATG)?

A

bind and deplete T-lymphocytes

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12
Q

What is the black box warning of antithymocyte globulins (ATG)?

A

must be administered under physician supervision due to anaphylaxis risk

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13
Q

What are the adverse effects of antithymocyte globulins (ATG)?

A
  • infusion-related reactions (fever, chills, hypotension)
  • cytokine release syndrome
  • thrombocytopenia, leukopenia
  • hypertension
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14
Q

What is the monitoring required for antithymocyte globulins (ATG)?

A
  • CBC
  • renal function
  • signs of infection
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15
Q

What are the medications required before administration of antithymocyte globulins (ATG)?

A
  • benadryl
  • acetaminophen
  • corticosteroids

due to infusion-related reactions

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of basliximab?

A

bind IL-2 receptors (CD25) on T cells

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17
Q

What is the black box warning of basliximab?

A

must be administered under physician supervision

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18
Q

What are the adverse effects of basliximab?

A
  • hypertension
  • fever
  • GI upset
  • peripheral edema
  • tremor
  • infection risk
  • upper respiratory tract infection
  • dysuria
  • psypnea
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19
Q

What is the monitoring required for basliximab?

A
  • S/S of infection
  • hypersensitivity reactions
  • liver function
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20
Q

What medications are used during the maintenance phase of immunosuppression?

A
  • calcineurin inhibitors = tacrolimus, cyclosporine
  • antiproliferative agents= mycophenolate, azathioprine
  • mTOR inhibitors= sirolimus, everolimus
  • low dose corticosteroids
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21
Q

What calcineurin inhibitor is associated with greater hypertension and hyperlipidemia?

A

cyclosporine

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22
Q

What calcineurin inhibitor is associated with diabetes and neurotoxicity?

A

tacrolimus

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23
Q

What are the monitoring requirements for calcineurin inhibitors?

cyclosporine & tacrolimus

A
  • trough levels (tacrolimus= 5-15, cyclosporine= 100-400)
  • kidney function (very nephrotoxic!)
  • BP, glucose, lipids, and electrolytes (K+ in particular due to AE of hyperkalemia)
24
Q

What are the drug interactions of calcineurin inhibitors?

A
  • CYP3A4 inhibitors can INCREASE levels (grapefruit juice, azoles, macrolides, diltiazem/verapamil, amiodarone)
  • CYP3A4 inducers can DECREASE levels (rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine, St Johns Wart

narrow therapeutic index, risk of toxicity or rejection

25
Q

What drugs are antiproliferative agents?

A

mycophenolate (Cellcept, Myfortic), azathioprine

26
Q

Which mycophenolate preparation has less GI upset?

A

Myfortic (enteric coated)

27
Q

What are the adverse effects of mycophenolate?

A
  • GI distress (nausea, diarrhea)
  • leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • teratogenic (BBW for pregnancy loss)
28
Q

What is the black box warning of mycophenolate?

A

teratogenic (pregnancy loss)

29
Q

What are the monitoring parameters for mycophenolate?

A
  • CBC
  • liver function
  • renal function
30
Q

What are the patient counseling points for mycophenolate?

A
  • take on an empty stomach
  • avoid pregnancy
  • avoid live vaccines
31
Q

What can be done if the GI effects from mycophenolate become intolerable to the patient?

A

1st choice: reduce dose & divide it, switch to enteric coated form (Myfortic)
2nd choice: administer with food (may decrease absorption), add loperamide (short-term only), or try a different immunosuppressant

32
Q

What are the adverse effects of azathioprine?

A
  • bone marrow suppression (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
  • hepatotoxicity
  • pancreatitis (rare)
33
Q

What are the drug interactions of azathioprine?

A

avoid allopurinol/febuxostat to avoid severe toxicity

TPMT genotyping recommended before use

34
Q

What drugs are mTOR inhibitors?

A

sirolimus, everolimus

35
Q

What is the mechanism of action of mTOR inhibitors?

A

inhibit mTOR= prevents T-cell proliferation and antibody production

36
Q

What is the place in therapy for mTOR inhibitors?

A

add-on to regimens or when patients cannot tolerate calcineurin inhibitors

37
Q

What are the trough goals of the mTOR inhibitors?

A

sirolimus= 10-15, everolimus= 3-8

38
Q

What are the significant drug interactions of mTOR inhibitors?

39
Q

What is the black box warning of mTOR inhibitors?

A

increased risk of infection and malignancy

40
Q

What are the adverse effects of Sirolimus?

A
  • hyperlipidemia
  • edema
  • mouth ulcers
  • myalgias
  • VTE
41
Q

What are the adverse effects of Everolimus?

A
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
  • GI upset
  • rash
  • acne
42
Q

What are the monitoring parameters of mTOR inhibitors?

A
  • CBC
  • LFTs
  • lipids
  • kidney function
43
Q

When should steroids be used in transplant maintenance therapy?

A

stop steriods from induction phase if patient is low immunologic risk, but use lowest effective dose if long-term use warranted

steroid withdrawal can reduce long-term complications from steroid use

44
Q

What are the adverse effects of steroids?

A
  • acute= hyperglycemia, mood changes, insomnia
  • chronic= osteoprosis, weight gain, cushings appearance
45
Q

What are the types of rejection?

A
  • hyperacute rejection (within minutes, remove organ immediately)
  • acute rejection (1 week-3 months post transplant)
  • chronic (progressive immune mediated over several years)
46
Q

What are the steps to treating rejection?

A

1st line: high dose corticosteroids (methylprednisolone)
if severe or steroid resistant: T-cell depleting agents (Thymoglobulin, Alemtuzumab)
antibody-mediated rejection (AMR): preoteasome inhibitors (Bortezomib, Carfilzomib)
if patient is calcineurin inhibitor intolerant: costimulation blocker (Belatacept)

47
Q

What is the management of acute rejection?

A
  • mild cases: high-dose corticosteroids
  • severe/recurrent cases: cellular rejection= lymphocyte depleting agents (Muromonab-CD3), antibody-mediated rejection= plasma exchange, IV immunoglobulin, anti-CD20 antibodies, lymphocyte depleting agents +/- steroids, add mycophenolate or switch antiproliferative agent
48
Q

How can chronic rejection be managed?

A

increase dose of immunosuppressants and/or switch therapies

49
Q

What is the difference between drug-induced nephrotoxicity and kidney rejection?

A

kidney rejection= rapid rise in SCr, proteinuria, T-cell infiltrate evident on biopsy

50
Q

What are the risk associated with rejection treatment?

A
  • infection
  • malignancy
  • bone marrow suppression
51
Q

What are the monitoring parameters while treating rejection?

A
  • regular kidney function tests
  • trough levels of immunosuppressants
  • signs of oppurtunistic infections
52
Q

What infections are a concern while a patient is on immunosuppressants?

A
  • CMV
  • PCP pneumonia
  • UTI
  • candida
53
Q

What drugs can be used for infection prophylaxis while patients recieve immunosuppressants?

A
  • CMV= ganciclovir or valganciclovir x >3 months
  • PCP= bactrim x 3-6 months
  • UTI= bactrim x 6 months
  • candida= fluconazole, clotrimazole lozenge, or nystatin x 1-3 months
54
Q

What kind of malignancy are transplant patients at a high risk for?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

55
Q

What is the goal A1C for transplant patients?

A

7-7.5%

avoid < 6%

56
Q

What is the target BP for transplant patients?

57
Q

What are the preferred medications to treat hypertension in transplant patients?

A

ACE-inhibitors or ARBs