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Smart Tests Flashcards

1
Q

Which amino acid is a precursor for heme in RBCs?

A

Glycine

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2
Q

How does dorzolamide reduce aqueous production?

A

It is a competitive inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase

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3
Q

Name 3 things that may result from vitamin A deficiency?

A

Nyctalopia
Papilledema
Xerophthalmia

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4
Q

Which of the ocular striated muscles is last to develop?

A

Levator palpebrae

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5
Q

Glycine is a precursor for what?

A

Porphyrins

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6
Q

Km is a measure of affinity between what?

A

An enzyme and its substrate

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7
Q

What does a vitamin A deficiency cause nyctalopia?

A

Vitamin A is a component in rhodopsin and iodopsin

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8
Q

Orbital striated muscles are derived from what dermal layer?

A

Mesodermal mesenchyme

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9
Q

What type of drug is gentamicin, and what subunit does it work on?

A

Aminoglycoside

30S

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10
Q

What type of drug are clindamycin and erythromycin?

A

Macrolides

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11
Q

Macrolides work on which subunit?

A

50s

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12
Q

Chloramphenicol, acetazolamide, and trimethoprim are all associated with the development of what adverse condition?

A

Aplastic anemia

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13
Q

What is the MOA of acyclovir?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

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14
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis can be a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with which drugs?

A

Clindamycin
Ampicillin
Fluoroquinolones
Cephalosporins

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15
Q

What will an increase in CO2 levels do to the binding between hemoglobin and oxygen?

A

Decrease the binding

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16
Q

How does the body compensate for blood pH changes during hyperventilation?

A

Increased excretion of HCO3-

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17
Q

What is an extra-focal distance?

A

Distance between the image and the image focal point of the lens

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18
Q

Describe the image created by a convex mirror.

A

Upright

Virtual

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19
Q

What is the conventional (trabecular) outflow pathway?

A 
Posterior TM
Juxtacanalicular cells
Schlemm's canal
Collector channels
Episcleral veins
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20
Q

A biopsy of a squamous cell carcinoma will most likely show a high concentration of what cell type?

A

NK cells

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21
Q

What does VDRL test for?

A

Active syphilis

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22
Q

What does a positive FTA-ABS test indicate?

A

That a person has been infected at some point by syphilis

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23
Q

Parasympathetic fibers that innervate the pelvis viscera originate from which area?

A

Sacral spinal cord

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24
Q

The midbrain contains the nuclei for which structures?

A

III
IV
Edinger Westphal nuclei

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25
The Edinger-Westphal nuclei controls what?
Pupillary constriction and accommodation
26
What happens to the corneal epithelium with age?
It thins
27
Where is the retina the thickest?
Parafovea
28
Which corneal layer has the most mitochondria? Why?
Endothelium | Na/K pumps
29
RPE cell death and breaks in Bruch's membrane due to the accumulation of lipfuscin increase the risk of development of which things?
Subretinal hemorrhage Pigmented epithelial detachment Sub-RPE hemorrhage Serous retinal detachment
30
The nacociliary nerve is a branch of which nerve?
V1
31
What information does the nasociliary nerve carry to/from the cornea?
Pain sensation from the cornea
32
Which layers of the cornea are capable of regeneration following partial thickness laceration?
Epithelium | Descemet's
33
How is Sjogren's evaluated?
Salivary gland biopsy
34
Which systemic conditions are most often associated with SLK?
Thyroid disease - most common | Graft-vs-host disease
35
Describe Posner-Schlossman syndrome.
Mild AC reaction with elevated IOP, with open angle
36
Retinal ganglion cell death in POAG occurs primarily via what?
Apoptosis
37
What are the initial site of insult in glaucoma?
Ganglion cell axons
38
Retinal ganglion cell death in glaucoma is partly due to microvascular ischemia of what?
ONH
39
A brownish petaloid cataract is characteristic of which disease?
Wilson's disease
40
What is Wilson's disease?
Abnormal deposition of copper within tissues, including cornea and lens
41
A Vossius ring is generally a sign of what?
Trauma
42
What is the most common benign orbital tumor in adults?
Cavernous hemangioma
43
What is the most common malignant orbital tumor in kids?
Orbital rhabdomyosarcoma
44
What is the typical presentation of cavernous hemangioma?
Unilateral, progressive proptosis | Occasionally optic nerve edema and choroidal folds
45
Nutritional optic neuropathy is most commonly seen in those that are deficient in which vitamin?
B12
46
What are the common VF defects in nutritional optic neuropathy?
Central or centrocecal defects
47
About 50% of NAION cases have an association with what condition?
HTN
48
Adie's tonic pupil is due to a lesion where?
Ciliary ganglion - decreasing innervation of the iris sphincter (parasympathetic)
49
Horner's system involves which nervous system?
Sympathetic
50
Argyll Robertson pupil is characterized by what?
Miotic pupil
51
What is Terson's syndrome?
Vitreous hemorrhage resulting from sudden elevation of ICP due to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
52
Can CNVM cause a vitreous heme?
No
53
Optociliary shunt vessels are most commonly associated with what 2 things?
Optic nerve sheath meningioma | CRVO
54
Best's dystrophy show what inheritance pattern?
Autosomal dominant
55
Name 3 autosomal recessive retinal dystrophies.
Gyrate atrophy Stargardt's Congenital achromatopsia
56
Talc emboli are most often associated with what?
IV drug use
57
What do platelet emboli look like?
Long, white plugs in retinal arteries/arterioles
58
Describe calcific emboli.
Large White Non-refractile particles
59
Where do calcific emboli typically originate from?
Heart valves or aorta
60
What type of drug is epinastine?
Antihistamine/MSC combo
61
What is the MOA of epinastine?
Inhibits H1 receptors | Prevents mast cell degranulation
62
Why do prednisolone acetate and dexamethasone alcohol more readily enter the AC than other steroids?
They are more lipophilic
63
Which glaucoma med may have the benefit of neuroprotection?
Brimonidine (Alphagan)
64
Prostaglandins work on which pathway?
Uveoscleral
65
What classification of drug is natamycin?
Antifungal
66
Bacitracin and azithromycin work on what kind of bacteria?
Gram positive only
67
Which common BP med has a side effect of annoying cough?
Lisinopril
68
What classification of drug is lisinopril?
ACE inhibitor
69
What is the MOA of moxifloxacin?
Inhibits DNA synthesis
70
What cells migrate to cover a defect following corneal trauma?
Epithelial cells
71
What happens to the concentration of crystallins with age?
Decreases
72
Which of the crystallins are soluble?
All of them
73
What do the crystallins do?
Maintain proper spacing of lens fibers to promot destructive interference
74
Which crystallins are chaperones by doing what?
Alpha - helping beta and gamma recover from injury
75
What is the primary source of oxygen to the corneal endothelium in open-eye conditions?
Tear film
76
The tear film is the primary source of oxygen for which corneal structures when the eye is open?
All of them
77
What 4 ions are actively secreted into the posterior chamber?
Na+ Cl- K+ HCO3-
78
What are the 3 rules of pantoscopic tilt?
Sphere power increases (same power) Cyl power increases (same power) Induced axis is 180
79
Central serous chorioretinopathy is most likely to occur from hyperactivity of sympathetic fibers traveling on which nerve?
Short posterior ciliary
80
What is microbial biofilm?
A protective mechanism of bacteria against preservatives
81
Inflammation of the superficial temporal artery (temporal arteritis) may lead to irreversible damage to the anterior optic nerve due to communication with which artery?
Short posterior ciliary arteries
82
Name the ocular manifestations of TB.
``` CME Chronic, bilateral anterior granulomatous uveitis Unilateral optic disc edema Keratitis Phlyctenules Conj granulomas Scleritis ```
83
What is Uthoff's phenomenon?
Reduced vision after increase in body temp (common in MS)
84
What is the primary cause of edema in inflammation?
Increased capillary permeability
85
HIV has progressed to AIDS when the CD4 T lymphocyte count is what?
200
86
What is the AC/A ratio formula?
PD - [(near -distance)*WD]
87
Which vitamin is required to convert procollagen to collagen?
Vitamin C

KMK (8 decks)

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