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Captains Exam > SOGs > Flashcards

SOGs Flashcards

0
Q

All use of training centre shall be scheduled through which division?

A

The division of training

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1
Q

According to the Training center sog: all instructors/supervisors and safety officers shall have received instruction in what NFPA standard

A

NFPA STANDARD 1403

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2
Q

LFIC DUTIES.

Any deficiencies or damage to the training tower must be documented and forwarded to?

A

Division chief of training

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3
Q

LFIC DUTIES

Who must be notified if conditions are such that smoke will not quickly dissipate?

A

Comm
Chrysler
Division of App and Maint
Works and transportation

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4
Q

If wind is blowing directly to North towards Chrysler such that they may be adversely affected, what action should be taken by LFIC?

A

Postpone live fire training.

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5
Q

During a live fire training scenario the LFIC shall assign the following personnel:

A

A) live fire safety officer
B) 1 instructor/sup to each funct crew entering structure (not more than 5 students)
C) 1 instructor/sup to backup line along with RIT
D) entry control/accountability
E) ignition officer

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6
Q

Who shall assist the ignition officer with lighting fires?

A

The live fire safety officer

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7
Q

During a live fire the Ignition Officer shall:

A

A) not be a participant in the exercise
B) control the materials being burned
C) in presence of safety officer ignite fire(s)
D) ensure a charged hose line accompanies them when igniting a fire

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8
Q

No more than how many pallets may be used to start a fire?

A

No more than 4.

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9
Q

Who shall supply the ignition device, which shall be the only method used to ignite fires?

A

The division of training

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10
Q

Fuels used during live fire shal have known burning characteristics such as?

A

Clean wooden pallets, paper and straw.

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11
Q

How often shall the structural integrity of the live fire building be evaluated and documented by an engineer with live fire building experience and expertise?

A

Once a year.

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12
Q

During a live fire training exercise what is the minimum flow each hose line shall be capable of delivering?

A

360 L/min

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13
Q

After an exercise rescue mannequins should be placed where and any damage to mannequins reported to who?

A

Inside live fire training building or training equipment storage container, and damage to mannequin reported to the division of training.

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14
Q

Equipment hoisted by the roof crane shall be secured by what?

A

Strap(s) or bag meant for that purpose supplied by division of training.

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15
Q

The roof crane shall hoist no more than how many pallets at a time?

A

No more than 4 pallets.

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16
Q

No person shall be located in the hatched area below the crane or in an open area on the steel stairway not covered by a landing when?

A

During the operation of the crane.

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17
Q

According to officer skills checklist for ff sog; within how many calendar days prior to examination date shall officers complete the skills check sheet?

A

90 calendar days.

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18
Q

According to DOCUMENTATION OF TRAINING SOG; the training session record report shall be?

A

Saved, printed and all personnel that participated shall sign the report.

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19
Q

According to DOC OF TRAINING SOG; the signed copy of training session record report should be sent to?

A

The training division.

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20
Q

According to CAPTAIN MENTORING PROG SOG; future and new mentees will be provided an opportunity aquqint the,selves with the position for how many hours and under who’s supervision?

A

For 80 hours under direct supervision of a Captain.

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21
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for the actions of their crew under the mentoring program?

A

The Captain.

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22
Q

Personnel eligible to write next exam or new acting captains may initiate mentoring program by requesting it through who?

A

Their Captain.

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23
Q

Personnel may qualify for the mentoring program by doing what?

A

Successfully completing a 50 question written exam and attaining a mark of 70%.

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24
Q

Upon successful completion of the mentoring exam, the completed exam shall be sent to who?

A

The training division and the respective district chief.

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25
Q

Who shall facilitate the mentoring process?

A

The respective district chief.

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26
Q

According to the PEER SUPPORT SOG; examples of significant incidents are?

A
  1. Serious injury or death of fire or other emerg personnel
  2. Mass casualty
  3. Suicide of fire service member
  4. Serious injury or death of civilian from fire ops.
  5. Death or violence to child
  6. Loss of life or death of patient after extraordinary and prolonged phys and emotional energy during rescue efforts.
  7. Incidents that attract critical media coverage
  8. Incident charged with profound emotion
  9. Circumstances were so unusual or distressing as to produce a high level of immediate or delayed emotional reaction.
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27
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; a crisis is defined as?

A

A sudden and unexpected situation in which one is confronted with circumstances that are outside their usual life experience and outside of their control.

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28
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; a crisis intervention is?

A

Initial support intending to mitigate and normalize the effects of a crisis.

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29
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; a significant incident is defined as?

A

Challenging events that have the potential to create significant human distress and can overwhelm ones coping behaviours.

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30
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; who shall make a courtesy call to on-call PST member through comm if a member or crew have been exposed to a significant incident?

A

The Incident Commander

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31
Q

According to the PEER SUPPORT SOG; within how many hours of the incident should a CIS defusing take place?

A

Within 8-12 hours of the incident.

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32
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; how long shall a CIS diffusing session last?

A

A CIS defusing shall last up to one hour.

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33
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; a CIS debriefing (with PST members and a mental health professional/counsellor) shall be conducted within how long of the incident?

A

A CIS debriefing shall take place within 24 - 72 hours of the incident.

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34
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; CIS debriefing sessions shall last how long?

A

CIS debriefing sessions shall last up to 3 hours.

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35
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; who has the authority to relieve a member of duty/remove from service following a significant incident?

A

The District/Platoon Chief (or Division Chief).

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36
Q

According to PEER SUPPORT SOG; when a member is unable to return to duty following a significant incident who shall be notified?

A

The on-duty Chief.

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37
Q

According to OCCUPANT SUPPORT SOG; the IC may establish occupant support when modified duties personnel are available and under what conditions?

A

A) at all structure fires

B) at any incident deemed necessary by the IC

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38
Q

According to ON SCENE TIMES SOG; when are on-scene times implemented?

A

IC can request on scene times at any incident, however they will be implemented automatically for structure fires.

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39
Q

According to ON SCENE TIMES SOG; on scene time shall be announced to the IC by fire control at what intervals?

A

On scene times shall be announced to IC by fire control at 10 minute intervals.

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40
Q

When the on scene time is announced to the IC the IC shall reply with the following three things/responses?

A

A) acknowledge the on scene time
B) update on strategic mode (offensive or defensive)
C) update on benchmarks

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41
Q

According to ON SCENE TIME SOG; when shall on scene times discontinue or be ceased?

A

Once loss stopped has been achieved or upon request of the IC if conditions warrant.

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42
Q

According to CAD MOVEUP SOG; what is the allotted window time for dispatched MOVEUP apparatus to arrive at stations or response zone?

A

A 10-12 minute window has been set up for achieving move ups.

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43
Q

According to CAD MOVEUP SOG; the 10-12 minute window for moveups has been set based on what assumptions?

A

A) 4-6 minute response time of first apparatus
B) 1-2 minutes for first truck to give report and establish command where the report would necessitate either 1) moveups /2) return trucks
C) 4-5 minutes allowing MOVEUP trucks to arrive at vacant stations or to new response zone.

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44
Q

According to CAD MOVEUPS SOG; what are the criteria for a MOVEUP?

A

A) command established and has not released other trucks
B) command established and has announced “working fire” or is committed to an emerg op.
C) when status of truck returning to stn is ‘ou of service ‘
D) when truck not in its area but is available for calls
E) when truck taken out of service for dept business (training, maint)
F) when numerous incoming calls are received reporting a serious emergency

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45
Q

According to the MISSING/DEFECTIVE COMM EQUIP SOG; the Platoon Chief shall conduct an investigation if the value of the missing equipment exceeds?

A

The platoon chief will conduct an investigation of the value of the missing comm equipment exceeds $300.00

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46
Q

According to the RESIDENTIAL CONSTRUCTION FIRES SOG; what is to be determined by the first arriving captain for the SOG to apply?

A

The fire must include homes that are un-bricked and pose a significant conflagration hazard.

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47
Q

According to RESIDENTIAL CONSTRUCTION FIRES SOG; what is the responsibility of the first arriving apparatus?

A

The first arriving apparatus should hit a hydrant and use its master stream to protect the first downwind exposure. Additional 65mm handlines should be laid.

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48
Q

According to RESIDENTIAL CONSTRUCTUON SOG; what is the responsibility of the second arriving apparatus?

A

The second truck should hit a hydrant and use its master stream to protect the exposure(s) at the other side of the fire. Additional 65mm lines should be laid.

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49
Q

According to RESIDENTIAL CONSTRUCTION FIRES SOG; what shall additional arriving apparatus be responsible for?

A

Additional arriving apparatus should concentrate on extinguishment of the fire and the downwind exposures as directed by the IC.

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50
Q

According to the HIGH RISE SOG; first alarm responsibilities may include?

A
  • determine incident location and details by speaking with super and referring to the annunciation panel
  • access security box keys, take what is needed and leave the rest with a trustworthy person (driver)
  • establish lobby sector
  • deliver message to tenants where voice controls avail
  • secure elevators to the ground floor, where controls available
  • assign an elevator operator, who may double as ECP during initial ops
  • bring a high-rise kit
  • where fire suspected, the driver closest to the standpipe/sprinkler connection should connect dry lines from the truck, then await orders from IC to charge the lines.
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51
Q

According to the HIGHRISE FIRE SOG; search and rescue shall be carried out with threat to life being the priority. Other areas to be searched in the following priority may include?

A 
A) suite of origin
B) fire floor hallway
C) adjacent suites
D) suite immediately above the fire unit
E) remainder of the suites on the fire floor
F) all stairways in their entirety
G) floor immediately below the fire unit
H) remainder of affected areas
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52
Q

According to HIGH RISE SOG; the priority of the areas searched may be adapted due to what conditions?

A

Search priorities may be adapted due to exposure to smoke and fire.

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53
Q

According to the HIGH RISE SOG; what are the three tactical areas during a high rise incident?

A

1) the Lobby (lobby sector)
2) the forward staging area
3) the tenant/media relations area.

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54
Q

According to the HIGH RISE SOG; the lobby may be used for what during a high rise emergency?

A

A) control and communications - ‘lobby sector’
B) instruction to tenants, if properly equipped
C) monitoring incident progress
D) initial assembly/staging area for crews, supplies and equipment
E) staging area for other agencies
F) medical triage
G) crew rehab
H) distribution point for evacuated tenants

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55
Q

According to the HIGH RISE SOG; where is the forward staging area to be located?

A

The forward staging area shall be located at least two floors below the incident.

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56
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; the forward staging area may be used for?

A 
A) staging area for personnel prior to entry to hot zone
B) forward entry control point
C) forward staging area for RIT
D) initial rehab
E) initial medical triage
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57
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; what are some safety considerations?

A
  • ensure tactics do not compromise building protection devices
  • ensure smoke is controlled
  • ensure evacuation of occupants is controlled and routes are separate from ops and smoke control
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58
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; additional alarms shall be initiated at the discretion of the IC when obvious fire is progressing to point where it has the potential to?

A

A) further endanger life and safety of persons in the building
B) spread horizontally on the fire floor or vertically inside building
C) break out to the building exterior with subsequent exposure threats

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59
Q

HIGHRISE SOG; where annunciation panels show multiple indications the floors shall be checked in what order?

A

They shall be checked from the floor closest to the ground, then proceed up.

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60
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; when can you consider silencing the alarms?

A

If no problem is found on alarm floor, check floors below and above, if safe to do so consider silencing alarms to improve communications and reduce inconvenience to tenants.

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61
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; during additional alarms personnel assigned to lobby sector shall ensure the following activations? Where such are available.

A

A) mechanical ventilation shutdown
B) building smoke control
C) release of automatic door closures and exit door locks
D) fire telephones in operation

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62
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; when manpower is avail evacuees should be initially moved where?

A

Evacuees should be moved at least three floors below the lowest involved floor to a safe refuge area.

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63
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; what distance should exclusion zones be designated at?

A

Exclusion zones should be marked around the building and should be at least 50 metres in all directions.

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64
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; for fire or smoke discovered the recommended message is? And how often should this message be updated?

A

“Please remain in your suite. Do not use elevators. Dial 911 if u require help”.
Update the message every five minutes.

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65
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; what are the recommended updates?

A

1) we are dealing with an emergency on the 3rd floor. Standby for…
2) we are in control of a fire on the 3rd floor. Standby for….
3) we have extinguished a fire on the 3rd floor. Standby for…

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66
Q

HIGH RISE SOG; for evacuation of tenants what is the recommended message and op how often is it repeated.

A

Key only the desired floors. “People on the 6th floor should now leave the building. People on other floors please remain I your suites. Dial 911 if you need help”
Repeat this message with designated floors if necessary every 3 minutes.

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67
Q

INCIDENT COMMAND TERMINOLOGY OF COMMAND SOG; what is an incident action plan (IAP)?

A

An IAP is a strategic plan developed by evaluating conditions, developing tactical approaches, id avail resources and preparing assignments. Based on achieving the 3 tactical priorities:

1) life safety
2) stabilize the incident
3) prevention of further loss/preservation of property

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68
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; according to this SOG how do you define Level 1 staging?

A

Second alarm responding units stage in an area which is a safe distance from the scene which allows for quick response when ordered into action.

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69
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; what is level 2 staging?

A

Level 2 staging is usually utilized during incidents that are large, complex or lengthy. Units are staged together in a specific location under command of a staging coordinator.

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70
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; CAN report includes?

A

CONDITIONS encountered
ACTIONS being performed
NEEDS any further needs

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71
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; according to CAN report the conditions of smoke can be defined as?

A

Light smoke -smoke that can be seen through
Moderate smoke - smoke that obscures vision
Heavy smoke - cannot be seen through

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72
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; according to CAN report, heat conditions are defined as?

A

Light heat - allows standing
Moderate heat - stand for short durations
High heat -does not allow standing

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73
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; according to CAN report, ACTIONS are defined as?

A

Progress on current assignment
Tasks completed, or unable to complete (primary search, agent app)
Moving location, ie floors

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74
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; according to CAN report how are NEEDS defined?

A

What is needed to complete the assignment

Try to provide solutions for needs (ventilation)

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75
Q

IC TERMINOLOGY SOG; what information should be included during the transfer of command?

A 
I - Incident Action Plan
P - Progress made so far
A - Additional resources required, if any
S - Safety considerations
S - Sector assignments
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76
Q

IC COMMAND COMMUNICATIONS SOG; according to this SOG what are the four major benchmarks?

A

1) agent applied
2) all clear
3) under control
4) loss stopped

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77
Q

IC SECTORING SOG; SECTORING can assist the IC by maintaining an acceptable span of control, by apx how many sectors?

A

5-6 sectors is an acceptable span of control.

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78
Q

EXPLOSIVE DEVICE EMERG SOG; according to this SOG the inner zone (area immediately around a suspected explosive device) is typically set at what value?

A

The area is typically set with an approximate 100 metre radius.

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79
Q

EXPLOSIVE DEVICE EMERG SOG; the outer zone (the area around a suspected explosive device, where first responders are to report to) is set at what appx area.

A

This area is typically set with an approximate 300 metre radius.

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80
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; under what circumstances shall the IC appoint an Accountability Officer?

A

A) second alarm or greater incidents
B) high rise emergencies as the situation escalates. Should have one ECP in lobby for warm zone, and one ECP in forward staging area for hot zone.
C) when there are two or more ECPs (ex large enclosed structure fire)
D) any incident where the IC believes it is required.

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81
Q

ACOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; who shall act as the ECP?

A

The first arriving driver shall act as the initial ECP. The first dedicated ECP will be the driver of the third arriving apparatus.

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82
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; when assigned the role of ECP, the ECP shall?

A

A) obtain a radio and entry control kit
B) don a vest
C) position proximal to entry
D) inform IC of location.
E) do a safety check of personnel (ppe) passing thru entry control point
F) collect pits from everyone passing thru entry control point
G) attach pits to entry control board
H) record times that personnel enter and exit the hot zone
I) record assignments and locations of personnel working in hot zone
J) record assignment changes on entry control board
K) monitor times of personnel vs suspected air cylinder time
L) notify IC or sector officer if any personnel are unaccounted for or seem to be reaching scba time limits
M) report to IC
N) conduct or participate in PARS
O) ensure non fire personnel entering hot zone are accompanied by fire personnel
P) ECPs shall forward their completed worksheets to IC to go to Admin

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83
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; according to this SOG the accountability officer shall?

A

A) obtain kit for Chiefs vehicle or command post
B) situate close to IC
C) obtain a radio or be near one
D) manage acct/entry control and aid the IC by monitoring location and assignment of personnel for duration of operation
E) assist in tracking of personnel
F) conduct a PAR if ordered by IC

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84
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY / ENTRY CONTROL SOG; at a fire incident when shall a PAR be conducted?

A

At a fire incident a PAR shall be called after the fire is reported under control and there is a primary all clear on all floors.

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85
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; The IC may call a PAR when events are cause for concern, these events could be?

A 
A) report of missing ff
B) when a Mayday has been called
C) building collapse
D) rapid fire extension
E) explosion
F) emergency evacuation
G) switching from offensive to defensive
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86
Q

ACCOUNTABILITY/ENTRY CONTROL SOG; when a PAR is being called radio silence must be maintained, what is the only situation that may interrupt radio silence?

A

Emergency traffic comm, ie Urgent message, evacuation alert or mayday.

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87
Q

ACOUNTABILITY ENTRY CONTROL SOG; the Running Par shall be announced at the conclusion of every radio communication that indicates:?

A

A) entering or exiting the hit zone
B) a change of location
C) a change or completion of tasks
D) when requested by the IC

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88
Q

RIT SOG; when shall a RIT be established?

A

RIT shall be established ASAP, when personnel are working in the hot zone or when IC deems it necessary.

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89
Q

RIT SOG; when is the only time a RIT may not be required.

A

RIT may not be required if a fire is being fought defensively.

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90
Q

RIT SOG; what are the actions to be take for Level 1 RIT?

A 
A) gather info
B) RIT worksheet
C) stage equipment
D) discuss with IC safety officer and ECP
E) get to know structure layout
F) 360
G) locate secondary means of egress
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91
Q

RIT SOG; level 1 RIT equipment may include the following?

A 
A) ppe and scba
B) RIT kit
C) tag line
D) flashlights
E) tic
F) forcible entry tools, irons
G) cutters
H) straps (rescue)
I) ladders
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92
Q

RIT SOG; under worsening conditions RIT may move to level 2, what are the actions taken during level 2 RIT?

A

A) continue to gather info
B) secure a power supply
C) prepare lighting
D) ensure multiple means of egress (ladder windows and roofs, cut bars, chains and locks.

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93
Q

RIT SOG; level 2 RIT may require the following equipment?

A 
A) all level 1 equip
B) lights
C) additional more powerful forcible entry tools (k12 & bullet saw)
D) cribbing and shoring
E) hydraulics and air bags
F) additional ladders
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94
Q

RIT SOG; a MAYDAY shall initiate Level 3 RIT and rescue operations shall begin. Level 3 RIT actions may include?

A

A) gathering info
B) preparing to make entry
C) assess alternate means of egress
D) stage additional equipment ( level 3 RIT equipment will include level 1 and 2 RIT equipment)

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95
Q

RIT SOG; once RIT has been deployed the IC will assign what?

A

Once RIT is deployed the IC will assign an additional RIT to the point of entry and assign a medical sector of three fire personnel.

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96
Q

RIT SOG; the completion of an audible search shall be communicated to the IC by stating?

A

The RIT team shall communicate that there is an “audible all clear”

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97
Q

RIT SOG; what are the RIT benchmarks?

A

A) firefighter located
B) firefighter converted and on air
C) firefighter removal underway and the route (ie via hoseline to alpha side.
D) firefighter removed from structure

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98
Q

ISO SOG; what are the ISO’s duties?

A
  • be identifiable (blue helmet and vest)
  • obtain a radio from DC
  • survey scene with safety checklist
  • formulate a hazard risk assessment
  • ensure air quality monitoring
  • oversee operation of re-hab unit
  • have authority to halt, suspend or alter activities they deem unsafe or hazardous to personnel and communicate to IC
  • take whatever action needed thru sector officer than IC to ensure safety of crews
  • attend post incident analysis
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99
Q

GROW OPS / CLANDESTINE LABS SOG; upon discovery of such who should be requested to the scene?

A

Police, ambulance, fire prevention and hydro.

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100
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; if there are hazmat materials present / suspected and no fire conditions exist the IC shall?

A

A) immediately remove personnel from the area

B) consider a hazmat response and subsequent ops.

101
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB; where must electricity be de-energized for a grow lab or clandestine lab?

A

For a marijuana grow lab the IC shall consider that the structure must be electrically de-energized for the street, not at the meter, but for a clandestine lab the IC shall consider that no part of the equipment is shut down including hydro to the structure.

102
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; the IC should consider withdrawal from the structure until such time as:?

A

A) hydro has confirmed de-energizing of the premise
B) adequate evil katies has occurred
C) an incident reconnaissance takes place (check for hazards/safety issues)

103
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; what must be done prior to,leaving the scene for scene termination?

A

A) shut off natural gas
B) police are available to secure scene
C) debrief with fire prevention
D) ensure witness statements are completed

104
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; what are the key indicators of a marijuana grow lab?

A 
A) little or no furniture
B) exterior in state of disrepair
C) excessive condensation
D) audible humming
E) plants and indoor lighting
F) efforts of concealment 
G) excessive mould
H) silver flex pipe
105
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; what are the key indicators of a clandestine lab?

A 
A) common household chemicals
B) lab equipment
C) unusual plumbing and venting
D) drug paraphernalia
E) containers with multi layered liquids
F) propane tanks with blue fittings
106
Q

GROW LAB CLANDESTINE LAB SOG; what are some special hazards for grow labs?

A

A) elec wiring not to code
B) trip and tangle hazards
C) lighting - explosive hazards
D) compartmentation - structural alterations
E) means of egress - stairway removed, doors and windows obstructed
F) chemicals - fertilizers, oxidizes
G) CO2 - alteration to heating and ventilation
H) ventilation - may increase heat detainment
I) perps on scen

107
Q

KEY TAG SOG; according to this SOG the residential key box keys are organized into four groups, what are they?

A

RED TAG - FIRE FLOOR may include front door, master, suite master, smoke shaft and elevator
GREEN TAG - LOBBY may include alarm panel key and fire alarm room
YELLOW TAG - OTHER may include utility, electrical, office, garbage
BLUE TAG - SPARE - may include extras of any keys

108
Q

MAYDAY SOG; according to this SOG, what is the avg time to mobilize and locate a victim after a mayday has been called is?

A

10 minutes.

109
Q

MAYDAY SOG; according to the SOG a mayday may be declared:?

A

A) by personnel who are lost trapped or in trouble (low or no air)
B) by an IC, sector officer or anyone who cannot account for individuals
C) by anyone who witnesses or has first hand knowledge that other personnel are lost trapped or in trouble

110
Q

MAYDAY SOG; describe the acronym LUNAR

A

L - location (surroundings, floor, etc..)
U - unit number (P201)
N - name (firefighter McGowan)
A - assignment (sector, task etc…fire sector) and (cylinder pressure)
R - radio equipped and resources needed.

111
Q

MAYDAY SOG; when is the only time that the orange emergency button will not work?

A

In talk-around mode.

112
Q

EMERGENCY TRAFFIC SOG; examples to initiate emergency traffic communications are:?

A
  • critical fire conditions (flashover signs)
  • other critical changing conditions
  • concern for collapse
  • loss of water supply
113
Q

SECTOR WORK CYCLES SOG; what are the responsibilities of the ‘on-deck’ crew?

A
  • assemble with full PPE (scba) and one additional air cylinder per ff
  • bring additional equip ( tic, spare RIT equip, and tools)
  • notify IC they are on deck
  • determine location of personnel working in the hot zone
  • assess building conditions
  • ensure rotation is understood
  • relieve personnel in the hot zone when ordered by IC
114
Q

WORK CYCLE SOG; according to the SOG if you are ‘on-deck’ then you should not be?

A

Breathing on SCBA.

115
Q

WORK CYCLE SOG; on deck crews can perform warm zone functions such as:?

A

A) perimeter control
B) gathering equip
C) RIT

116
Q

LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION SOG; according to this SOG when did engineered flooring systems first come to Brampton?

A

After 1985.

117
Q

LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION SOG; if the the IC is unable to determine the type of construction in a fire building built post 1970 it shall be assumed that?

A

Engineered roof trusses are present.

118
Q

LIGHTWEIGHT CONSTRUCTION SOG; if the IC is unable to determine the type of construction in a fire building built post 1990, it shall be assumed that?

A

Lightweight flooring is present.

119
Q

ROOF OPS SOG; personnel operating on a roof shall:?

A
  • provide an alternate means of emerg escape to initial rt of access
  • conduct a hazard-risk-analysis
    a) determine type of roof
    b) location of fire
    c) length of time of burning and impact on building integrity
    plus existence of heavy object (hvac)
  • wear ppe and being equip
  • personnel kept to a minimum
  • take reasonable precautions where there is risk of fall thru roof
  • approach from upwind
  • sound the path of travel
  • coordinate roof vent with interior ops
  • avoid cutting vent holes on steel comm roofs
  • when roof ops finished, exit roof promptly
120
Q

RUNOFF SOG; according to SOG what are some methods used to confine contaminated runoff?

A

Trenching, damming, diversion and retention.

121
Q

RUNOFF SOG; when foam or hazmat enter a storm system or other waterway what shall the IC do?

A

The IC shall request fire control to advise Peel Spill Coordinator, who will contact the Ministry of the Environment as required.

122
Q

LARGE ENCLOSED STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; a large enclosed structure is defined as?

A

A structure in which there is limited number of doors and windows sufficient in size and number to provide adequate emerg evacuation.

123
Q

LARGE ENCLOSED STRUCTURE SOG; a large enclosed structure is considered one that is approximately what size?

A

Approximately 30m x 30m or greater.

124
Q

LARGE ENCLOSED STRUCTURE SOG; one should consider alternative entrances to limit hose line lengths to less than ___ into a building?

A

Limit hose line lengths to less than 60m into a large enclosed structure.

125
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; when should first first alarm apparatus, in particular personnel expected to arrive first on scene begin their size up?

A

During their response.

126
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; according to the SOG the first arriving apparatus on scene shall:?

A 
A) provide initial report of the scene
B) perform initial size up, gather info
C) develop an incident action plan
D) assign duties to apparatus personnel
E) relay any other info to control and incoming apparatus
127
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; according to the SOG the initial report to fire control shall include?

A

A) apparatus on scene
B) location, particularly if different than dispatched
C) type of structure, residential, institutional, commercial or industrial
D) size of structure, height/floors
E) building construction, if known - masonry, brick, wood, siding
F) brief report of fire and smoke conditions
G) captain is establishing and designating command “P201 will be Steeles Command”

128
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; the designation of command shall be a name unique to one of three things?

A

A) street name - Steeles command
B) business name - Chrysler command
C) apparatus - P201 command

129
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; where practical and possible conduct a 360 of the building with a TIC to help?

A

A) better formulate an incident action plan
B). Locate hazards
C) attempt to assess floors above and below the fire
D) attempt to determine if the fire involves the structure (or just a contents fire)

130
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; first on scene captain must attempt to gather info from homeowners, bystanders employees etc. some important questions are?

A

A) is everyone out of the structure? If not:
- how many inside
- how old, children elderly etc
- where do they think they are
- last seen
B) where is the fire
C) what is burning
D) how do you get there

131
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; what is the pertinent info that should be relayed to fire control and incoming apparatus?

A

A) opearting mode - offensive or defensive
B) status of occupants - everyone out, still inside…how many
C) location of fire
D) designate alpha side
E) request additional resources - police, ambulance hydro
F) downgrade - have additional apparatus respond non-emerg
G) establish hot warm and cold zone
H) other info,

132
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; what are the first alarm responsibilities?

A

A) initial report
B) size-up and info gathering
C) develop an incident action plan (offensive, rescue, defensive etc)
D) assign sectors
E) protect on scene personnel and civilians
F) fire attack
G) initiate primary search and rescue
H) establish a plan for ventilation - ppv, ppa, negative
I)water supply
J) assign ISO
K) establish entry control
L) set up RIT at required level
M) exposure protection
N) preplans
O) relay arrival of police ambulance etc to control
P) relay pertinent info
Q) any other duty or assignment as directed by IC

133
Q

STRUCTURE FIRE SOG; the IC shall continually assess the benefits of maintaining an interior offensive strategy versus risk to personnel. Considerations shall include?

A

A) what are the smoke and fire conditions
B) are ff gaining Control of the fire
C) is the structure being threatened by the fire
D) are ff close to an exit
E) are good control and communications being maintained with interior crews.

134
Q

COLOUR CODES SOG; what are the colour codes used by BFES and what are their meaning?

A

G - code green, suspected grow lab
R - code red, police assistance required
O - code orange, communicable disease involved
B - code blue, suspected attempted suicide
Y - code yellow, use extreme caution

CODE 5 - obvious signs of death

135
Q

BREATHING APPARATUS SOG; when may personnel remove their scba?

A

A) when the hot zone has been ventilated and cooled for 24 hours
B) when the IC has deemed the wearing of scba optional.

136
Q

VEHICLE LOCK-OUT SOG; when arriving at the scene of a vehicle lockout personnel shall?

A

A) obtain name of owner/driver
B) obtain veh plate #
C) obtain brief description of the veh
D) ensure driver will cover costs of damage to veh

137
Q

VEHICLE LOCKOUT SOG; what are the non-emergency options to gain entry that the driver shall be informed of?

A 
A) request a tow truck
B) summon a locksmith
C) contact a dealership
D) roadside assistance
E) CAA
138
Q

FIRST APPARATUS AT A MVC SOG; the first apparatus arriving on scene to a MVC shall stabilize the scene by doing the following in priority sequence:?

A

A) traffic control
B) deploy a charged 38mm foam line if required
C) deal with safety hazards, hydro lines, fuel spills
D) ensure adequate lighting

139
Q

FIRST TRUCK MVC SOG; the first apparatus will stabilize the vehicle by:?

A

A) cribbing
B) consider disconnecting the battery
C) airbag restraint

140
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; according to the SOG a Level 1 Opearation (standby) involves what?

A

Involves a typical entrapment in an elevating device where responders may standby for elev mechanic, the incident is deemed to be non-life threatening.

141
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; what are the criteria to move the elevator rescue call to Level 2 operations (removal)?

A
  • the entrapment time has exceeded 90 minutes
  • incident involves non-life threatening conditions with med factors
  • involves severe environmental factors ie high temps in the car
    Passive measures will be used for extrication.
142
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; what is the criteria to go to Level 3 ops(rescue)?

A

Involves circumstances where there is an immediate threat to life or extreme environmental factors,
Forceful measures are warranted for extrication.

143
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; during level 1 operations (standby), the elevator Maint company name and emerg telephone number should be located and forwarded to fire control for action. Where can the telephone numbers be located?

A

The numbers should be locates in one of the following:
A) fire safety plan lockbox
B) elevator machine room

144
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; according to the SOG, who’s responsibility is it to put the car back in service upon completion of the extrication?

A

The responsibility for placing the car back into service belongs to the elevator service rep.

145
Q

ELEVATOR RESCUE SOG; after extrication of passengers and clearing the scene while leaving elevator security the responsibility of the building super, what is the final step for the IC.?

A

Have fire control advise TSSA of the incident.

146
Q

MEDICAL RESPONSE SOG; if possible, at what distance should you ask a patient if they have a cough or a fever?

A

From a distance of 1 - 1.5m

147
Q

MEDICAL RESPONSE SOG; when an apparatus arrives prior to ambulance during a pandemic the captain shall ensure personnel having contact with the patient is limited to how many people?

A

2 people.

148
Q

MAR SOG; who’s responsibility is it to ensure the MAR form is completed fully for all incidents in which the defibrillator was connected or symptom assist treatment was provided?

A

It is the responsibility of the defibb operator.

149
Q

MAR SOG; when is a mar not required?

A

When the ambulance is first on the scene.

150
Q

MAR SOG; what shall be done with each colour copy of the MAR when the defibb has been used?

A

White copy - given to the attending paramedic
Yellow copy - a) ensure completed by the defibb operator
- b) ensure completed yellow copy is placed in sealed “CONFIDENTIAL” envelope and left at station for Med Training Officer

151
Q

MAR SOG; what shall be done with mar upon returning to station where defibb not used?

A

The mar shall be placed into a sealed “CONFIDENTIAL” envelope and forwarded to the Division of Training.

152
Q

DESIGNATED OFFICER SOG; what is the protocol after exposure?

A

A) report a possible unprotected exposure to immediate supervisor
B) seek immediate medical care if required
C) complete a workplace injury report

153
Q

DESIGNATED OFFICER SOG; what shall the immediate supervisor (captain) do upon exposure of a firefighter?

A

The immediate supervisor shall notify the on-duty designated officer (thru comm) and the appropriate District/Platoon/Division Chief as soon as possible.

154
Q

DNR SOG; how will the Captain ensure a DNR is valid?

A

A valid DNR will have a unique serial number and have all fields completed in full a) patient name

                        b) tick box to meet conditions
                        c) a signature by physician or nurse
                        d) the date the form was signed.
155
Q

DNR SOG; when DNR is not present and family says there is one and refuse you access to the patient, what should your actions be?

A

Remain on scene until an ambulance arrives to transfer care.

156
Q

EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPS SOG; what is the process for crossing on a red signal/stop sign?

A

A) come to a complete stop
B) establish eye contact with drivers of other vehicles
C) wait for captain to communicate it is all clear
D) apply a two second count and then proceed with caution.

157
Q

EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPS SOG; at what distance should the Sri eR ensure his back spotter is at?

A

The driver shall ensure that a spotter is in place 8-10 feet at the left rear of the unit.

158
Q

EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPS; when backing into a station the driver must bring the apparatus to a complete stop approximately how far from the bay door?

A

Approximately 3 metres from the bay door.

159
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; according to the SOG a safe working zone is?

A

An are determined by the IC where rescue, extrication or firefighting activities may take place.

160
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; according to the SOG a blocker vehicle should be placed how far from the actual working area to protect personnel working in the safe working zone?

A

Blocker vehicle should be placed 30 metres from the actual working area.

161
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; what shall all personnel wear, as a minimum level of protection when involved in any operations while working on a travelled highway?

A

A helmet and a bunker coat.

162
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; when are reflective vests required when working on a travelled highway?

A

All personnel shall wear a reflective vest when working outside the safe working zone. Reflective vests are not required to be worn by personnel when working or involved IN the safe working zone.

163
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; what is the recommendation for safety cones when deploying them for safety?

A

It is recommended that safety cones be not deployed on highways with speed limits greater than 90km/h

164
Q

TRAFFIC CONTROL SOG; traffic cones should be spaced no greater than ___ apart?

A

3 m.

165
Q

ELEVATING DEVICE OPS SOG; what is the safe working distance maintained between an elevated master stream and personnel?

A

10 metres.

166
Q

ELEVATING DEVICES SOG; what are the two conditions in which elevating devices are not to be elevated?

A

During wind conditions in excess of 55km/h or risk of lightning storms in the area.

167
Q

ELEVATING DEVICE OPS SOG; to keep the elevating device from bouncing while driving what should the operator do?

A

When the elevating device is seated, the operator should exert a downward pressure of 1000 - 1200 psi.

168
Q

EMERGENCY APP, EQUIP, AND STATION INSPECTION SOG; the proper protocol for noting major/minor defects/missing equipment for the driver is?

A

A) report problem to captain
B) record it in the daily inspection report - part A
C) record info on station whiteboard
D) properly tag equipment to be sent for repair
E) relay info to next shift coming on-duty

169
Q

APP, EQUIP ANS STATION INSPECTIONS SOG; when shall drivers ensure that all hard copies of daily, weekly and monthly inspection reports are forwarded to DIV OF APP AND MAINT?

A

At the end of the calendar year.

170
Q

APP, EQUIP AND STATION INSPECTIONS SOG; when there is an urgent/safety related problem, the Captain should report this immediately to who?

A

The District Chief and the Division of Apparatus and Maintenance.

171
Q

APP, EQUIP AND STATION MAINT SOG; what shall Captains do when the Apparatus has a major defect as defined but the inspection schedule?

A

The Captain shall ensure that the apparatus is removed from service and notify the District Chief, Communications and the Division of Apparatus And Maintenance.

172
Q

PPV SOG; what are the considerations for PPV during fire operations?

A
  • The PPV fan should be placed on the unburied side of the fire
  • The PPV shall not be turned on until personnel are ready to make entry with a charged hoseline, and an exit opening has been made.
173
Q

PPV SOG; PPV is. It recommended under what conditions? 6 conditions.

A

A) potential for backdraft
B) potential that ventilation may suspend combustible dust
C) potential of an explosive environment
D) defensive exterior attack
E) attic fire
F) when fires is within the walls, and involves the structure itself.

174
Q

WATER AND ICE RESCUE OPS; first arriving captain shall provide info and report as outlined in previous SOGs, the size up….this size up is to include:?

A

A) what happened
B) number of victims
C) age gender health
D) length of time in water
E) is victim submerged and length of time under water
F) does a medical emergency also exist (ambulance/ems req)
G) far shore access

175
Q

TECH RESCUE 1ST ARRIVING APPARATUS SOG; first arriving Captain to provide initial report and size up as per previous SOGs, the size up shall include:?

A

A) talk to witnesses
B) determine number and location,of victims
C) age gender health
D) medical emergency?
E) identify hazards
F) type of rescue required - high angle, trench, confined
G) assess need for other assistance

176
Q

CONFINED SPACE RESPONSE SOG; according to this SOG “ATMOSPHERIC HAZARDS” means:?

A

A) accumulation of flammable, combustible or explosive agents
B) O2 content in atmosphere less than 19.5 or more than 23 % or
C) accumulation of atmospheric contaminants, including gases, vapours, fumes, dusts or mists that could;
- result in acute health effects that pose imm threat to life or
- interfere with a persons ability to escape unaided from a confined
space

177
Q

CONFINED SPACE SOG; when approaching a scene with a potential confined space operation, how should the apparatus approach?

A

The truck should come in from a safe direction, positioned no closer than 30m from the space you want the barrier tape to extend 30m. The truck should be positioned safely from the incident if the engine is running.

178
Q

CONFINED SPACE SOG; after patient removed and transported who shall command notify?

A

Ministry of Labour (MOL)

Joint Health and Safety

179
Q

EMERGENCY VEHICLE OPS SOG; when noting major or minor defects/missing equipment, the driver shall:?

A 
A) report problem to Captain
B) record in daily
C) record on white board
D) properly tag equipment (if damaged) to be sent for repair
E) relay info to next shift coming in
180
Q

FIRE INVESTIGATIONS SOG; the IC will determine it is safe to enter a scene and commence cause determination after checking for?

A

A) air quality
B) environment hazards
C) structural integrity
D) other hazards which may endanger investigator

181
Q

FIRE INVESTIGATION SOG; a report shall be generated by the PC and forwarded to which individuals when the fire loss exceeds what $ amount?

A

The PC shall generate and forward a report to the On-Duty Chief and on-call FPO when the fire loss exceeds $50,000.00

182
Q

FIRE INVESTIGATION SOG; who shall be notified prior to arranging for,the demolition of a structure when city resources are to be utilized?

A

The on-duty Chief.

183
Q

FIRE ALARM NO ACCESS SOG; once determined access cannot be gained to the occupancy the IC shall?

A

A) confirm a key holder notified
B) confirm time of the notification
C) confirm the estimated time of arrival of key holder

184
Q

FIRE ALARM NO ACCESS SOG; what shall personnel do upon arrival at a fire alarm where there is no access?

A
  • perform 360 if possible
  • through check of exterior with TIC (attempt to determine any fire hazards or medical problems)
  • wait 30 minutes for key holder and be considered “available”
  • if no key holder responds issue an NTR.
185
Q

FIRE ALARM NO ACCESS SOG; forcible entry should occur at fire alarms with no access if:?

A

A) visible signs of fire
B) visible steady uninterrupted water flow
C) obvious potential for immediate danger to life or property (strong odor of gas)
D) a medical emergency could exist and prompted the alarm.

186
Q

FIRE ALARM NO ACCESS SOG; who forcible entry has been used to gain access, fire control shall notify:?

A

A) PRP
B) the Alarm company
C) the on duty Platoon Chief

187
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; during approach and placement of apparatus, if possible approach from?

A

Approach from an upwind, uphill direction.

188
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; initial placement of apparatus at a hazmat scene should?

A

Initial placement should be beyond the evacuation distance.

189
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; where specifically should apparatus be placed, and what is the one exception?

A

Initial placement of the apparatus shall be off the property of the incident in such a manner as to restrict the access of vehicles onto the property. The one EXCEPTION is when the building is determined to be exceptionally large/set back from the road, the first officer may place the apparatus on the property while still maintaining a safe distance.

190
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; at a hazmat incident how will first arriving apparatus gather information if the apparatus is placed off the property or well back to maintain a safe distance?

A

The first arriving apparatus officer can have Fire Control direct a company rep to bring any necessary info and meet the truck.

191
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; how shall first responding apparatus control the scene on arrival.

A

The first arriving apparatus will determine the hot, warm, and cold zones….and control entry/exit of the hot and warm zone.

192
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; the first apparatus shall gather info such as:?

A

A) the hazmat involved
B) the casualties or injured persons
C) what actions persons on scene have already taken

193
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; the first arriving officer needs to assess the situation to determine possible rescue situations. If rescue into hot zone without hazmat suit, the officer must consider the following?

A

A) how great is the risk
B) how long will rescue take
C) what are patients chances of survival

194
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; what should be done if a rescue into hot zone is made without HAZMAT team on scene?

A

Establish a decon area using a charged 38mm line, and personnel dressed in full PPE. Ensure to control run-off.

195
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; the first officer can request assistance from other agencies if required. These include?

A

A) company reps
B) region of peel spill control
C) ministry of the environment
D) CANUTEC

196
Q

HAZMAT INCIDENTS SOG; after a hazmat incident in which a chemical suit has been donned, who shall be notified?

A

A post incident analysis is to be done and forwarded to the Division Chief of Training and Fire Administration.

197
Q

DECONTAMINATION SOG; in the process of a structure fire with minimal soiling of bunker gear what sort of decon can be done?

A

PPV fans may be set up in the warm zone outside the involved structure to expedite the off-gassing of the products of combustion.

198
Q

DECONTAMINATION SOG; in the event of substantial soiling of bunker gear what is the method used to remove gross soiling?

A

A 38mm handline on low pressure and wide fog pattern can be used to remove gross soiling…this process can be done on a grassy area if possible to avoid runoff.

199
Q

HAZMAT FIRES SOG; particular info to gather for first responding personnel to gather include? 4:

A

A) hazmat involved
B) chem names
C) quantities
D) containment systems

200
Q

HAZMAT FIRES SOG; before entering the hot zone, a hazard risk analysis must be done, and questions must be asked, these are? 5:

A

A) react explosively
B) hazmat that may spontaneously polymerize
C) are there BLEVE concerns due to over pressurization
D) may personnel contact hazmats that are toxic or corrosive (skin)
E) hazmats present that react energetically with water, air or other contaminants and are they involved in the fire

201
Q

HAZMAT FIRES SOG; hazmat fires are, preferably attacked with what extinguishing techniques?

A

Initial attacks are made with dry chem and/or CO2 extinguishers.

202
Q

BONDING AND GROUNDING SOG; when shall this SOG be adhered to.

A

This SOG shall be adhered to when transferring combustible liquids with a flash point above 37 degrees C (100 F) - diesel fuel, home heating oil.

203
Q

BONDING AND GROUNDING SOG; the elimination of a diff of elec potential between objects, charges flow freely between objects and there is no gap for charges of spark across is?

A

The process of BONDING.

204
Q

BONDING AND GROUNDING SOG; what does grounding do during the process of bonding and grounding while transferring combustible liquids?

A

Grounding drains the static charge away as rapidly as they are produced through an adequate path to the earth, this can also be achieved by bonding to a grounding electrode made of conductive material such as steel, copper, cast iron which provide a return to ground.

205
Q

BONDING AND GROUNDING SOG; when all bonding and grounding connections have been made and before transferring liquids from damaged tank to receiving tank, check the connections with an Ohm meter, what should the reading on the Ohm meter read?

A

When checking for continuity the reading on the Ohm meter should read less than .3 Ohms.

206
Q

FIRE STATION TOURS SOG; what is the maximum number of people allowed to attend a tour?

A

Maximum number of people to attendant is 25 people.

207
Q

FIRE STATION TOURS SOG; what is the minimum age for a station tour.

A

Minimum age is 3 years old.

208
Q

FIRE STATION TOURS SOG; at what times are tours available to be booked?

A

Tour availability is:
Daytime 8-4
Evening 6-8
Tour length may vary 45mins - 1 hour.

209
Q

FIRE STATION TOURS SOG; in the event that there is a call during a tour, firefighters shall inform the group to? 5 instructions:

A

A) tour is terminated
B) group to report to front of station, calm and clear of apparatus
C) group asked to leave station prior to apparatus leaving the station
D) ensure station is secure….shut bay door
E) the tour may be rebooked through FLSE

210
Q

NTR SOG; completed ntr forms are to be distributed in what manner (coloured carbon copies)?

A

W - white copy to owner or rep on site
Y - yellow copy to Fire Prevention Admin to FL SAFETY CENTRE
P - pink copy same as above
G - goldenrod to be retained by issuing officer

211
Q

NTR SOG; an NTR is to be scanned and forwarded to fire prevention email. If cannot scan, an email is to be sent with the following info? 5:

A 
A) NTR as subject line
B) occurrence date
C) building address
D) shift and station
E) problem (fire alarm, sprinkler)
212
Q

PPE ROUTINE CLEANING SOG; when washing all articles of PPE in designated machines the water shall not exceed what temperature?

A

40 degrees C or 105 degrees F.

213
Q

HEAT STRESS SOG; ff are to remain in the rest area until medical personnel feel they are ready to return to the scene, a good rule of thumb is?

A

REST TIME = EXERTION TIME.

214
Q

HEAT STRESS SOG; firefighters shall rest after using?

A

Two 30 minute bottles or one 60 minute bottle.

215
Q

HEAT STRESS SOG; ff shall rest after 45 mins of how much work and what is the temperature threshold?

A

FF shall rest after 45 mins of hard continuous work or 45 mins working under conditions of high ambient temps (20 degrees C) and wearing bunker gear.

216
Q

HEAT STRESS SOG; the signs and symptoms of heat stress are? 7:

A
  • high core temp
  • weak and rapid pulse
  • shallow rapid resps
  • blurred vision, dizziness, headaches, loss of consc
  • skin pale, cold and clammy
  • muscle and abdo cramps
  • nausea and vomiting
217
Q

PPE SOG; under what conditions should you wear a fully encapsulated suit? 6 conditions:

A

A) specifically recommended by CANUTEC or ERG for ex.
B) potential for contact with Level 4 health hazard skin toxin
C) potential for splash
D) potential for exposure to high airborne % above IDLH of skin toxin
E) potential for contact with unidentified chems
F) potential for contact with sever skin toxin

218
Q

PPE SOG; when should you not use chemical suits for entry into the hot zone.

A

If the break through time is equal to or less than 30 mins.

219
Q

PPE SOG; when selecting the type of chem suit to wear on should normally choose which brand?

A

Choose the Trellchem HPS suit over the Chemrell Max.

220
Q

PPE SOG; if the hazmat cannot be easily decontaminated what is the re commendation for suits?

A

Use the disposable suit over the reusable suit.

221
Q

PPE SOG; do not allow someone to wear a chemical suit if their vitals are?

A
  • Respiration exceeding 20/min
  • pulse exceeding 100bpm
  • SYSTOLIC pressure exceeding 150
  • DIASTOLIC pressure exceeding 100
  • oral temp exceeding 100.6 F ( 38.1 C)
222
Q

PPE SOG; where will the donning area of chemical suits normally be located?

A

On the Drivers side of H204. When there is rain/cold the awning should be used.

223
Q

PPE SOG; what is the expiration date of the chem suits?

A

TrellChem 7 years

Chemrell 3 years

224
Q

PPE SOG; after an incident the reusable chemical suits shall be?

A

Washed and hung in station 204 shed for 3 days. The. They must be inspected. Pressure test the Trellchem HP or Trellchem super suits before returning the suits to service.

225
Q

PPE ANNUAL INSPECTIONS SOG; the schedule for annual inspection of primary and secondary elements shall be?

A

The first 6 months of the year will be dedicated to primary elements. The last 6 months will be dedicated to secondary elements.

226
Q

PPE ANNUAL INSOECTION SOG; when preparing the bunker suit for annual inspection, if any defectives are found the employee shall?

A

Fill out a special cleaning and repair work order form to submit with the gear.

227
Q

PERSONNEL POST INCIDENT CLEANUP SOG; what actions shall take place prior to leaving the incident scene if PPE has become contaminated?

A

Wear N95, gloves and protective eyewear to:
A) use low pressure water spray to rinse gear of obvious solid contamination
B) rinse bunker boots
C) light brushing and further rinsing.

228
Q

PPE DAILY INSPECTIONS SOG; how often shall the ff, with assistance of the captain, fill out a PPE inspection form?

A

Every three months.

229
Q

PPE DAILY INSPECTIONS SOG; how long will the PPE inspection form be kept on file in the station, and then where are they sent?

A

PPE inspection forms are to be kept in the station PPE log file for one year and then sent to the Division of Apparatus and Maintenance.

230
Q

HAZMAT EXPOSURE REPORTS SOG; after completion of a hazmat exposure report copies will be forwarded to? 3:

A

W - white copy to union WSIB rep
Y - yellow to Div Chief / PC for review who forwards to Admin
P - pink copy kept by the employee

231
Q

HAZMAT EXPOSURE REPORT SOG; what shall be considered a significant exposure? 4:

A
  • personnel require med attention related to exposure at or post incident
  • personnel exposed due to failure of PPE (equipment to be investigated)
  • personnel have lost time due to an exposure
  • personnel have suffered symptoms due to an exposure.
232
Q

BED BUGS SOG; to limit bed bug infestation at med calls personnel should attempt the following?

A

Refrain from putting equip on patients beds furniture or close to walls. If unable to put on a hard surface, place a garbage bag under the equip.
Stand rather than sit
Do not lean on walls, beds or other furniture.

233
Q

BED BUGS SOG; who must be notified immediately if bed bugs are detected or suspected in a fire station or on clothing? 3:

A
  • the on duty DC and/or PC
  • the Division Chief of Apparatus and Maintenance
  • a member of the Health and Safety Committee
234
Q

ASBESTOS SOG; it should be assumed that asbestos may be present if buildings are constructed prior to what year?

A

1992

235
Q

INSULATED ELECTRICAL GLOVES SOG; the SOG defines the Hydro Gloves on apparatus as?

A

Insulated rubber gloves that are class 0 and rated for 1000 volts of protection.

236
Q

INSULATED ELECTRICAL GLOVES SOG; the hydro gloves shall be found in what locations (trucks / divisions)? 5:

A

1) squads (one pair)
2) TR truck (one pair)
3) P201 and P206 (elevator rescue trucks)
4) facility maintenance vehicle (Ron’s truck, one pair)
5) Training Division (one pair)

237
Q

INSULATED ELECTRICAL GLOVES SOG; when shall the gloves be used?

A

When operating disconnect switches at potentially energized panels and switches where the panel is less than 750 volts and has not been compromised or damaged.
Also when dealing with electric or hybrid vehicles.

238
Q

INSULATED RUBBER GLOVES SOG; true or false, rubber gloves shall not be marked with vehicle designation to which they are assigned?

A

True.

239
Q

INSULATED RUBBER GLOVES SOG; during inspection of the gloves personnel shall examine the following? 3:

A

1) the test date of the rubber gloves
2) if more than 6 months have passed remove from service
3) leather gloves checked for holes or excessive wear.

240
Q

INSULATED RUBBER GLOVES SOG; who shall establish and maintain the schedule for testing and the exchanging of rubber gloves?

A

The Designated Platoon Chief.

241
Q

EQUIPMENT CHANGES SOG; who shall be notified if a permanent change is made to equipment on a department vehicle?

A

The Division of Training will be notified with all pertinent details.

242
Q

RADIOS INSPECTION AND MAINTENANCE SOG; when shall portable radios be inspected and cleaned?

A

On the day shift each Monday.

243
Q

RADIO INSPECTION AND CLEANING SOG; what is the cleaning procedure when the radio had grease/grime visible?

A

Apply a 0.5% dish detergent water solution sparingly with stiff, non-metallic, short bristled brush to work all loose dirt away from the radio. Use soft, absorbent, lint free cloth or tissue to remove the solution and dry the radio.

244
Q

RADIO INSPECTION CLEANING SOG; what shall be used to wipe the battery contact area and and battery housing?

A

Alcohol swabs.

245
Q

RADIO INSPECTION AND CLEANING SOG; to ensure health and safety of members, what shall be done to the external surfaces of the radio and mic unit after each medical incident.

A

After medical incidents the external surfaces of the radio and mic unit should be wiped with a Lysol wipe.

246
Q

RADIO INSPECTION AND CLEANING SOG; who is responsible for cleaning the Chief and Deputy Chiefs radios?

A

Suppression personnel.

247
Q

RADIO INSPECTION AND CLEANING SOG; before sending your radio in to communications for repair, what checks should you do? 6:

A
  • antenna in good condition (no visible wires, cracks or bends)
  • batt has a charge
  • remote mic is securely fastened
  • remove mic to see if it is the source of the problem
  • remote mic has a clean contact
  • do a radio check with comm without the mic
248
Q

GENERATORS IN STATIONS SOG; the weekly generator run test takes 30 mins,how does it break down?

A

Run the generator in the TEST position for 15 minutes. After 15 minute record levels on checklist. After 25 minutes restore to normal power, return switch to auto (gen will run for 5 more minutes before shutting down). 30 mins.

249
Q

GENERATORS IN STATIONS SOG; the emergency generators in station 201 and 206 supply emergency power upon failures of primary power to what areas? 4:

A
  • north overhead doors
  • communication radio and radio room
  • FPO office
  • emergency lighting
250
Q

GENERATORS IN STATIONS SOG; to not affect Admin computers and DC operations when should station 201 test be conducted?

A

0700 on Monday.

251
Q

NATURAL GAS EMERGENCY SOG; what is the procedure in a natural gas emergency? 17:

A
  • park app upwind
  • confirm Nat gas leak
  • notify gas co
  • PPE
  • isolate/evacuate/protect in place
  • eliminate open sources of ignition
  • consider outside shut off
  • ensure escaping gas does not enter buildings, sewers or vaults
  • large scale may require HAZMAT
  • use detector to determine concentration and evac perimeters
  • ventilate naturally
  • do not reopen shut off valve
  • work with gas co
  • do not extinguish unless threat to life, consider exposures
  • avoid entering evacuations
  • avoid attempting to stop a leak on a plastic pipe
  • do not spray water on Nat gas leak

Captains Exam (7 decks)

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