GPH 204 Flashcards

1
Q

Low Level Airways extend from _____ AGL up to, but not including _____ ASL

A

2200’
18000’

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2
Q

Standard control zone size for civilian towered aerodromes

A

7 NM
3000’ AAE

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3
Q

Standard control zone size for uncontrolled aerodromes

A

5 NM
3000’ AAE

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4
Q

Standard military control zone

A

10 NM
6000’ AAE

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5
Q

True/False
Intermediate stops may be included in a single IFR flight plan

A

False

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6
Q

VFR flight plans with 1 or more intermediate stops may be filed provided:

A

1) the stop is of short duration (EET includes stops)
2) the stop is included in the route section (format CYXU 0045 CYXU)

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7
Q

RVSM is all airspace within Canadian Domestic Airspace from FL _____ to FL _____ inclusive

A

290
410

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8
Q

High Level Airspace (Class A) begins at:
southern control area - _____ ASL
northern control area - FL _____
arctic control area - FL _____

A

18000’
230
270

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9
Q

GNSS substitution may not be used in lieu of ground based aids for

A

VOR and NDB final approach segment guidance on VOR- or NDB- instrument approach procedures

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10
Q

RVOP (Reduced Visibility Operations) means operations from RVR _____ down to and including RVR _____

A

2600 (1/2 sm)
1200 (1/4 sm)

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11
Q

LVOP (Low Visibility Operations) means operations below RVR _____

A

1200 (1/4 sm)

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12
Q

When holding short, if hold short lines are not visible, or not established, aircraft must hold _____ ft from the edge of the runway in use.

A

200

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13
Q

Common frequency for the broadcast of aircraft
position and pilot’s intentions flying in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome if no MF or ATF is published

A

123.2 MHz

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14
Q

At an uncontrolled aerodrome where no MF is in effect, traffic may join the circuit via
1) the _____ side and crossing overhead the aerodrome at circuit altitude or 1000’ AAE
2) if no conflict exists, via the _____ leg

A

upwind
downwind

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15
Q

If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross overhead an uncontrolled aerodrome before joining the circuit, it is recommended that
the crossover be accomplished at least _____ ft above the circuit altitude.
Descents should be made on the ____ side or well clear of the traffic pattern.

A

500
upwind

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16
Q

Below 10 000’ ASL, no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada at an indicated airspeed of more than _____ kts.

A

250

17
Q

No person shall operate an aircraft in Canada below 3,000 feet AGL within _____ NM of a controlled airport at an indicated airspeed of more than _____ kts unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

A

10
200

18
Q

An ATC revision to any item of a SID (DOES/DOES NOT) cancel the rest of the SID.

A

DOES NOT

19
Q

If a departure is rated 1/2, it implies an aircraft can, in IMC, safely depart in any direction based on these 3 premises.

A

Cross the departure end of the runway at 35’ AGL
Climb on runway heading to 400’ AAE
Maintain a minimum climb gradient of 200’/NM

20
Q

Departure procedures which require a climb gradient in excess of 200’/NM shall also publish a _____ departure.

A

SPEC VIS

21
Q

SPEC VIS departure for a Cat A aircraft (up to 90 knots in the climb) requires _____ statute mile(s) of visibility.

A

1

22
Q

In IMC with some exceptions, aircraft shall be operated at least _____ feet above the highest obstacle within _____ NM of the aircraft.

A

1000
5

23
Q

True/False
QNE is Standard Pressure (29.92)

A

True

24
Q

True/False
QNH is always Standard Pressure (29.92)

A

False

25
Q

True/False
IFR assigned altitudes can be refused based on pilot assessment of temperature effect on obstacle clearance.

A

True