Fractures, joint injuries & instability Flashcards

1
Q

What happens to external fixator rigidity if you increase the distance between rods and bone in distal radius fractures?

A

Rigidity decreases.

Increasing distance reduces mechanical stability.

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2
Q

Optimal position for distal pin placement in external fixation of index metacarpal?

A

Insert pins with MCP joint flexed at 90° to avoid extensor tendon tethering.

Optimal positioning prevents tendon injury during fixation.

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3
Q

Where should proximal pins in radial shaft be placed during external fixation?

A

Between ECRB and ECRL or between ECRB and EDC, avoiding the superficial radial nerve.

Precise placement prevents nerve irritation or injury.

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4
Q

According to Lafontaine criteria, which radiographic feature indicates instability of distal radius fractures?

A

Dorsal comminution.

Predictive of secondary displacement post-reduction.

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5
Q

Does radial shortening greater than 5mm define instability according to Lafontaine criteria?

A

No, radial shortening is not a criterion defined by Lafontaine.

It is considered by some authors, but not by Lafontaine.

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6
Q

List 3 features from Lafontaine criteria that indicate an unstable distal radius fracture.

A
  1. Age >60
  2. Dorsal angulation >20°
  3. Intra-articular radiocarpal fracture

Presence of 3+ indicates instability.

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7
Q

Which distal radius fracture type most commonly associates with scapholunate ligament injuries?

A

Chauffeur fracture (radial styloid fracture).

Injury extends distally into ligament insertion.

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8
Q

What defines a Barton fracture of distal radius?

A

Intra-articular fracture with dorsal or volar subluxation of the carpus.

Associated carpal instability differentiates Barton fractures.

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9
Q

Which fracture historically described as a “reverse Colles” fracture?

A

Smith fracture (volar angulation fracture).

Contrasts the dorsal displacement typical of Colles fracture.

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10
Q

True or false: Non-displaced distal radius fractures have lower EPL tendon rupture risk compared to displaced fractures.

A

False, non-displaced fractures have a higher EPL rupture risk.

Non-displaced fractures increase pressure at EPL watershed zone.

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11
Q

Does wrist immobilization in full palmar flexion decrease risk of carpal tunnel syndrome after distal radius fracture?

A

No, it increases risk due to higher intracarpal pressure.

Extended wrist positions are preferred to reduce pressure.

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12
Q

Which distal radius fracture classification is based on the mechanism of injury?

A

Fernandez classification.

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13
Q

What is the key feature distinguishing the Melone classification for distal radius fractures?

A

It classifies fractures based on four major fragments: radial styloid, dorso-ulnar, volar-ulnar, radial shaft.

Emphasizes fragment-specific management.

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14
Q

What does Frykman classification primarily focus on in distal radius fractures?

A

Radiocarpal and distal radioulnar joint involvement, and ulnar styloid presence or absence.

Highlights joint involvement and ulnar injury.

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15
Q

Through which anatomical space does the lunate displace volarly in perilunate dislocations?

A

Space of Poirier (weak volar area of capsule between radiocapitate and long radiolunate ligaments).

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16
Q

Describe Stage 2 of the Mayfield classification for perilunate injuries.

A

Stage 2 involves disruption of the lunocapitate articulation (progression from radial to ulnar side).

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17
Q

What differentiates greater arc from lesser arc perilunate injuries?

A

Greater arc injuries involve fractures of radius, carpus, or ulna; lesser arc injuries involve purely ligamentous disruptions.

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18
Q

Which ligament is the primary stabilizer of the scapholunate joint?

A

Dorsal component of the scapholunate ligament.

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19
Q

Is the dorsal or volar component of the lunotriquetral ligament stronger?

A

The volar component of the lunotriquetral ligament is stronger (300N strength vs. dorsal component).

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20
Q

Name two secondary stabilizers of the scapholunate joint.

A

Dorsal radiocarpal ligament and scaphotrapezial ligament.

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21
Q

At what displacement (in mm) is a scaphoid fracture considered unstable?

A

Displacement greater than 1mm.

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22
Q

How does delay in treatment (>4 weeks) influence scaphoid non-union risk?

A

Increases non-union rate significantly, from ~5% up to 45%.

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23
Q

Recommended definitive treatment for a Gustilo-Anderson type II open distal radius fracture with a 2mm intra-articular step-off?

A

Internal fixation using a volar locking plate.

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24
Q

Why is K-wire fixation insufficient for an intra-articular step-off in an open distal radius fracture?

A

K-wire fixation doesn’t reliably maintain reduction of intra-articular fragments, leading to poor outcomes.

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25
Q

What advantage does volar locking plate fixation offer in open distal radius fractures?

A

Stable internal fixation, better fracture alignment, and lower infection risk after adequate debridement.

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26
Q

Optimal management of a displaced fracture-dislocation of ring and little finger CMCJs diagnosed at 5 weeks post-injury?

A

Open reduction and internal fixation (due to chronicity and complexity of injury).

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27
Q

Why is buddy-splinting insufficient at 5 weeks for CMCJ fracture-dislocation?

A

Because malalignment is already established, closed techniques are unlikely to restore proper anatomy.

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28
Q

When might arthrodesis of ring and little finger CMCJs be considered after a fracture-dislocation?

A

If severe articular cartilage damage is present, making functional restoration impossible.

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29
Q

Why is remanipulation with casting alone insufficient for re-displaced intra-articular distal radius fractures?

A

High risk of further displacement and poor anatomical restoration.

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30
Q

When is open reduction with a volar locking plate indicated in distal radius fractures?

A

For severely displaced fractures or those failing closed reduction or pinning.

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31
Q

Typical MRI appearance of occult scaphoid fracture on T1-weighted sequences?

A

Low signal (dark) on T1 images.

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32
Q

On STIR MRI sequences, how does an acute scaphoid fracture typically appear?

A

High signal (bright) on STIR due to bone marrow edema.

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33
Q

Why is MRI superior to X-ray in early scaphoid fracture detection?

A

MRI has higher sensitivity (>90%) detecting fractures invisible on X-rays.

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34
Q

What is the primary purpose of pre-bending a compression plate before fixation?

A

To prevent volar gapping at the fracture site.

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35
Q

What happens if a straight compression plate is applied without pre-bending?

A

Tension develops on the far cortex, leading to asymmetric compression and instability.

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36
Q

How does pre-bending the plate enhance stability in transverse fractures?

A

It creates uniform compression across the entire fracture site, minimizing gapping.

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37
Q

Which cells predominate early in the inflammatory stage of fracture healing?

A

Monocytes (which differentiate into macrophages).

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38
Q

Name two cytokines crucial for early inflammatory response in fracture healing.

A

TNF-α and IL-1.

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39
Q

During secondary bone healing, what is the role of the fibrin matrix?

A

Acts as a scaffold for inflammatory cell influx and subsequent cell differentiation.

40
Q

How does a lag screw fixation promote fracture healing?

A

It achieves interfragmentary compression, facilitating primary bone healing without callus.

41
Q

Why is a countersink used during lag screw fixation?

A

To ensure even load distribution, preventing stress concentration and screw head prominence.

42
Q

What happens to the proximal phalanx in an ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) tear of the thumb MCP joint?

A

It rotates by volar supination on the side of the UCL tear.

43
Q

In a Stener lesion, what prevents the UCL from healing spontaneously?

A

The torn UCL lies superficial to (trapped above) the adductor aponeurosis.

44
Q

What is the most common site for avulsion fractures associated with thumb MCP UCL injuries?

A

At the proximal phalanx insertion of the UCL.

45
Q

What intra-operative maneuver determines the need to fix an ulnar styloid fracture associated with distal radius fractures?

A

Ballottement test for DRUJ instability.

46
Q

When does an ulnar styloid fracture require fixation during distal radius fracture surgery?

A

Only if the DRUJ is unstable after distal radius fixation.

47
Q

Does ulnar styloid fracture size correlate with DRUJ instability in distal radius fractures?

A

No, stability is related to the integrity of the foveal attachment, not fracture size.

48
Q

What indicates surgical treatment for collateral ligament avulsion fractures of the proximal phalanx base in fingers?

A

Fragment involving ≥25% of articular surface with joint instability.

49
Q

Preferred surgical approach for unstable avulsion fractures at the proximal phalanx base?

A

Volar approach (avoids violating extensor mechanisms).

50
Q

When is ligament reconstruction required for proximal phalanx collateral ligament injuries?

A

Rarely, typically only in chronic injuries with persistent instability.

51
Q

First-line treatment for a type 1A TFCC tear presenting with clicking and ulnar wrist pain?

A

Arthroscopic synovectomy and TFCC debridement.

52
Q

Which TFCC tear type involves central perforation of the disc?

A

Palmer type 1A.

53
Q

What clinical test is most sensitive for DRUJ instability assessment in TFCC injuries?

A

Ballottement test.

54
Q

In Mayfield classification of perilunate injuries, what causes lunotriquetral dissociation in stage III?

A

Ulnar arcuate ligament pulling the triquetrum dorsally.

55
Q

In which stage of Mayfield classification do you see disruption of the lunocapitate articulation?

A

Stage III.

56
Q

What ligament remains intact until Mayfield stage IV perilunate dislocation?

A

Radioscaphocapitate (RSC) ligament.

57
Q

What type of carpal instability involves ligament injury within a single carpal row?

A

Carpal instability dissociative (CID)

58
Q

How is carpal instability non-dissociative (CIND) defined?

A

Instability due to injury of extrinsic ligaments, affecting stability between carpal rows.

59
Q

What best describes a radiocarpal joint dislocation in terms of carpal instability patterns?

A

Carpal instability non-dissociative (CIND)

60
Q

What is the Eaton-Belsky technique?

A

Transarticular fixation using antegrade k-wires through the MCP joint into the proximal phalanx.

61
Q

What is the advantage of lateral plating via mid-axial approach for proximal phalangeal fractures?

A

It avoids plate irritation and tendon adherence compared to dorsal plating.

62
Q

What deformity occurs commonly with proximal phalangeal base fractures due to intrinsic muscle pull?

A

Apex angulation deformity.

63
Q

What imaging is the gold standard to assess scaphoid vascularity intra-operatively?

A

Punctate bleeding assessment during surgery.

64
Q

Describe a Zaidemberg graft.

A

Vascularized graft from dorsal distal radius using the 1,2 intercompartmental supraretinacular artery.

65
Q

How is stage I SNAC wrist treated?

A

Cancellous bone grafting and radial styloidectomy.

66
Q

What factor determines surgical indication for a bony mallet injury?

A

Volar subluxation of DIP joint rather than fracture fragment size alone.

67
Q

Describe the Ishiguro extension-blocking technique.

A

The DIP joint is hyperflexed; k-wire blocks dorsal fragment migration and stabilizes the joint.

68
Q

What is the standard non-operative treatment duration for bony mallet injuries?

A

Mallet splint for 6-8 weeks, followed by 2 weeks night splinting.

69
Q

Which method is preferred for a dorsal fracture-dislocation involving 30% of the volar articular surface?

A

Extension-block pinning.

70
Q

When is hemi-hamate arthroplasty indicated for PIP fracture-dislocations?

A

For unstable injuries involving 30–50% of joint surface with non-reconstructable fragments.

71
Q

Why is static external fixation less desirable in PIP fracture-dislocations?

A

It does not allow early mobilization, increasing stiffness risk.

72
Q

Identify the fracture type described: “Intra-articular dorsal shear fracture of distal radius with dorsal subluxation of the carpus.”

A

Barton fracture

• Involves dorsal or volar rim of radius
• Associated with carpal subluxation
• Often requires buttress plate fixation

73
Q

Identify the fracture type described: “Fracture of distal third of radius with distal radio-ulnar joint (DRUJ) dislocation.”

A

Galeazzi fracture

• Needs ORIF of radius and stabilization of DRUJ

74
Q

Identify the fracture type described: “Fracture of ulna shaft with proximal radial head dislocation.”

A

Monteggia fracture

• Typically requires ORIF of ulna

75
Q

Identify the fracture type described: “Extra-articular distal radius fracture with volar angulation.”

A

Smith fracture

• Reverse deformity of Colles
• Usually treated with volar plating if unstable

76
Q

Identify the fracture type described: “Isolated intra-articular radial styloid fracture.”

A

Chauffeur fracture

• From rotational or shear trauma (historically crank handle injuries)
• May require surgical fixation

77
Q

Which fixation method is described by: “Converts tensile forces into compression at fracture site.”

A

Tension band wiring

• Common in olecranon and phalangeal avulsion fractures

78
Q

Which fixation principle is defined by: “Achieving fracture stability through three cortical points of fixation?”

A

Intramedullary wiring (three-point fixation)

• Common in metacarpal fractures

79
Q

Which fixation type is ideal for: “Providing stability against shear forces at metaphyseal fractures, e.g., volar Barton fracture?”

A

Buttress plate fixation

• Prevents fragment displacement under axial/shear loads

80
Q

Which fixation device achieves maximal compression when placed perpendicular to the fracture line?

A

Lag screw fixation

• Ideal for oblique/spiral fractures

81
Q

Which fixation method bridges comminuted fracture segments without directly fixing intermediate fragments?

A

Bridging plate

• Maintains alignment and length

82
Q

Which hand radiograph view best demonstrates thumb CMC arthritis?

A

Robert view

• True AP projection of thumb

83
Q

Which radiographic view demonstrates proximal migration of the capitate and scapholunate diastasis?

A

Clenched fist view

• Highlights subtle instability

84
Q

Which radiographic view identifies subtle impaction fractures at metacarpal heads (fight-bite injuries)?

A

Brewerton view

• Tangential view of metacarpal heads

85
Q

Which wrist view clearly identifies scaphoid fractures?

A

Ziter view

• PA, ulnar deviation, angled 20° towards elbow

86
Q

Which view is best for identifying fractures of the trapezial ridge or hook of hamate?

A

Carpal tunnel view

• Axial view with maximal wrist dorsiflexion

87
Q

Which wrist test is used to detect scapholunate ligament instability?

A

Watson’s scaphoid shift test

• Positive if painful clunk occurs

88
Q

Which wrist maneuver identifies midcarpal instability through a “catch-up” clunk?

A

Lichtman pivot shift test

89
Q

Which test assesses lunotriquetral joint instability?

A

Kleinman shear test

• Radially/ulnarly deviates wrist

90
Q

Which test helps identify ulnar-sided wrist pathology (e.g., TFCC injury)?

A

Ulnocarpal stress test

• Pain indicates positive test

91
Q

Which clinical test identifies lunotriquetral ligament instability?

A

Reagan shuck test

• Positive if painful click or laxity present

92
Q

What surgical technique is ideal for irreparable scapholunate ligament injury with reducible malalignment and no arthritis?

A

3-ligament tenodesis (Brunelli)

• Stabilizes scapholunate dissociation

93
Q

What treatment is best for complete yet reparable scapholunate ligament injury with normal alignment?

A

Open repair + K-wire stabilization

• Direct ligament repair, healing potential intact

94
Q

Which surgical procedure addresses incomplete scapholunate ligament injuries?

A

Blatt capsulodesis/Berger

  • Uses dorsal capsule for wrist stabilization
95
Q

Which fusion is optimal for irreparable scapholunate ligament injury with irreducible malalignment but intact cartilage?

A

Scapho-trapezium-trapezoid (STT) arthrodesis

• Stabilizes scaphoid; preserves wrist function