Nerve Flashcards

1
Q

What is the optimal surgical intervention to restore elbow flexion in an upper brachial plexus palsy primarily involving C5/C6 with partial C7 weakness, 9-months post-injury?

A

Median and ulnar nerve double fascicular nerve transfer.

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2
Q

Why are exploration and nerve grafting or allografting not optimal at 9 months post-injury for restoration of elbow flexion in a brachial plexus injury involving C5/C6 roots?

A

Axon regeneration across grafts at this stage would further delay reinnervation and muscle recovery by an additional 9-12 months, significantly reducing functional outcomes.

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3
Q

In a double fascicular nerve transfer to restore elbow flexion, which donor fascicles are typically used?

A

An ulnar nerve fascicle from the FCU to the biceps and a median nerve fascicle from the FCR to the brachialis.

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4
Q

Following a PIN palsy, after recovery of the Extensor Digitorum Communis (EDC), which muscles typically recover next?

A

Extensor Carpi Ulnaris (ECU), centralizing wrist extension.

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5
Q

In recovery from PIN palsy, which muscle typically recovers last?

A

Extensor Indicis Proprius (EIP).

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6
Q

What is a clinical sign indicating ECU reinnervation during recovery from a PIN palsy?

A

Wrist extension becomes centralized rather than radially deviated.

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7
Q

After a complete median nerve division at wrist level, which muscle typically remains functional due to dual innervation?

A

Flexor Pollicis Brevis (FPB).

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8
Q

What anatomical variant explains persistent FPB function following median nerve division at the wrist?

A

Riché-Cannieu anastomosis.

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9
Q

Which thenar muscle reliably indicates exclusive median nerve innervation and would thus be dysfunctional following median nerve division at the wrist?

A

Abductor Pollicis Brevis (APB).

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10
Q

Which medical treatment for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome has documented neurophysiological improvement?

A

Corticosteroid infiltration of the carpal tunnel.

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11
Q

Does wrist splinting in 30° extension optimize the carpal tunnel volume for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome treatment?

A

No, wrist splinting in neutral provides the greatest tunnel volume.

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12
Q

Which vitamin is commonly implicated in peripheral neuropathy relief but lacks evidence in carpal tunnel syndrome treatment?

A

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine).

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13
Q

What does Wartenberg’s sign indicate in hand examination?

A

Paralysis of the 3rd palmar interosseous muscle due to ulnar nerve palsy.

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14
Q

Why is the little finger abducted in Wartenberg’s sign?

A

Unopposed radial nerve innervation of extensor digiti minimi due to paralysis of the ulnar-innervated palmar interossei.

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15
Q

Which muscle recovers earlier during regeneration following ulnar nerve injury, potentially increasing Wartenberg’s sign?

A

Abductor digiti minimi (ADM).

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16
Q

How does demyelination affect nerve conduction studies?

A

Reduces conduction velocity.

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17
Q

What does axonal loss primarily affect in nerve conduction studies?

A

Reduction of Compound Motor Action Potential (CMAP) amplitude.

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18
Q

What physiological phenomenon do F-waves represent in nerve conduction studies?

A

Propagation of impulses proximally to anterior horn cells and back.

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19
Q

Which principle is NOT critical for successful tendon transfer surgery?

A

Strength of at least MRC grade 3 in donor musculotendinous unit.

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20
Q

Why must the donor tendon have synergistic function in tendon transfers?

A

To maintain natural and effective motion post-transfer.

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21
Q

What must be ensured regarding soft tissues during tendon transfer surgery?

A

Healthy, inflammation-free soft tissues without significant scarring or edema.

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22
Q

What length of sural nerve graft is typically harvestable from a single leg?

A

30-40 cm.

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23
Q

Which autologous nerve graft is vascularized by the superior ulnar collateral artery (SUCA)?

A

Vascularized ulnar nerve graft.

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24
Q

Compared to medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, how much longer is the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve graft?

A

More than double in length.

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25
Q

In chronic recurrent cubital tunnel syndrome with intrinsic muscle wasting and no motor potentials on EMG, which procedure is NOT appropriate?

A

Revision cubital tunnel release and anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) transfer.

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26
Q

What operative interventions are reasonable in chronic recurrent cubital tunnel syndrome to relieve pain, even with advanced muscle wasting?

A

Revision cubital tunnel release combined with medial epicondylectomy or anterior transposition, possibly with nerve wrapping.

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27
Q

Why is anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) transfer contraindicated in late-stage recurrent cubital tunnel syndrome with extensive intrinsic wasting?

A

Muscle end-plates have degenerated, and muscles are no longer amenable to reinnervation.

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28
Q

How does shoulder shrugging affect thoracic outlet compression?

A

Widens the space between clavicle and first rib, reducing compression.

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29
Q

Where is the phrenic nerve typically identified during thoracic outlet syndrome surgery?

A

On the surface of scalenus anterior muscle, passing lateral-proximal to medial-distal.

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30
Q

What characterizes a ‘post-fixed’ brachial plexus in thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

A large T2 contribution and minor or absent C5 root.

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31
Q

In a patient with a symptomatic superficial radial nerve neuroma-in-continuity who desires preservation of distal sensation, what is the optimal method for reconstructing an 18mm nerve gap after resection?

A

Processed nerve allograft reconstruction.

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32
Q

Why is conduit reconstruction not the best option for an 18mm nerve gap following neuroma resection?

A

Conduits are most effective for nerve gaps smaller than 6mm.

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33
Q

Why should proximal implantation or capping of the nerve stump not be the first-line option in treating a superficial radial nerve neuroma with preserved distal sensation?

A

Both techniques eliminate distal sensation, which the patient explicitly wishes to preserve.

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34
Q

What is the leading global cause of spinal cord injury?

A

Motor vehicle accidents.

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35
Q

In tetraplegia, why must the function of the biceps, brachialis, and supinator be assessed before tendon transfer surgery?

A

Because these muscles share innervation from C5/C6 and ensure preserved elbow flexion and supination function necessary for successful tendon transfer, especially the biceps-to-triceps procedure.

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36
Q

Is nerve function below the injured spinal cord level always completely absent in tetraplegic patients?

A

No, nerve function below the lesion can still potentially be stimulated and re-innervated via nerve transfers if the lower motor neuron unit remains intact.

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37
Q

Does the superficial radial nerve run superficially proximal or distal to the radio carpal joint?

A

It becomes superficial approximately 7 cm proximal to the radio carpal joint.

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38
Q

Which radial nerve branch commonly innervates the extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) muscle?

A

The superficial branch of the radial nerve can often innervate the ECRB muscle.

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39
Q

Injury to which nerve typically presents with wrist drop?

A

Posterior interosseous nerve (branch of the radial nerve).

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40
Q

In Parsonage-Turner syndrome presenting with persistent weakness and positive Tinel’s signs at the proximal forearm and carpal tunnel, what is the recommended management?

A

Proximal median nerve and carpal tunnel decompression.

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41
Q

Why is conservative management inappropriate when Parsonage-Turner syndrome recovery has plateaued and Tinel’s signs are advancing?

A

Conservative management would miss the critical window for surgical decompression, potentially compromising further recovery once nerve regeneration is stalled.

42
Q

Why are corticosteroids and antivirals not effective 9 months into Parsonage-Turner syndrome?

A

Such treatments are beneficial only during acute neuritis phases, not in late-stage or chronic presentations where inflammation has resolved.

43
Q

What tendon transfer is best for restoring thumb opposition in a patient with incomplete median nerve motor recovery?

A

Extensor indicis proprius opponensplasty (Burkhalter).

44
Q

Why would a Camitz transfer (palmaris longus) be inappropriate in an adult patient with median nerve injury?

A

The palmaris longus is typically involved in scarring from initial injury or repair, limiting excursion and transfer effectiveness.

45
Q

In cases of combined median nerve injury and cubital tunnel syndrome, why is opponensplasty indicated concurrently with cubital tunnel release?

A

Concurrent procedures simultaneously address thumb opposition deficits and ulnar nerve symptoms, optimizing functional hand recovery.

46
Q

Which muscle is directly innervated by the axillary nerve?

A

Teres minor muscle.

47
Q

Is the teres major muscle innervated by the axillary nerve?

A

No, it receives innervation from the lower subscapular nerve.

48
Q

What nerve innervates the medial head of the triceps brachii?

A

Radial nerve.

49
Q

In the International Classification for Tetraplegia Hand Surgery, a patient with intact ECRL/ECRB but weak pronation falls under which group?

50
Q

Which muscle presence differentiates group 2 from group 3 in the tetraplegic hand surgery classification?

A

The presence of extensor carpi radialis brevis (ECRB) differentiates group 3 (with ECRB) from group 2 (without ECRB).

51
Q

Would a patient with grade 4 wrist flexion be classified as group 3 or group 5?

52
Q

What histological pattern is typical of traumatic neuroma?

A

Extensive microfascicle formation with haphazard arrangement, unmyelinated fascicles, and dense fibrous tissue without encapsulation.

53
Q

Are microfascicles in traumatic neuromas typically encapsulated?

A

No, traumatic neuromas are typically unencapsulated, involved with dense scar tissue.

54
Q

What cells are prominent in traumatic neuromas?

A

Schwann cells, axons, and surrounding perineurium.

55
Q

Can a single gracilis muscle transfer simultaneously restore elbow flexion and finger extension?

A

Yes, by transferring a single gracilis with appropriate tendon lengthening and fascial grafting for both movements.

56
Q

Is gracilis muscle transfer affected negatively by a non-functioning antagonist muscle?

A

Yes, antagonist function significantly affects functional outcomes.

57
Q

Is the gracilis muscle a Type 1 or Type 2 muscle according to Mathes and Nahai?

A

Type 2, having one dominant and one minor vascular pedicle.

58
Q

Which muscles are commonly innervated by the recurrent motor branch of the median nerve?

A

Opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and superficial part of the flexor pollicis brevis.

59
Q

Does the recurrent median nerve branch typically innervate lumbricals or interossei muscles?

A

No, lumbricals (index and middle finger) are supplied by median nerve digital branches, and interossei are innervated exclusively by the ulnar nerve.

60
Q

Which part of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle is typically innervated by the recurrent median nerve?

A

The superficial part.

61
Q

Is endoscopic carpal tunnel release as effective as open carpal tunnel decompression?

A

Yes, endoscopic carpal tunnel release is at least as effective as open decompression in terms of symptom relief, neurophysiology improvement, and patient satisfaction.

62
Q

What is the approximate conversion rate from endoscopic to open carpal tunnel release?

A

Approximately 2.5%, significantly lower than the suggested 20%.

63
Q

What is the most common complication associated with endoscopic carpal tunnel release?

A

Neurapraxia of the third common digital nerve.

This complication occurs more frequently than injury to the palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve.

64
Q

Which extracellular molecule positively guides regenerating axons after nerve injury?

A

Laminin.

Laminin and fibronectin are glycoproteins promoting axonal elongation and providing positive guidance cues.

65
Q

Do semaphorins and ephrins provide positive or negative guidance to regenerating axons?

A

Negative (repulsive) guidance.

They establish exclusion zones preventing aberrant axonal growth.

66
Q

Why are both positive and negative guidance cues important in axonal regeneration?

A

They collectively guide regenerating axons along appropriate pathways by attraction and repulsion mechanisms, ensuring correct axonal targeting.

67
Q

Which type of nerve injury typically results in the worst outcomes after surgical repair?

A

Closed traction injuries with extensive intraneural damage and concomitant vascular injury.

Severe ischemia, wide retraction, and extensive fibrosis greatly impair recovery.

68
Q

Why do sharp nerve lacerations typically have better outcomes compared to blunt or traction injuries?

A

Sharp lacerations create a narrow zone of injury with minimal adjacent tissue trauma, facilitating more effective surgical repair and regeneration.

69
Q

How does the presence of concomitant arterial injury influence nerve repair outcomes?

A

It worsens prognosis due to additional ischemic damage, complicating nerve regeneration and increasing scarring.

70
Q

What is a common trophic change associated with Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

A

Osteopenia, along with hair, skin, and nail atrophy.

71
Q

Does CRPS exhibit a clear dermatomal or peripheral nerve distribution pattern?

A

No, CRPS typically lacks a clear dermatomal or peripheral nerve distribution pattern, differentiating it from specific nerve injuries.

72
Q

What differentiates CRPS Type 1 from Type 2?

A

Type 2 involves a definite peripheral nerve injury, while Type 1 does not.

73
Q

At 3 months post-ulnar shaft fracture fixation, what EMG findings indicate surgical nerve exploration?

A

Fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves indicating denervation, combined with absent motor unit potentials.

74
Q

Why are nascent motor unit potentials on EMG not a reliable indication for urgent surgical exploration?

A

They suggest early reinnervation and collateral sprouting rather than ongoing axonal injury requiring surgical intervention.

75
Q

Does muscle wasting of intrinsic hand muscles alone justify urgent surgical exploration at 3 months post-injury?

A

No, intrinsic muscle wasting at this stage typically reflects previous axonal loss, not ongoing injury requiring immediate exploration.

76
Q

Which test has the highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Durkan’s Test (carpal tunnel compression test) has greater sensitivity and specificity than Phalen’s or Tinel’s tests.

77
Q

Which test involves assessing the radial pulse with the patient’s head rotated and extended?

A

Adson’s Test, used in diagnosing thoracic outlet syndrome by noting diminished radial pulse indicating vasogenic symptoms.

78
Q

Which sign indicates ulnar nerve dysfunction in the intrinsic hand muscles?

A

Pitres-Testut sign, characterized by inability to abduct the middle finger radially or ulnarly due to ulnar intrinsic dysfunction.

79
Q

Which test can differentiate between rupture or avulsion of a brachial plexus nerve root?

A

Tinel’s Sign at Erb’s point helps differentiate rupture (positive Tinel’s sign) from avulsion (negative Tinel’s).

80
Q

Which maneuver evaluates the suitability for anti-claw procedures?

A

Bouvier maneuver, assessing ability to extend IP joints with MCP joints flexed.

81
Q

What anatomical structure commonly compresses the posterior interosseous nerve?

A

Arcade of Frohse, a fibrous arch from the supinator muscle.

82
Q

Which anatomical variant transfers motor fibers from the median nerve to the ulnar nerve?

A

Martin-Gruber anastomosis.

83
Q

Which ligament can cause ulnar nerve compression in Guyon’s canal?

A

Superficial Piso-Hamate ligament.

84
Q

What anomaly tethers the median nerve in the distal forearm?

A

Linburg-Comstock anomaly, an abnormal connection between FPL and FDP of the index finger.

85
Q

Which anatomical branch connects median and ulnar sensory territories in the palm?

A

Berrettini branch, providing sensory communication between these nerves.

86
Q

Which receptor type is slow-adapting, not encapsulated, and responds to static touch?

A

Merkel cell neurite complex (Merkel discs).

87
Q

Which receptor rapidly adapts, has a large receptive field, and senses deep pressure and fast vibration?

A

Pacinian corpuscles.

88
Q

Which receptor is encapsulated, slow-adapting, and responds to static touch and stretch?

A

Ruffini end-organs.

89
Q

Which receptor rapidly adapts, has a small receptive field, and senses moving touch with slow vibration?

A

Meissner corpuscles.

90
Q

Which receptor type, not encapsulated, senses pain and temperature?

A

Free nerve endings.

91
Q

Which neuroma treatment involves wrapping nerve stumps in a free muscle graft?

A

Regenerative peripheral nerve interface.

92
Q

Which neuroma management technique deliberately sacrifices sensory function in two nerve territories?

A

Centro-central anastomosis, resulting in sensory deficit in both donor nerves.

93
Q

Preferred reconstruction for neuroma-in-continuity with preserved distal function?

A

Autograft/allograft reconstruction.

94
Q

Which technique involves significant size mismatch during neurorrhaphy?

A

Targeted Muscle Reinnervation (TMR), often matching large sensory nerves to smaller motor branches.

95
Q

Neuroma management with the highest recurrence of symptoms?

A

Relocation nerve grafting (“graft to nowhere”).

96
Q

Optimal nerve donor to restore deltoid function after C5 nerve root avulsion?

A

Triceps branch transfer to the axillary nerve (Leechavengvongs procedure).

97
Q

Best nerve transfer to restore supraspinatus function in C5 avulsion injuries?

A

Transfer fascicles from the posterior division of C7 to suprascapular nerve.

98
Q

Recommended nerve transfer to restore spinal accessory nerve function after proximal injury?

A

Posterior approach spinal accessory medial branch transfer.

99
Q

Which nerve transfer is indicated to restore finger extension after C8/T1 avulsion?

A

Supinator branch (C5/C6) to posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) distal to Arcade of Frohse.

100
Q

Which nerve transfer technique improves ulnar intrinsic muscle function after proximal ulnar nerve repair?

A

Distal anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) to motor fascicles of the ulnar nerve for early reinnervation of intrinsics.