Soft Tissue Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

primary components of BOAS

A

stenotic nares
elongated soft palate
hypoplastic trachea
abberant nasal turbinates
macroglossia
redundant pharyngeal folds

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2
Q

what are the secondary components of BOAS and why they occur

A

negative pressure = edema, erythema, swelling
everted laryngeal saccules
everted tonsils
laryngeal collapse

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3
Q

why do dogs with BOAS have GI signs

A

primary or secondary inflam disease
regurg, sliding hiatal hernia, gastritis, esophagitis

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4
Q

what anatomic landmarks are used to assess the length of the soft palate?

A

the junction of the middle and caudal third of the palatine tonsils

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5
Q

stenotic nares treatment

A

vertical wedge resection
horizontal wedge resection
punch biopsy
nares amputation “traders”
alapexy

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6
Q

elongated soft palate treatment

A

staphylectomy
folded flap palatoplasty

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7
Q

compare and contrast laryngeal paralysis and laryngeal collapse, which one occurs as a result of BOAS and how is it addressed?

A

laryngeal paralysis - functional problem, laryngeal tieback

laryngeal collapse - secondary to BOAS, structural problem (cartilage integrity poor), prevention is best, +/- laryngeal tieback or permanent trach

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8
Q

causes of laryngeal paralysis in young animals

A

central neuro lesion
breed predisposition (husky)

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9
Q

causes of laryngeal paralysis in an old lab

A

peripheral neuro lesion
- most common being idiopathic polyneuropathy
- others: trauma, mass, iatrogenic, polyneuropathy from endocrine, infection, immune or hypothyroidism

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10
Q

what nerve is first to be affected in laryngeal paralysis? what does it innervate?

A

recurrent laryngeal n
innervates cricoarytenoideus dorsalis m (abducts arytenoid cartilage)

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11
Q

what are the two different clinical presentations for dogs with laryngeal paralysis?

A

acute on chronic - collapse, upper airway obstruction, pulmonary edema, heatstroke, aspiration pneumonia

chronic - exercise intolerance, bark change, cough, aspiration pneumonia

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12
Q

what is the most common surgical treatment for laryngeal paralysis and what is the goal?

A

Cricoarytenoid lateralization (“tie back”) - unilateral ONLY
goal is to increase diameter of rima glottis

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13
Q

what are the potential complications with a cricoarytenoid lateralization? what is the anticipated outcome?

A

aspiration pneumonia
suture failure
seromas

good-excellent, long term prognosis

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14
Q

what are the two types of congenital hernias?

A

PPDH
hiatal hernia

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15
Q

PPDH
connection between what?
organs displaced?
when do clinical signs arise?
what do animals often have with this?

A

peritoneal cavity and pericardium
liver > SI > stomach > GB > pancreas
usually incidental finding, asymptomatic for months/years
other concurrent congenital defects

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16
Q

hiatal hernia
what causes this?
organs displaced?

A

enlargement of esophageal hiatus allowing abdominal organs into the thorax
stomach most common

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17
Q

hiatal hernia treatment?

A

decrease size of esophageal hiatus (opened ventrally)
esophagopexy
left sided gastropexy (+/- G tube)

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18
Q

what should you avoid when doing surgery for hiatal hernia?

A

iatrogenic trauma to vagus n

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19
Q

complications with hiatal hernia surgery?

A

esophagitis, esophageal stricture, megaesophagus, failure to improve gastroesophageal reflux

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20
Q

diaphragmatic hernia
connection of what?
common cause?

A

peritoneal cavity and pleural space
trauma

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21
Q

Describe which clinical scenarios make a diaphragmatic hernia a surgical emergency

A

can’t stabilize or stomach is is herniated into the thorax

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22
Q

anatomy of the diaphragm

A

caval foramen
esophageal hiatus
aortic hiatus

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23
Q

complications associated with diaphragmatic hernias and their treatment

A

re-expansion pulmonary edema in CATS
recurrence
cardiac arrhythmias
cardiac arrest
pneumothorax
pleural effusion

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24
Q

Explain the prognosis and outcomes for diaphragmatic hernias

A

79-89% survival for diaphragmatic hernias

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25
Q

pelvic diaphragm anatomy

A

External anal sphincter muscle
Levator ani muscle
Coccygeus muscle

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26
Q

where is the most common location of a perineal hernia?

A

between levator ani and external anal sphincter muscles “caudal hernia”

27
Q

predisposing factors for a perineal hernia?

A

breed - small dogs (e.g. mini poodles, boston terriers)
older intact male dogs - prostatic disease or relaxin hormone

28
Q

causes of perineal hernia?

A

unknown etiology, but anything that causes increased abdominal pressure

29
Q

what is the treatment of choice for a perineal hernia?

A

muscle replacement w/ internal obturator m

30
Q

why is a herniorrhaphy a poor surgical option for perineal hernias?

A

the levator ani m will barely exist so closure of pelvic diaphragm is a poor choice

31
Q

Describe a clinical scenario when a perineal hernia is an emergency

A

urinary obstruction

32
Q

complications with a perineal hernia?

A

incisional complications
tenesmus
rectal prolapse
sciatic n entrapment
fecal incontinence (bilateral n damage)
urinary abnormalities

33
Q

indication for cystotomy

A

stones in the lower urinary tract (bladder or if retropulsed into the bladder from urethra)

34
Q

indication for urethrotomy

A

if stone cannot be retropulsed
1st time offender
NOT in cats – too small

35
Q

indication for urethrostomy

A

if stone cannot be retropulsed
if has had multiple obstructions

36
Q

preferred location for a urethrostomy in dog?

A

scrotal location
- urethra is the largest
- superficial (tension free, limited hemorrhage)
- minimizes urine scald

37
Q

preferred location for a urethrostomy in cat?

A

perineal urethrostomy (PU)
(dissect to level of bulbourethral gland)

38
Q

Explain how to perform retropulsion of urethroliths in a dog

A

general anesthesia
large rigid catheter
gauze to grip penis
lube and saline
extra finger for rectal PRN
post procedure rads

39
Q

do you perform the cystotomy on the ventral or dorsal aspect? why?

A

ventral - less anatomy

40
Q

in male does what approach is done for cystotomy?

A

caudal midline and parapreputial approach due to narrow urethra

41
Q

holding layer of the bladder?

42
Q

for a cystotomy - full thickness defects gain 100% of normal strength in ___ days?

A

14-21 days

43
Q

complications associated with a cystotomy beginning with the most common

A

self resolving hematuria and dysuria
incomplete removal
superficial incisional complications
uroabdomen

44
Q

what is the difference between a skin graft and skin flap?

A

skin flap maintains bloody supply
skin graft has no vascular attachment and must reestablish blood supply

45
Q

what is the difference between a subdermal plexus flap and axial pattern flap?

A

subdermal plexus flap - terminal branches of direct cutaneous aa, associated with cutaneous m (panniculus m layer)

axial pattern flap - known a and v that perfuse a tissue; mapped throughout the body

46
Q

what are the 4 general principles of a skin flap surgery?

A
  1. limit flap length to size required to cover recipient bed w/o tension
  2. atraumatic tissue
  3. undermine deep to the cutaneous m
  4. healthy recipient bed
47
Q

what are the 4 types of local subdermal skin flaps?

A

advancement
rotational
transposition
skin fold (inguinal or axillary)

48
Q

what are the most common axial pattern flaps?

A

caudal superficial epigastric
thoracodorsal

49
Q

what are the most common complications with a laparascopy?

A

insufflation of SQ tissue
splenic laceration

50
Q

Describe different techniques for creating a capnoperitoneum (aka pneumoperitoneum)

A

veress needle
hasson technique
SILS port

51
Q

Describe reasons for conversion from a laparoscopic procedure to an open procedure

A

hemorrhage
equipment malfunction
organ trauma
unanticipated findings
anesthetic complication
time

52
Q

describe the surgical treatment for an aural hematoma

A

S shape or linear incision (parallel to blood supply)
multiple staggered rows of full thickness sutures
monofilament non-abs suture
knots on concave side

53
Q

difference in dog and cat external ear canal neoplasia

A

dogs - epithelial, 60% malignant, unilateral
cats - 88% malignant, bilateral, SCC and anaplastic carcinomas

54
Q

what are the indications of a lateral wall resection?

A

otitis externa reversible
small tumor of tragus or lateral wall not extending into horizontal canal
patent horizontal canal

55
Q

contraindications of a lateral wall resection?

A

cocker spaniels

56
Q

what are the indications of a vertical ear canal resection

A

vertical canal severely disease
horizontal canal normal
neoplasia or otitis externa of the vertical canal only (rare)

57
Q

what are the indications of a TECA-LBO

A

chronic
end stage external ear dz
narrow horizontal canal
neoplasia
extensive middle ear disease

58
Q

complications associated with aural hematoma

A

anesthesia
scar/deformity

59
Q

complications associated with lateral wall resection +/- ventral bulla osteotomy

A

failure
dehiscence
stenosis of horizontal canal
self trauma (ecollar)

60
Q

complications associated with vertical ear canal resection +/- ventral bulla osteotomy

61
Q

complications associated with TECA-LBO

A

hemorrhage
facial n paralysis (usually improves 2-4 weeks)
fistula
inner ear infection (vestibular signs)
horners syndrome (cat >dog)
loss of hearing

62
Q

complications associated with a ventral bulla osteotomy

A

horners syndrome
vestibular signs

63
Q

what the most common route of bacterial otitis media?

A

tympanic membrane (otitis externa)

64
Q

what is the difference between a cat and dog bulla on CT?

A

cats have a septum dividing their bulla into two compartments