soal sem 8 Flashcards
Deconditioning syndrome is the condition that may lead to orthostatic hypotension. According to that statement, which one is true:
a. Due to lack of mobility, there is increase in venous return and decrease in stroke volume.
b. Decrease of flexibility can cause joint contracture
c. Diuresis, increase blood flow and plasma volume
d. Increase cardiac output.
A
- These statements regarding pressure ulcers are true, except
a. Optimizing wound healing, promote granulation and re-epithelization
b. Relief pressure
c. Location of development of pressure ulcer is not important
d. Bony prominence is the common site
C
- These statements regarding stroke management are true, except
a. Resolution of ischemic penumbra
b. Resolution of edema and diaschisis
c. ..
d. Increase activity through spared alternative pathway
ga
- Glasgow Coma Scale, Rancho Los Amigos are scoring methode of consciousness. These statements are true expect:
a. Grade IV Rancho Los Amigos is localized response .
b. GCS M5 V4 E3 is localized response to pain and eye to speech.
c. No response to pain is grade I in Rancho Los Amigos
d. Grade 4 in GCS is spontaneous eye movement
ga
- Neurogenic bladder is lack to sensitivity to feel dysuria as a symptom of infection. Symptom of urinary tract infection that usually appear is:
a. Fever
b. Autonomic dysreflex syndr.
c. Increase spasticity
d. All true
ga
- In neurogenic bladder management, to perform ICP we should assess the following, except:
a. Hand function to perform ICP
b. Sacral sensitivity
c. Cognitive is not important
d. BCR is positive, in the integrity of pudendal nerve S2-4
ga
- Spasticity in traumatic brain injury have many consequences because it can cause the following condition, except:
a. Increase metabolic demand that can cause increase intracranial pressure.
b. Liver function should be evaluate if the therapy included Dantrolene
c. Significant etiology for contracture
d. Tendon lengthening should be done as soon as possible.
ga
- The condition below is not true for Parkinson:
a. Slowing in movement can reduce ADL
b. Stage I Hoeh and Yahr include both side
c. Rigidity is not velocity dependent
d. Shuffling and dragging pattern of walking is one of some characteristic
ga
- In diabetic neuropathy, the following conditions are true, except:
a. Erectile impotence is sudomotir autonomic syndrome
b. Glove and stocking distribution of decreased sensory
c. Loss of sensory of pain and temperature can cause foot ulcer.
d. Sensory disfunction is the dominant symptom
ga
- This condition is true for carpal tunnel syndrom, except:
a. Median nerve enclosed by carpal bones and transversal carpal ligament.
b. Diagnosed typical sensory deficit only
c. Tendon flexors also compressed.
d. Tinnel and Phalen test are the provocative test
ga
- Occlusion of cerebry media artery can cause the following condition, except:
a. Dysarthria and clumsy hand only
b. Contra lateral hemiparese and sensory more involve on upper extremity
c. Aphasia if there is involvement of language center
d. Contralateral hemianopia
ga
- Wallenberg’s Syndrome has characteristic like below, except:
a. Contralateral pain and temperature
b. Ipsilateral ataxia
c. Horner syndrom
d. Ipsilateral paralysis of soft palate
ga
Poor prognostic of stroke:
a. Prolong flaccid
b. Twitchel describe synergy pattern followed by normal volitional movement
c. If lesion affect middle cerebral artery, LE more recover than UE.
d. Proprioceptive is the important key function to motoric re-learning
A
Impairment to perceive and differ stimulus while the sensory still intact is:
a. Aphasia
b. Dysarthria
c. Apraxia
d. Agnosia
ga
Below is true for central cord syndrome, except:
a. .
b. Usually happen in older patient
c. Increase loss in lower extremities
d. Perianal sensory is normal
ga
Below is true for spinothalamic tract, except:
a. Origin site from anterior horn
b. Crossing the mid line in spinal chord
c. Lamina I, III, IV at dorsal horn are site of original site
d. Convey pain and temperature
ga
- Below is true for dorsal collum medial lemnicus pathway, except:
a. primary afferent from muscle and joint
b. proprioceptive of light touch and vibration
c. innervation of predominant ext. and axial motoric muscle
d. .
ga
- Spastic hemiplegic of arm, forearm and leg in Brown Sequard Syndrome result from lesion :
a. Anterolateral syndr
b. Fasiculus and gracilis
c. Lateral corticospinal
d. Fasiculus and cuneatus
ga
- This condition is true for claw hand except:
a. Positive Phalen
b. Thenar weakness
c. Palm paresthesia
d. Lack of electrodiagnosis
ga
- this condition is true for Brown Sequard Syndrome at C4 except:
a. ipsilateral proprioseptive, pain and temperature sensory below injury
b. ipsilateral spastic hemiplegic of arm, forearm and leg
c. ipsilateral gracilis cuneate, dorsolateral funiculus
d. ipsilateral loss of pain, temperature beginning one level below lesion
ga
- Motoric and sensory nerve conduction :
a. Unmyelinated nerve fibre
b. Light myelinated nerve fibre
c. Fastest myelinated nerve
d. All of the above
ga
- H reflex is:
a. Analog with ankle reflex
b. Created from supramaximal stimulation of anterior horn
c. Action potential due to stimulation of motor neuron
d. None true
ga
- The following condition is not indication for electrodiagnosis:
a. Asissted in determine the chronicity
b. Asissted in diagnosed UMN lesion
c. Confirm radiculopathy
d. Confirm peripheral nerve injury
ga
- Contra indication of electrodiagnosis except:
a. Multiple medication, include inhalation
b. Muscle biopsy
c. Included therapy with coumadine
d. Therapy included defibrillator
ga
- Weakness in nerve entrapment is due to :
a. Neuropraxia
b. Denervation
c. Axonotmesis
d. Neurotmesis
ga
A woman 30 years old, slim, complain 30 degree flexion contraction of 5th digit, abduction and grip strength 4/5, MMT 5/5, decrease in sensory of 4th – 5th digit, medial palm
a. TOS
b. Ulnar nerve entrapment at elbow
c. Compression of Guyon’s canal
d. All of above
ga
A woman 30 years old, slim, complain 30 degree flexion contraction of 5th digit, abduction and grip strength 4/5, MMT 5/5, decrease in sensory of 4th – 5th digit, medial palm Test including: a. MRI b. EMG c. Nerve conductive study d. Arteriography
ga
32 years old man, hit his finger. His finger can passively repair to full extension. Treatment included:
a. Splinting proximal interphalanges in extension for 6 weeks
b. Central slip adv.
c. Lateral band transfer
d. Soft tissue release
ga
This condition is not true for Carpal Tunnel Sy, except:
a. Tendon flexor digitorum superficialis
b. Flexor pollicis longus
c. Flexor carpi ulnaris
d. Flexor carpi radialis
C
Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome is the condition when there is entrapment of :
a. Tibial nerve
b. Sural nerve
c. Superficial peroneal nerve
d. Saphenous nerve
ga
Brachial Plexus Injury, if the condition is winging of the scapula, the lesion will affect:
a. Root
b. Trunk
c. Division
d. Chord
ga
Wrist drop, the lesion included:
a. Mid trunk
b. Medial chord
c. Posterior chord
d. Lateral chord
ga
- Musculocutaneus nerve innervates the following muscles except:
a. Brachioradialis
b. Biceps
c. Brachialis
d. Coracobrachialis
ga
TOS can happen if :
a. Hypertrophy of anterior scalenus muscle
b. Hypertrophy of medial scalenus muscle
c. Hypertrophy of pectoralis major
d. Hypertrophy of pectoralis minor
A
Median nerve entrapment can cause the following condition, except:
a. Posterior interosseus syndrome
b. Anterior interosseus syndrome
c. Pronator teres syndrome
d. CTS
ga
Spasticity can happen due to:
a. Muscle spindle decreased sensitivity
b. Muscle spindle very sensitive
c. GTO decreased sensitivity
d. GTO very sensitive
ga
The following is pathopysiology of the development of musle spasticity :
a. The muscle spindle becomes less sensitive b. The muscle spindle becomes very sensitive c. The GTO becomes less sensitive d. The GTO very sensitive
ga
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is generally injuried of what type of injury ?
a. Hyperextension with valgus b. Pure varus c. Flexion, valgus, external rotation d. Direct trauma
ga
When a meniscus tear is present, when is the most common finding with a murray’s test ?
a. locking b. Pain c. Limited d. Audible clunk
ga
What is the appropriate initial treatment of an older patient with a degenerative meniscal tear ?
a. Up to three cortisone injections over 3 weeks period as symptomps indicate. b. Immediate arthroscopy with a partial meniscectomy c. Prolonged non weight bearing d. Trial of nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) & activity modification
ga
The Principal ion needed for muscle contrantion is…….,which is stored in the…….
a. Calcium, sarcoplasmic reticulum b. Sodium,sarolemma c. Calcium, tranverse tubules d. Sodium, sarcoplasmic reticulum
ga
The measure of VO2 max is fundamental measure of the ?
a. Physiologic functional capacity for exercise b. Physiologic anaerobic functional capacity c. Physiologic ability to generate power from immediate energy sources d. Skeletal muscle dependence on Oxi Physiologicgenase
ga
The component of fitness include all of the following :
a. Cardiorespirator y endurance, muscular strength, BMI & force expiratory vol.in one second
(FEV1)
b. Cardiorespirator y endurance, muscular strength & endurance, flexibility,BMI, muscular
strength & endurance.
c. Cardiorespirator y endurance, flexibility, BMI,muscular strength & endurance
d.Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, …body mass, flexibility
ga
Propioceptive neuromuscular facilitation is a form of :
a. Muscular strength b. Muscular endurance training c. Flexibility d. Cardiorespiratory training
ga
All of the following are true regarding exercise & post stroke care, except :
a.Strength training can safely be used in most post stroke rehabilitation programs to improve
muscle strength & overall balance.
b. Exercise has shown benefit for primary prevention but not secondary….
ga
What is the mos dangeorous complication of dysphagia :
a. Dehydration c.Malnutrition b. Aspiration d.Emotional problem
ga
Exercise training in pulmonary rehabilitation must consider all of these aspect, except :
a. Nutritional status c.Blood gas analysis b. Cardiovascular problem d.Height of the patient
ga
These are possible mechanism contributing to dyspnea in COPD, except:
a. increase ventilatory demand b.Dynamic airway compression c. Dynamic hyperinflation d.Upper & LE muscle weakness
ga
Diseasse specific Health Related Quality Of Life Questionnaires in COPD problem are all of
These, except :
a.Short-form 36 questionnaire c.SGRQ
b.Chronic respiratory disease questionnaire d.Breathing problem Questionnaire
ga
Respiratory musle training has potential benefits especially in patients with :
a. Mild COPD C.Low general endurance b. Weaning failure d.Mild COPD &…..
ga
Minimal clinically important difference of 6 MWT that was evidence based is:
a. 76 m (range 54-93 m)
b. 106 m (range 74-113 m)
c. 54 m (range 37-71 m)
d. 34 m (range 21-54 m)
ga
All the statement below are heart disease that need cardiac rehab program, except:
a. post MCI
b. post CABG
c. chronic congestive heart failure
d. severe aritmia
ga
if patient with post MCI become very frail, exercises training is prescribed as this:
a. intensity as low as 60% of max HR
b. intensity 60% of max HR
c. Intensity 60-70% max HR
d. Intensitiy 70-80% max HR
ga
One of the statement below are an absolute contraindication to be tolerated in exercises:
a. significant pulmonary hypertension
b. tachyaritmias or bradyaritmias
c. unstable angina with recent chest pain
d. moderate valvular heart disease
ga
The most commonly used treadmill protocol that can be tolerated better by patient with CHF is:
a. Noughton b. Weber c. Balke d. Modified Bruce
ga
The syanotic type of congenial heart defect is:
a. VSD b. ASD c. Transpotition of Great artery d. patent ductus arteriosus
ga
This specific exercise training for patient with post CABG should be avoid is:
a. aerobic training
b. anaerobic training
c. endurance training
d. strengthening training
ga
Beneficial effect of exercise training for cardiac rehab is, except:
a. reducing plasma glucose
b. increase LDL cholesterol
c. Increase HDL cholesterol
d. lowering resting blood pressure
ga
. The trainer for PWD in CBR area is:
a. family b. cadres c. formal leader d. community
ag