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Semester 8 > soal sem 8 - 3 > Flashcards

soal sem 8 - 3 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which muscle / tendon is most commonly involved in rotator cuff tendinits:
A. Subscapularis
B. Infraspinatus
C. Supraspinatus
D. Biceps
A

C

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2
Q

Common findings on a physical exam on patient with OA of the shoulder:
A. Active & passive ROM decreased
B. Active ROM only decreased
C. Sensation is decreased
D. Deep tendon reflexes are negative / decreased

A

B

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3
Q

The purpose of using splint, except:
A. Prevent shortening of the finger
B. Prevent extensor muscle from overstretch
C. Facilitate recovery of the radial nerve
D. Prevent joint contractures

A

C

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4
Q 
Heberden’s node in OA can be found in:
A. PIP
B. DIP
C. Basal joint of the thumb (??)
D. MCP
A

B

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5
Q

The usual sensory distribution of median nerve:
A. Medial 2 digits of the hand
B. Lateral 3 ½ digit of the hand
C. Thumb, index and long fingers
D. Area over the carpal bones on the volar aspect of the hand

A

B

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6
Q

Erb’s Palsy:
A. C5 – C6 lesion of brachial plexus related to delivery problem
B. C5 – C6 lesion of brachial plexus related to brachial plexitis
C. C5 – C6 lesion of brachial plexus related to TOS
D. C5 – C6 lesion of brachial plexus related to any trauma

A

A

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7
Q 
Sustained repetitive, twisting movements of variable speed, anywhere in the body
A. Spasticity
B. Chorea
C. Balismus
D. Athetoid
A

C

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8
Q 
Preventing deformity, maintaining muscle length, tone management, preserving joint integrity, prevent / reduce pain is the function of:
A. PT
B. OT.
C. Kinesiotherapist
D. OP
A

A

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9
Q 
Management of pes planus grade I at age <1 y.o.
A. observation
B. Arch support
C. Thomas heel
D. Chukka type shoes
A

A

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10
Q 
Long term care of neurologic bladder
A. Routine evaluation of creatinine
B. Routine evaluation of ureum
C. Routine evaluation of urine
D. Routine evaluation of anocutaneous reflexes
A

C

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11
Q

A typical history of recurrent shoulder instability, except:
A. The arm goes “dead”
B. Pain radiates from the neck to the hand
C. The shoulder “slips out of joint”
D. Weakness with overhead activity

A

B

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12
Q

The OT also reports that Mr. X your patient, with 40% body surface area burn, is losing ROM in his right elbow during the past 7-10 days. After examining the patient and confirming the decreased in ROM, you:
A. Order a bone scan
B. Order a complete blood cell count & ESR
C. Order a splint to immobilize the joint
D. Order the therapist to more aggressively range the joint

A

A

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13
Q

During the team conference, the therapist tell you that Mr. Y, a patient with 40% body surface area burns, fatigue quickly during therapy. This is limiting the patient’s progress in rehab. You tell the therapist:
A. This is most likely secondary to depression, and you will prescribe an anti-depressant
B. This is most likely secondary to deconditioning, and they should work on energy conservation, and pacing issues.
C. This is most likely secondary to pulmonary issues, caused by inhalation injury, and you will consult pulmonology
D. Fatigue may be of multifactorial origin in burn patients, and you will investigate what could be the cause in this case

A

D

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14
Q 
Peripheral neuropathy in DM patient:
A. Numbness and burning in the feet
B. Radiating paresthesia and pain
C. Weakness in the hands
D. Trunkal sensory loss
A

A

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15
Q 
Physical examination of peripheral neuropathy in morbus Hansen. Which of the following is unlikely to be present:
A. Decreased in ankle jerk
B. Ankle clonus
C. Gait difficulty 
D. Pes cavus foot deformity
A

B

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16
Q

Initial treatment for bicipital tendinitis, except:
A. Anti-inflammatory medication
B. Therapeutic modalities
C. Avoidance of activity that provoked pain
D. Aggressive strengthening of the shoulder stabilizer

A

D

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17
Q

The phase of therapy for rotator cuff tendonitis, except:
A. Pain control and decreased inflammation
B. Immobilization
C. Restoration of ROM
D. Normalization of strength and dynamic muscle control

A

B

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18
Q 
Restoration of shoulder ROM except:
A. Codman’s exercise
B. Stretching of the posterior capsule
C. Postural biomechanic
D. Stretching of the scapulothoracic stabilizer
A

D

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19
Q

In regards to movement of the scapula, the serratus anterior does which of the following:
A. Rotates the glenoid upward with shoulder abduction
B. Rotates the glenoid downward with shoulder abduction
C. Rotates the glenoid upward with shoulder forward flexion
D. Elevates the vertebral border of the scapula away from the chest wall

A

C

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20
Q

Functional elbow ROM:
A. Extension – flexion from 0 – 150 deg with pronation approx. 75 deg, supination approx. 85 deg.
B. Extension – flexion from 0 – 150, pronation 50, supination 50.
C. Extension – flexion from -30 to 130, pronation 50, supination 50
D. Extension – flexion from -30 to 130, pronation 75, supination 85

A

C

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21
Q

The origin of muscle that involved in lateral epicondylitis:
A. 1 fingerbreadth above the lat. Epicondyle
B. 1 fingerbreadth below the lat. Epicondyle
C. At the lat. Epicondyle
D. At the wrist

A

B

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22
Q 
Therapy for acute lat. Epicondylitis, except:
A. A forearm band (counterforce brace)
B. Anti-inflammatory medication
C. Progressive resistive exercise
D. Injection
A

C

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23
Q 
Identify the procedure that is most efficacious in the therapy of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis:
A. Surgery
B. Steroid injection
C. Iontophoresis
D. Splinting
A

B

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24
Q 
Therapeutic intervention for non-operative treatment for hand OA, except:
A. Aggressive strengthening
B. Splinting to rest involved joints
C. Instruction in joint protection
D. Thermal modalities
A

A

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25
Q

Swan neck deformity:
A. Flexion deformity of PIP
B. Hyperextension of PIP and flexion of DIP
C. Flexion deformity of PIP and extension deformity of DIP
D. Subluxation of the MCP and ulnar deviation

A

B

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26
Q 
Characteristic findings of OA of the wrist, as seen on plain radiographs, include all of the following except:
A. Osteopenia
B. Joint space narrowing
C. Subchondral sclerosis
D. Osteophyte formation
A

A

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27
Q 
Therapy for lumbar sprain / strain, except:
A. Cold packs
B. Prolonged bed rest
C. Moist heat after 48 hours
D. Short course of NSAID
A

B

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28
Q

Treatment options for spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis include all of the following except:
A. Stretches to reduce impairment of trunk mobility, hip flexors, hamstrings, and calves
B. Strengthening of abdominal and back muscles
C. Education, analgesics, and anti-inflammatory medications
D. Lumbar spine fusion within a month of the initial symptoms

A

D

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29
Q

In lumbar stenosis, the physical examination:
A. Commonly reveals signs of occult spinal dysraphisms in adult
B. Indicates that the spinal ROM is usually significantly limited in flexion
C. Reveals the skin trophic changes are common
D. May include a positive “Stoop Test”

A

D

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30
Q

The most common presenting complaint of hip OA

a. Joint effusion
b. Pain
c. Crepitus
d. Joint contracture.

A

B

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31
Q

Which of the following is not the treatment of pyriformis syndrome :
A. Anti inflammatory medication
B. Strengthening of the gluteus medius
C. Stretching of pyriformis
D. Transforaminal epidural steroid injection

A

D

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32
Q

Initial treatment of quadriceps contusion includes :
A. Local injection of dispersed hyaluronidase to decrease recovery time
B. Partial weight bearing, cryotherapy, and other exercise in pain free ROM
C. Massage to decrease edema in anterior thigh
D. Oral steroid to interrupt the inflammatory tissue response

A

B

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33
Q 
What is the best way to elicit symptoms from a Baker Cyst :
A. Complete knee flexion
B. Complete knee extention
C. Internal rotation of the knee
D. External rotation of the knee
A

A

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34
Q 
. The medial collateral ligament :
A. Prevent varus knee forces
B. Has attachment to the medial meniscus
C. Is usually injured in isolation
D. Contribute a significant proportion to the pes anserine bursa
A

B

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35
Q 
Risk factors for hamstring injury include, except:
A. Poor flexibility 
B. Gender
C. Insufficient warm up 
D. History of previous hamstring injury
A

B

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36
Q

The bursae that communicated with the knee joint
A. Suprapatellar, prepatellar, and infrapatellar
B. Popliteus, prepatellar, infrapatellar
C. Suprapatellar, popliteus, and medial gastrocnemius
D. Suprapatellar, prepatellar, and Baker’s

A

ga

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37
Q

The bursae that communicated with the knee joint
A. Suprapatellar, prepatellar, and infrapatellar
B. Popliteus, prepatellar, infrapatellar
C. Suprapatellar, popliteus, and medial gastrocnemius
D. Suprapatellar, prepatellar, and Baker’s

A

C

38
Q

Which statement is true
A. Closed kinetic chain exercises place less stress on the patellofemoral joint than open kinetic chain exercises at 0-45 degree knee flexion.
B. Closed kinetic chain exercises place more stress on the patellofemoral joint than open kinetic chain exercises at 0-45 degree knee flexion.
C. Closed kinetic chain exercises place same stress on the patellofemoral joint than open kinetic chain exercises at 0-45 degree knee flexion.
D. Closed kinetic chain exercises place less stress on the patellofemoral joint than open kinetic chain exercises at 90 degree knee flexion.

A

A

39
Q

The most important EMG sign of regeneration in completely denervated muscle is
A. Decreased number of fibrillation potential
B. Increased insertion activities.
C. Appearance of MUAP during voluntary contraction
D. Electrical silence

A

ga

40
Q 
Which of the following factors influence NCV 
A. Age
B. Temperature of limbs
C. Diameter of nerve fibers
D. All of the above
A

ga

41
Q

A motor unit consist of
A. Single anterior horn cell and all the muscles fibers innervated by its axon
B. A single anterior horn cell and a single muscle fiber
C. Numbers of anterior horn cell that innervated each muscle
D. All of the above

A

A

42
Q

Chronaxy is
A. 2 times rheobase
B. The minimum times required to excite the neuromotor time using a stimulus of twice rheobase
C The minimum current to cause muscle contraction
D. ½ rheobase

A

B

43
Q

NCV:
A. Varies directly with the diameter of the axon
B. Varies inversely with the diameter of the axon
C. Has no relation to the size of the axon
D. Is the same in all types of nerve fibers

A

ga

44
Q

Evidence of denervation in the rhomboid muscle indicates that the lesion is
A. Proximal to the trunk of the brachial plexus
B. In the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
C. In the medial cord of brachial plexus
D. In the suprascapular nerve

A

A

45
Q

The anastomosis of carotid and vertebral basiler systems are via
A. Extracranial-extracranial interconnection
B. Extracranial-Intracranial interconnection
C. Intracranial-Intracranial interconnection
D. All of the above

A

B

46
Q 
. The vertebral artery enters the skull through:
A. The innominate canal
B. Foramen magnum
C. Stylomastoid foramen
D. Foramen ovale
A

B

47
Q

Which of the following braces if preferred to correct severe equinus varus foot in spastic hemiplegia
A. Double upright short leg brace with klenzak
B. Spring wire dorsiflexion orthosis
C. Molded prolipropilene AFO.
D. Double upright short leg brace with T strap on medial side

A

C

48
Q 
Homonymous hemianopsia indicates:
A. Pre chiasmal lesion
B. Chiasmal lesion
C. Post chiasmal opposite side 
D. Optic tract on the same side
A

D

49
Q 
Which of the following sensation required the parietal lobe for final perception
A. Graphesthesia
B. Pain
C. Vibratory
D. Position
A

A

50
Q 
A patient appears to have good strength in hand and can use it for gross motor automatically but can not perform skill movement 
A. Constructional apraxia
B. Kinetic apraxia / motor apraxia
C. Ideasional apraxia
D. Ideomotor apraxia
A

D

51
Q 
C6 quadriplegic can be expected to 
A. Ambulate with crutches dan braces 
B. Push up while sitting in wheelchair
C. Pick up heavy object without splint
D. Dressed independently
A

C

52
Q 
Which of the following condition cause sudden increase in spasticity in paraplegia
A. Cystitis
B. Bladder stone
C. Decubitus
D. All of the above
A

D

53
Q 
. Patient fell forward, neck hyperextension, on PE he is quadriplegic, arms more involve than legs. X ray reveals no cervical fracture. This patient has
A. Central cord syndrome
B. Brown sequard
C. Anterior Spinal Artery thrombosis
D. Posterior column compression
A

A

54
Q 
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is most commonly seen in
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Cerebrovascular accident
C. Brain tumor
D. GBS
A

ga

55
Q

Brown sequard, except
A. Ipsilateral spastic paralysis below the level of lesion
B. Caused by fracture dislocation of L3
C. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense below the lesion
D. Ipsilateral loss of proprioceptive below the lesion

A

B

56
Q

Which of the following may be used for treatment of shoulder hand syndrome
A. PT including exercise and heat / cold application
B. Analgesics
C. Systemic corticosteroid
D. All of the above

A

ga

57
Q

A circumducted gait in a man with above knee amputation is most likely due to
A. Right heel his SACH foot
B. Inadequate socket suspension
C. Inadequate friction in his prosthetic knee unit
D. His prosthetic foot being set in dorsiflexion

A

B

58
Q 
C5 tetraplegia, orthotic splinting to maintain functional position of the hand:
A. Inhibiting MCP flexion
B. Wrist flexion in 30 degree 
C. 1-20 degree of MCP flexion
D. Flattening of the palmar crease
A

C

59
Q 
Which cryotherapy uses convection as energy transfer
A. Whirpool bath
B Cold pack
C. Vapocoolant spray
D. Cold water immersion
A

ga

60
Q 
Reliabilities of isokinetic dynamometer are affected by:
A. Total work
B. Peak torque 
C. Preactivation isometric
D. Gravity correction
A

ga

61
Q 
The isokinetic testing for quadriceps muscle after ACL injury post reconstruction should be start in within weeks of 
A. 2 – 6 weeks
B. 7 – 12 weeks
C. 13 – 20 weeks
D. 21 – 27 weeks
A

ga

62
Q 
The statements below are special examination to make exact ACL injury diagnose, except:
A. Lachman test
B. Distraction test
C. Drawer test
D. Pivot shift test
A

B

63
Q 
Contraindication on using water as physical agent for an athlete that need strengthening exercise in water is :
A. Skin graft
B. Cardiac failure
C. Epilepsi
D. All of the above
A

D

64
Q 
. The exact type of stress testing that will be given to the athlete is
A. Monark steady method test
B. 400 meters walking test
C. Step test
D. 6 minutes walking test
A

A

65
Q 
Body mass index classification (Asia Pasific) for obesity grade 1 is:
A. 18,5 – 22,9
B. 23,0 – 24,9
C. >25,0 – 29,9
D.  ≥ 30
A

C

66
Q 
The waist circumference value for obesity of men is 
A. > 82 cm
B. > 92 cm
C. > 102 cm
D. > 112 cm
A

C

67
Q 
The exact intensity of training that should be given for obesity grade I with NIDDM type II, 35 yo is :
A. 50-60% dari Max HR
B. 60-70% idem
C. 60-85% idem
D. 70-85% idem
A

B

68
Q 
The exact type of stress testing that should be given to an obesity patient wifth OA knee and NIDDM type II is :
A. Step test
B. 6 minutes walk test
C. 400 meters walk test
D. Encycle symptom limited test
A

D

69
Q 
All the statement below are the cause of hip hiking gait except :
A. weakness of hamstring muscle
B. weakness of dorsiflexor
C. damage of plantar stop orthose
D. ankylosis of the knee
A

ga

70
Q

An example of a closed kinetic chain ankle group strengthening exercise that can be used during rehabilitation of chronic ankle instability is one of the following :
A. Calf raises
B. Ankle eversion exercise where resistance tubing
C. Seated knee extention exercise with sandbag
D. Kickboard use in a pool

A

ga

71
Q

All of the following statement are correct regarding the coordination exercise, EXCEPT :
A. One ot the methods is Frankel exercise
B. To perform constant repetition movement
C. To apply sensory input
D. To strengthening progressively the particular muscles

A

D

72
Q

42 yo, car mechanic, 3 months low back pain, lower limb pain after lifting equipment. Sdh dpt ibuprofen 800 mg 4x/day without improvement. He is unable to flex through the lumbar spine or sit without pain :
A. Modify duty no repetitive twisting or bending, no push / pulling weight > 10 kg
B. Return to sedentary work 8 hours/day for 1 week, no push/pull > 5 kg
C. Light duty, no push/ pull or lift ≥ 15 kg for 1 month
D. Remain off work until lumbar flexion, sitting and lifting and no longer painful

A

A

73
Q 
66yo, Woman, RA sudah Total knee arthroplasty. Sdh dapat obat ……Hip flexion 5/5, knee extention 4/5, knee flexion 4/4 ankle dorsiflexion 1-2/5. ankle plantarflexion 5/5. Suspect :
A. Sciatic nerve stretch injury
B. Posterior tibial rupture tendon
C. Inadequate pain control
D. Peroneal nerve injury
A

D

74
Q 
. Erb palsy :
A. C4,C5
B. C5,C6
C. C7,C8
D. C8, T1
A

B

75
Q 
The benefit of postural drainage in COPD, Except :
A. Prevent of sputum accumulation
B. Improve air circulating
C. Improve oxygenation
D. Increase breathing working
A

D

76
Q 
The following intrinsic muscle of hand innervated by Median nerve :
A. Adductor pollicis
B. Half of flexor pollicis brevis
C. Palmar interosseous
D. Lumbrical 3&4
A

C

77
Q

MCP fixed in full flexion the extension of DIP and PIP done by :
A. Extensor digitorum communis & ext indicis propius
B. Ext dig comm. & interossei
C. Interosei & lumbrical
D. Lumbrical & Ext dig comm

A

C

78
Q 
Extrinsic muscle to extend finger except :
A. Extensor carpi  radialis longus
B. Extensor indicis propius
C. Extensor digiti quinti
D. Extensor digitorum communis
A

A

79
Q 
Boutonniere in RA :
A. Radiocarpal
B. Carpometacarpal
C. MCP
D. PIP
A

D

80
Q 
LBP, LE weakness, saddle anesthesia, Bladder & bowel incontinence :
A. Lumbal herniated
B. Lumbal stenosis
C. Lumbal Spondilolistesis
D. Cauda equine syndrome
A

D

81
Q 
Very high precission component :
A. Spherical grasp
B. Cylindrical grasp
C. Scissor grasp
D. Pincer grasp
A

D

82
Q

Not the early pathological feature in OA :
A. Joint cartilage cracks
B. Swelling of the joint cartilage
C. Increase joint cartilage water content
D. Loosening collagen frame work

A

C

83
Q 
OA typical radiologic :
A. Marginal osteophyte
B. Marginal erosion
C. Juxta articular osteoporosis
D. Joint space preservation
A

A

84
Q 
Most successful intra articular injection in for relieving pain & swelling in acute gout :
A. steroid
B. Colchicine
C. Metotrexate
D. Tumor  necrosing factor
A

A

85
Q

OA false :
A. Radiologic :there is joint space narrowing
B. Fluid analyses
C. Lokosit < 2000/mm3
D. there is good correlation symptom and degree of joint destruction

A

D

86
Q 
Sport for old osteoporotic lady, except :
A. Jogging
B. Walking 
C. Tai chi
D. Light morning gymnasium
A

A

87
Q 
Osteoporotic therapy :
A. Biphosponate
B. Biphosponate + Calsium
C. SERM + Calsium
D. Calsitonin
A

B

88
Q

Physical limitation in patient with peripheral arterial disease :
A. Localized muscular fatigue
B. Low cardiac output
C. Chronotropic insufficiency
D. Exagerate heart rate in response to exercise

A

A

89
Q 
Elderly person, component exercise, except :
A. Intensity
B. Load
C. Duration
D. Frequency and mode
A

B

90
Q

knuckle bender hand splint,kecuali a.dinamik splint b. Membatasi fleksi C.banyak dipakai Untuk morbus hansen d.murah dan gampang dibuat

A

ga

91
Q

yg bukan kontraindikasi untuk exercise dm : a.ketosis b. Gds>300 c.gds 180-250 d.gds <80

A

ga

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