SMM Flashcards

1
Q

List the checks in the 24 hour checks - 7(+1 as per SMM) items

A

Power Lever Test light
Beta Back-up system
Auto Feather system
Propeller Governor
Electrical System Check
Ancillary Electrics
Pneumatics check
ADF test

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2
Q

Takeoff brief contents
_____ of takeoff
_____ and _____ speeds
_____ in the event of an airborne _____
_____ procedures
Questions

A

Type
Decision, Safety
Intentions, emergency
Departure

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3
Q

Call for takeoff power should not be done prior to _____

A

gaining rudder authority.

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4
Q

Demonstrated max crosswind

A

27 kts

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5
Q

STOL Takeoff Restrictions
Shall not be flown from _____
Are not permitted when the _____ is unserviceable
Do not use _____ to arrest wheel vibration after takeoff
Should not be performed at _____ or in _____ conditions
Ensure that _____ and _____ are adequate to permit visual obstacle avoidance in the event of an engine failure
An _____ must be selected

A

the right seat (except by IPs)
auto feather
brakes
night, whiteout/greyout
ceiling, visibility
abort point

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6
Q

Initial 90 KIAS climb attitude

A

8°-12° nose up

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7
Q

Approximate power setting calculations
2 PSI Tq (both engines) = x fpm
or x KIAS

A

100 fpm
2 KIAS

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8
Q

Cruise descent is not to exceed _____ fpm

A

1000

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9
Q

Deleting a fix in an approach procedure in the active flight plan will

A

delete the entire approach.

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10
Q

Recommended holding airspeed and fuel flow (for planning purposes)

A

100 KIAS
400 lbs/hr

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11
Q

The Pre-Landing Check should be completed ____ the inbound track.

A

before intercepting

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12
Q

Flaps should be selected to 10° and an airspeed of 90 KIAS achieved _____ final descent.

A

prior to commencing

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13
Q

When should the aircraft be configured (10° flap 90 KIAS) when conducting an approach with a procedure turn?

A

On descent to a procedure turn altitude

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14
Q

Stabilized approach corridor begins at _____ AGL in IMC and _____ AGL in VMC

A

1000’
300’

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15
Q

Stabilized approach criteria - 8 items
(3 for different nav types, 1 for circling)

A

Descent rate no greater than 1000 fpm unless required and briefed
Approach and pre-landing checklists complete
The aircraft is in the landing configuration unless a delay in final flap setting is required and briefed
Non-precision ± 1 dot of course or 5° NDB
ILS localizer and glideslope ± 1 dot
PAR - no “well left/right/above/below” call
Circling - wings shall be level on final at 300’ AAE
Within -5/+10 KIAS approach speed

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16
Q

Circuit speed and approximate power settings

A

100 KIAS
18-20 psi Tq

17
Q

Normal point in the circuit to call for 10° flap

A

Abeam the button of the runway

18
Q

When planning a 0° flap landing, maintain _____ until rolled out on final.

A

100 KIAS

19
Q

Starter Limitations
Normal and
Dry Motoring (eg No Light Start)

A

40 seconds
25 seconds

20
Q

Practice stalls must be recovered by _____ AGL

A

5000’

21
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO converting from Magnetic to True

A

1) Estimate compass change (CADET)
2) Select EFIS switch M -> T
3) Select AHRS mode MAG -> DG

22
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO and True arriving at the destination in NDA

A

1) Estimate compass change
2) DG -> MAG -> DG

23
Q

Steps taken if in GYRO and NDA and entering SDA

A

1) Estimate compass change (reverse of CADET)
2) Select EFIS T-> M
3) Select AHRS mode DG -> MAG

24
Q

The PF shall ensure at least _____ feet of runway length is remaining when conducting a stop-and-go

A

1500

25
Q

The PF shall ensure at least _____ feet of runway length is remaining when conducting a touch-and-go

A

1500

26
Q

SAR door airspeed limitations
Door opening/closing: _____
Door open: _____

A

115 KIAS
140 KIAS

27
Q

SAR door OAT minimum for training is _____ °C

A

-18

28
Q

Approximate torque required to maintain airspeed with the SAR door open

A

5-10 psi