Soft tissue Flashcards

1
Q

What Z-plasty angle provides approximately 50% scar lengthening?

A

45 degrees. A 45° angle achieves roughly 50% lengthening, with each additional 15° increment adding about 25% more length (e.g., 60° achieves ~75%).

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2
Q

If you need 100% lengthening in a scar contracture via Z-plasty, what limb angle should you choose?

A

75 degrees.
According to Z-plasty principles, a 75° angle results in approximately 100% increase in scar length.

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3
Q

How much lengthening would a 60-degree angle achieve in a Z-plasty?

A

**About 75%.
**
Each incremental 15° increase from 30° adds roughly 25% additional lengthening
30° = 25%,
45° = 50%,
60° = 75%
75° = 100%.

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4
Q

Presence of fibrinous “rice bodies” in the wrist tenosynovium strongly suggests which diagnosis?

A

**Tuberculosis.
**Rice bodies are characteristic fibrinous formations commonly seen in chronic tenosynovial tuberculosis.

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5
Q

In a patient with chronic wrist swelling and carpal tunnel syndrome, finding fibrinous loose bodies intraoperatively should prompt suspicion of what atypical cause?

A

Tuberculous tenosynovitis.
This form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis often presents with fibrinous “rice bodies” and atypical carpal tunnel symptoms.

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6
Q

How might tuberculous tenosynovitis clinically present in the hand?

A

It commonly presents as a chronic compound palmar ganglion or wrist swelling, carpal tunnel symptoms, and characteristic intraoperative fibrinous rice bodies.

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7
Q

Why does a full-thickness skin graft generally have lower initial take rates than a split-thickness graft?

A

It includes the full dermis, making revascularization slower due to less superficial vascularity, necessitating ideal graft bed conditions.

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8
Q

True or False: A split-thickness graft donor site heals faster when thinner grafts are harvested.

A

True. Thinner grafts, harvested superficially with a high density of tiny bleeding points, heal faster than deeper, thicker graft harvests.

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9
Q

Can a skin graft survive on bare cortical bone, tendon, or cartilage?

A

Yes, but only via bridging. Small grafts may survive initially through bridging, where nutrients diffuse through a fibrin clot until neovascularization occurs.

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10
Q

What is the most reliable reconstructive option for a large dorsal hand defect with exposed tendons, joints, and bone following trauma?

A

A pedicled reversed radial forearm flap provides robust and reliable vascularized tissue coverage for extensive dorsal hand defects.

One possible option

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11
Q

Why is a negative pressure dressing alone inappropriate directly on exposed tendons without paratenon coverage?

A

Direct negative pressure dressings on denuded tendons cause desiccation, impairing future graft take and tendon viability.

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12
Q

Why might a bilayer dermal regeneration template (Integra®) be suboptimal for large contaminated dorsal hand defects with exposed structures?

A

Dermal templates require granulation tissue formation, are slow, infection-prone, and often fail in large contaminated wounds with exposed joints or bone.

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13
Q

According to Mathes and Nahai, into which category does the trapezius muscle flap fall?

A

Type II—characterized by one dominant vascular pedicle and minor pedicles.

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14
Q

What is the primary vascular supply for a Type II trapezius muscle flap?

A

The dominant pedicle is typically from the transverse cervical artery or dorsal scapular artery, supplemented by minor pedicles from posterior intercostal arteries.

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15
Q

Damage to which nerve can significantly impair trapezius flap function and shoulder stability?

A

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI). Injury results in shoulder droop and instability due to impaired trapezius muscle function.

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16
Q

What anatomical landmark is crucial in deciding replantation for single index finger amputations?

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) insertion. Amputations distal to the FDS insertion preserve PIPJ function and thus are favorable indications for replantation.

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17
Q

True or False: Anticoagulation post-digit replantation significantly improves outcomes.

A

False. There is currently no strong evidence (Level I-III) supporting improved outcomes with anticoagulation after digital replantation.

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18
Q

What is the most common late secondary procedure following a successful finger replantation?

A

Tenolysis. Tenolysis is the most frequent secondary procedure post-replantation, addressing adhesions and stiffness.

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19
Q

What is the axial vessel supplying the Moberg flap?

A

The Moberg flap is axial-pattern, based specifically on digital arteries supplying the thumb.

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20
Q

What type of flap is the reversed homo-digital island flap considered (axial or random)?

A

Axial-pattern flap. It relies on retrograde flow through digital arterial communications at the DIP joint level.

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21
Q

Optimal initial management for extravasation injury with chemotherapy agents classified as DNA-binding vesicants includes which approach?

A

Immediate localization, neutralization, and targeted treatment. For severe extravasation injuries, Dexrazoxane is indicated, along with cold compresses to limit tissue damage.

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22
Q

What is the first-line pharmacological therapy indicated for severe extravasation injury from anthracycline chemotherapy agents?

A

Dexrazoxane administration, initiated promptly, significantly mitigates tissue damage and is recommended for severe anthracycline extravasations.

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23
Q

Why are warm compresses contraindicated in the acute phase of DNA-binding chemotherapy extravasation?

A

Warm compresses exacerbate spread, potentially worsening tissue necrosis;
cold compresses localize and limit injury.

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24
Q

According to Cormack and Lamberty classification, what flap type is a radial forearm free flap?

A

Type C fasciocutaneous flap (fascial flap with axial blood supply), having reliable perfusion from radial artery perforators.

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25
Q

During radial forearm osteocutaneous flap harvest, which cortical part of the radius must always remain intact?

A

Dorsal cortex. Only unicortical bone harvest from the distal radius is permitted to avoid fracture risk postoperatively.

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26
Q

Describe the standard direction of flap elevation and the anatomical landmarks of pedicle dissection in a radial forearm flap.

A

Dissection occurs distal-to-proximal, preserving paratenon over flexor carpi radialis, with the pedicle dissected deep to brachioradialis muscle and tendon.

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27
Q

Which forearm muscle is typically affected first by ischemia in missed compartment syndrome resulting in Volkmann’s contracture?

A

Flexor Digitorum Profundus (FDP). Deep volar muscles, especially FDP and Flexor Pollicis Longus (FPL), are usually affected first.

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28
Q

What’s the most common cause of compartment syndrome in the adult upper limb?

A

Distal radius fractures. They frequently precede compartment syndrome, potentially leading to Volkmann’s ischemic contracture.

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29
Q

In severe Volkmann’s ischemic contracture cases, what advanced reconstruction technique may be indicated?

A

Functional muscle transfer, commonly using the gracilis muscle, can restore function in severe cases.

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30
Q

Which organism most commonly infects wounds associated with medicinal leech therapy?

A

Aeromonas hydrophilia, a commensal bacterium living symbiotically within the gut of medicinal leeches.

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31
Q

What antibiotic class is recommended prophylactically during leech therapy to prevent Aeromonas infections?

A

Fluoroquinolones, particularly **ciprofloxacin, **effectively target Aeromonas hydrophilia.

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32
Q

True or False: Leeches should be forcibly removed if not detaching spontaneously to prevent infection.

A

**False. **Forceful removal increases the risk of infection by leaving behind teeth and regurgitating gut flora.

33
Q

Which condition is an absolute contraindication for negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT)?

A

**Application directly on malignant tissue **awaiting histological confirmation is absolutely contraindicated.

34
Q

Can NPWT safely be used directly over exposed tendons or bone?

A

Only cautiously. Direct NPWT may desiccate tendons or bones if not adequately hydrated or protected.

35
Q

Why should NPWT not be used as a definitive solution for wounds?

A

NPWT is temporizing and promotes granulation but should not replace definitive coverage with grafts or flaps.

36
Q

Which tissue has higher electrical resistance: fat or muscle?

A

Fat has higher electrical resistance than muscle, influencing the pattern of injury seen in electrical burns.

37
Q

True or False: Alternating current (AC) poses a higher cardiac risk than direct current (DC).

A

True. AC is more dangerous, causing cardiac dysrhythmias at lower amperages compared to DC.

38
Q

Are injuries from electrical sources above 1000 volts considered high-voltage injuries?

A

Yes. Clinically, electrical injuries above 1000 volts are classified as high-voltage injuries.

39
Q

What is the optimal initial management of frostbite to the hand and fingers?

A

Rapid rewarming by immersion for 30 minutes at 40-44°C, ensuring controlled thawing and limiting tissue damage.

40
Q

Should immediate amputation be performed on frostbitten digits with obvious necrosis upon initial presentation?

A

No. Immediate amputation should be avoided until clear demarcation between viable and necrotic tissue develops, typically 6-24 hours later.

41
Q

Why is rewarming frostbitten tissue at temperatures higher than 44°C contraindicated?

A

Higher temperatures (e.g., 60°C) risk additional thermal injury and tissue necrosis, worsening outcomes.

42
Q

What are the four classical Kanavel signs of suppurative flexor tenosynovitis?

A
  1. Fusiform swelling of the digit
  2. Pain on passive extension
  3. Tenderness along the flexor sheath
  4. Digit held in a flexed posture

Classically described by Kanavel for diagnosing suppurative flexor tenosynovitis.

43
Q

Which scoring system uses hemoglobin levels among its criteria for diagnosing necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Laboratory Risk Indicator for Necrotizing Fasciitis (LRINEC) score.

Considers hemoglobin, WBC, sodium, creatinine, glucose, and CRP to predict likelihood of necrotizing fasciitis.

44
Q

Which epidermal layer is exclusive to glabrous (hairless) skin such as palms and soles?

A

Stratum lucidum.

A clear epidermal layer beneath the stratum corneum, exclusive to palms and soles.

45
Q

What is the primary proliferative layer of epidermis containing mitotically active stem cells?

A

Stratum germinativum (stratum basale).

Responsible for epidermal regeneration and contains melanocytes.

46
Q

Which epidermal layer forms the primary barrier to fluid loss and infection?

A

Stratum corneum.

Made of dead keratinocytes, forming the outermost barrier layer.

47
Q

Why prioritize thumb reconstruction over the index finger in combined traumatic injuries?

A

Thumb function is critical for opposition, grasp, and hand functionality, making reconstruction a priority.

Optimizing thumb function significantly enhances overall hand utility.

48
Q

Why is heterotopic replantation beneficial in thumb reconstruction using an amputated index finger?

A

It restores functional thumb length and opposition, improving grip compared to isolated digit amputation.

Enables maximal functional recovery after severe trauma.

49
Q

Define an “angiosome.”

A

Three-dimensional tissue block supplied by a single underlying source artery.

Introduced by Taylor and Palmer, fundamental for flap reconstruction.

50
Q

What is a “perforasome”?

A

Vascular territory supplied by a single perforator artery.

Refined concept by Saint-Cyr for precise perforator flap planning.

51
Q

Who first introduced the angiosome concept and why is it significant in plastic surgery?

A

Taylor and Palmer (1987).

Revolutionized reconstructive flap surgery by mapping tissue vascular territories.

52
Q

Immediate management for fingertip hydrofluoric acid burns with persistent pain?

A

Remove fingernails, irrigate thoroughly, apply calcium gluconate 10% gel.

Calcium gluconate counters fluoride-ion-induced pain and tissue damage.

53
Q

Why does hydrofluoric acid cause systemic toxicity?

A

Fluoride ions bind calcium ions causing hypocalcemia and electrolyte disturbances, potentially leading to cardiac arrhythmias.

Systemic toxicity results from disruption of calcium homeostasis.

54
Q

Why should immediate surgical excision generally be avoided in initial hydrofluoric acid burns?

A

Tissue necrosis is delayed; conservative initial management allows precise assessment of burn depth, avoiding unnecessary tissue removal.

Prefer initial conservative therapy; surgery planned subsequently based on demarcation.

55
Q

What is the vascular supply for the Becker flap?

A

Dorsal branch of the ulnar artery.

56
Q

What is the vascular supply for the lateral arm flap?

A

Posterior radial collateral artery.

57
Q

What artery provides blood supply to the anterolateral thigh flap (ALT)?

A

Descending branch of lateral femoral circumflex artery.

58
Q

The Foucher flap is based on which artery?

A

First dorsal metacarpal artery.

59
Q

Which artery supplies the parascapular flap?

A

Descending branch of circumflex scapular artery.

60
Q

Which organism causes Hansen’s disease (Leprosy)?

A

Mycobacterium leprae.

61
Q

Organism responsible for cat-scratch disease?

A

Bartonella henselae.

62
Q

Organism causing subcutaneous fungal infections in gardeners and florists?

A

Sporothrix schenckii.

63
Q

Which organisms cause mucormycosis leading to digital gangrene?

A

Phycomycetes.

64
Q

Name the common parapox virus transmitted from sheep/goats causing skin lesions.

A

Orf virus.

65
Q

Function of low-adherent dressings (e.g., Jelonet/Mepitel)?

A

Allow exudate to pass through into a secondary dressing.

66
Q

Primary property of semipermeable films (e.g., Opsite/Tegaderm)?

A

Permeable to gases and vapor but impermeable to fluids.

67
Q

Primary role of hydrogel dressings (e.g., Intrasite)?

A

Donate water to the wound to maintain a moist environment.

68
Q

Mechanism of hydrocolloid dressings (e.g., Duoderm/Aquacel)?

A

Form a gel on wound surface, maintaining moist healing environment.

69
Q

Origin and function of alginate dressings (e.g., Kaltostat)?

A

Derived from brown seaweed, useful for absorbing exudate and promoting hemostasis.

70
Q

Which anticoagulant inhibits synthesis of factors II, VII, IX, and X?

71
Q

Which drug irreversibly inhibits platelet P2Y12 ADP receptors?

A

Clopidogrel.

72
Q

Antiplatelet agent irreversibly inhibiting COX-1?

73
Q

Anticoagulant binding antithrombin III, risking thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

Unfractionated heparin.

74
Q

Proteolytic enzyme commonly used to dissolve thrombi in microsurgery?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA).

75
Q

Optimal reconstruction for 2.5 cm full-thickness defect with exposed tendon on dorsum of proximal phalanx?

A

Quaba flap (dorsal metacarpal artery flap).

76
Q

Best flap for full-thickness defect over the DIPJ dorsum of the ring finger?

A

Reversed cross-finger flap.

77
Q

Treatment for volar oblique fingertip amputation, little finger, minimal bone exposed?

A

Allow to heal by secondary intention.

78
Q

Best reconstruction option for a 2cm full-thickness thumb pulp defect with exposed distal phalanx?

A

First dorsal metacarpal artery flap (Foucher flap).

79
Q

Ideal flap for extensive (6cm by 2cm) hypothenar eminence defect with exposed flexors and nerves?

A

Becker flap (based on dorsal ulnar artery).