Oncology- Supportive Care Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different treatment options for cancer?

A
  • surgery
  • radiation
  • systemic therapy
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2
Q

What is the general regimens of chemotherapy?

A
  • multiple agents (different mechanisms, effects different points of the cell cycle, avoid toxicity)
  • given in cycles to recover from toxicities (absolute neutrophil count (ANC) > 1.5, platelet count > 10,000, non-hematologic toxicities resolved)
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3
Q

What is Tumor Agnostic Therapies?

A

the same drug is used to treat all canccer types that have the genetic mutation or biomarker that is targeted by the drug

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4
Q

What are the general adverse effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • nausea/vomiting
  • myelosuppression
  • mucositis
  • alopecia
  • diarrhea/constipation
  • neuropathy
  • long term effects= cardiomyopathy, infertility, secondary maligancies
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5
Q

How many patients experience chemotherapy induced nausea/vomiting (CINV)?

A

70-80%

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6
Q

Why is it important to treat chemotherapy induced nausea/vomiting (CINV)?

A
  • impairs QOL
  • increases healthcare resources
  • may compromise adhearance
  • may necessiate chemotherapy dose reduction
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7
Q

What neurotransmitters involved in chemotherapy induced nausea/vomiting (CINV)?

A
  • serotonin
  • dopamine
  • substance P
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8
Q

Define: Acute CINV

A

< 24 hours, peaks hour 5-6

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9
Q

What are the risk factors for acute CINV?

A
  • younger age (<50)
  • female
  • low alcohol intake
  • chemotherapy dose or emetogenicity (risk of inducing N/V)
  • history of motion sickness/morning sickness
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10
Q

Define: Delayed CINV

A

> 24 hours, peaks hour 48-72 hours, duration 6-7 days

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11
Q

What are the risk factors for delayed CINV?

A

poor control of acute CINV

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12
Q

What drugs are serotonin (5-HT3) receptor antagonists?

A
  • dolasteron
  • granisteron
  • ondansetron
  • palonosteron
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13
Q

What is the place in therapy for serotonin receptor antagonists?

A

prophylatic for acute CINV

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14
Q

What are the adverse effects of serotonin receptor antagonists?

A
  • headache
  • increased LFTs
  • constipation
  • QT prolongation
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15
Q

What drugs are Neurokinin (NK) 1 Receptor Antagonists?

A
  • aprepitant (PO and injectable emulsion)
  • fosaprepitant
  • rolapitant
  • netupitant/palonosteron (IV x 1 dose)
  • fosnetupitant/palonosetron (IV x 1 dose)
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16
Q

What is the dosing of Aprepitant PO for CINV?

A

125 mg PO day 1, then 80 mg PO daily on day 2 and 3

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17
Q

What is the place in therapy for Neurokinin (NK) 1 Receptor Antagonist?

A

acute and delayed emesis, recommended for highly emetogenic chemotherapy

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18
Q

What are the adverse effects of Neurokinin (NK) 1 Receptor Antagonist?

A
  • fatigue/asthenia
  • hiccups
  • dyspepsia
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19
Q

What is the place in therapy for corticosteroids?

A

acute and delayed emesis

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20
Q

What is the dosing of corticosteroids for CINV?

A

dexamethasone 8-12 mg (IV or PO)

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21
Q

What are the adverse effects of corticosteroids?

A
  • hyperglycemia
  • insomnia
  • dyspepsia
  • fluid retention
  • mood changes
  • weight gain
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22
Q

What is “standard prophylaxis” for CINV?

A
  • 5-HT3 antagnonist day 1
  • dexamthasone 12 mg day 1, then 8 mg days 2-4
  • NK1 antagonist day 1
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23
Q

What is the use of olanzapine?

A

acute or delayed, dosed 10 mg PO daily days 1-4

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24
Q

What are the adverse effects of olanzapine?

A
  • headache
  • agitation
  • somnolence
  • insomnia
  • tardive dyskinesia
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
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25
Q

What are the non-pharmqacological recommendations for CINV?

A
  • encourage small, frequent bland meals (avoid spicy/greasy foods)
  • encourage patient to keep mind busy
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26
Q

What is the treatment for low emetic risk for parenteral antineoplastic therapies?

A

pick one of the following:
- dexamethasone 8-12mg PO/IV once on the day of chemo
- prochlorperazine 10 mg IV/PO once on the day of chemo
- serotonin antagonist PO once on the day of chemo
- +/- lorazepam 0.5-2mg PO/IV (for anticipatory N/V)

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27
Q

What is the preferred treatment for high emetic risk for parenteral antineoplastic therapies?

A
  • Day 1: Olanzapine 5-10mg PO, serotonin antagonist PO/IV, dexamethasone 12mg PO/IV, NK1 antagonist
  • Day 2-4: Olanzapine 5-10mg PO daily, dexamethasone 8mg daily

regimens with olanzapine is preferred!

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28
Q

What is the recommendation for antiemetic for multiple day parenteral chemotherapy treatment?

A
  • serotonin antagonist with chemotherapy based on N/V risk (palonosetron prior to chemo: may repeat x 1 after 3 days)
  • dexamethasone daily and up to 3 days following chemotherapy
  • aprepitant PO can be given daily up to 5-7 days
  • olanzapine may be given daily and for 2 days following chemotherapy
29
Q

What is the preferred treatment for high-moderate emetic risk for oral antineoplastic therapies?

A
  • prophylaxis= 5-HT3 antagonist daily
  • PRN= metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, 5-HT3 antagonist preferred
30
Q

What is the preferred treatment for low emetic risk for oral antineoplastic therapies?

A

metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, 5-HT antagonist PRN

31
Q

What may be used for breakthrough emesis?

A

treat with a medication in a different class, considering scheduling antiemetics, upgrade prophylaxis regimen for next cycle

32
Q

When does neutropenia effect chemotherapy patients?

A

10-14 days after chemotherapy, recovery is seen in3-4 weeks

33
Q

What are the risk factors for neutropenia?

A
  • chemotherapy agent
  • chemotherapy regimen
  • age > 65
  • organ dysfunction
  • prior treatments
34
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 500/ mm3

35
Q

What are the consequences of neutropenia?

A
  • increased risk of infection (potentially life threatening)= prolonged hospitalization, broad spectrum/high dose antibiotics needed
  • delayed chemotherapy
  • dose reduction
36
Q

What can be used to prevent chemotherapy-induced neutropenia?

A

granulocyte colony stimulating factors (G-CSF)
- filgrastim
- pegfligrastim
- eflapegrastim
- sargramostim (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factors (GM-CSF))

37
Q

What is the dosing of filgrastim?

A

5 mcg/kg/d

38
Q

What are the adverse effects of granulocyte-colony stimulating factors (G-CSF)?

A
  • bone pain
  • allergic reactions
  • pulmonary toxicity in patients receiving bleomycin
  • spenic rupture (rare)
39
Q

What is the dosing of pegfilgrastim?

A

6mg x 1 dose
long acting agent and requires at least 2 weeks between chemotherapy cycles

40
Q

When would prophylaxis therapy be recommended for febrile neutropenia?

A

high risk (>20%)

41
Q

When would decreased dose of colony stimulating factor (CSF) be indicated?

A

febrile neutropenia experienced with prior cycle and prior colony stimulating factor (CSF)

42
Q

When should colony stimulating factor (CSF) be given to chemotherapy patients?

A

24-72 hours after chemotherapy

43
Q

How does pegfilgrastim on body injector work?

A

placed on the body the same day as chemotherapy and injects pegfilgrastim ~27 hours after application

Neulasta OnPro and Udenyca OnBody

44
Q

What is Triliciclib?

A

CDK 4/6 inhibitor that protects RBC, neutrophils, platelets, lymphoctes- only indicated for small cell lung cancer

given prior to chemotherapy

45
Q

When would erthropoiesis stimulating agents (ESA) be indicated chemotherapy induced anemia?

A
  • when other causes of anemia are ruled out (bleeding, hemolysis, deficiencies)
  • hemoglobin < 10 g/dL or Hgb 10-12 g/dL based on clinical judgement
46
Q

What are the treatment options for chemotherapy induced anemia?

A
  • packed RBC transfusion
  • erythropoietin stimulating agents (darbepoetin alfa, epoetin alfa)
47
Q

What is the black box warning of Eeythropoiesis Stimulating Agents (ESA)?

A

increased risk of death, MI, stroke, venous thromboembolism, thrombosis of vascular access, and tumor progression/recurrance
CANCER:
- shortened survival and/or increased risk of tumor progression or recurrance
- to avoid risks, use lowest dose possible to decrease transfusion need
- use only for anemia from myelosuppressive chemotherapy
- do not use when chemotherapy as the anticipated outcome of cure
- discontinue following chemotherapy

48
Q

What may be used to manage thrombocytopenia?

A
  • platelet transfusion
  • chemotherapy dose reduction
  • regimen change
  • thrombopoietin receptor agonist= romiplostim (limited data to support use)
  • triliciclib?
49
Q

What is mucositis?

A

inflammatory lesions of the oral and/or GI tract leading to pain, infection, NPO, dose reduction or delays

50
Q

How can mucositis be prevented?

A
  • good oral care: brushing, flossing, bland rinses, moisturizers
  • PO cryotherapy (extreme cold therapy)
  • recombinant human fibroblast growth factor (KGF1), taken for 3 days prior to chemotherapy
51
Q

What are the treatment options for mucositis?

A
  • topical anesthetics
  • opioids for pain
  • bioadherent gel?
    supersaturated calcium/phosphate products?
52
Q

What are common cutaneous reactions?

A
  • palmar- plantar erythodysesthesia
  • acneiform rash
  • alopecia
  • nail changes/onycholysis
53
Q

What is the main cause of Acneiform rash?

A

EGFR inhibitors

54
Q

What is the prevention of Acneiform rash?

A

tetracyclines (reduce severity)

55
Q

What is the treatment for Acneiform rash?

A

topical or oral antibiotics (clindamycin)

56
Q

What is tumor lysis syndrome?

A

breakdown of tumor cells causing hyperuricemia (= crystallization in kidney, AKI), hyperkalemia (= cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, paralysis), hyperphosphatemia (=binds calcium, hypocalcemia, AKI), hypocalcemia (muscle cramps, confusion, memory loss, delirium, depression, hallucinations)

emergency!!!

57
Q

What are the risk factors for tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • larger tumor burden
  • sensitive to treatment
  • pre-existing/spontaneous tumor lysis
  • leukemia
  • high grade & low grade lymphoma
  • solid tumors
58
Q

What is the prevention of tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • hydration as tolerated
  • allopurinol (300 mg/d)
  • rasburicase (if uric acid is increased prior to chemotherapy initiation)
59
Q

What is the treatment for tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  • hyperuricemia (hydration, allopurinol, rasburicase)
  • hyperkalemia (sodium zirconium cyclosilicate, patiromer, rapid acting insulin + dextrose, abormal ECG = calcium gluconate)
  • hyperphosphatemia (aluminum hydroxide, sevelamer)
  • hypocalcemia (no treatment, unless symptomatic, then minimal calcium supplementation)
  • dialysis in severe or refractory cases
60
Q

What is hypercalcemia of malignancy?

A

direct induction of osteolysis by tumor cells by cytokines

common in breast, multiple myeloma, lymphoma

61
Q

What is humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy?

A

common in non-metastatic solid tumors, tumor production of vit D analouges and secretion of PTHrP

poor prognosis

62
Q

What are the clinical signs/symptoms of hypercalcemia?

A
  • weakness, lethargy, confusion, stupor, coma
  • constipation, anorexia, nausea
    -acute renal failure
  • QT shortening/arrhythmias

mild/moderate hypercalcema (<12 mg/dL) may be asymptomatic

63
Q

What is the treatment of hypercalcemia?

A
  • hydration with NS
  • avoid diuretics (generally pt are dehydrated)
  • calcitonin (4 units/kg subQ q12h for 48h)- generally stops working 48-72hours of use
  • bisphosphonates (takes time to benefit)
  • denosumab (refractory situations)
64
Q

What is the dosing of bisphosphonates for hypercalcemia?

A
  • pamidronate 60-90 mg IV over 4-24 hours
  • zoledronic 4mg IV over 15 minutes

no clinical difference, wait 7 days between treatments

65
Q

What is febrile neutropenia?

A

neutropenia + single PO temp > 101 OR 100.4+ for at least an hour

66
Q

When would a patient be at low infection risk?

A

anticipated neutropenia less than 7 days

67
Q

When would a patient be at high infection risk?

A

anticipated neutropenia > 10 days