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KMK > Ocular Anatomy (with some accidental Disease mixed in) > Flashcards

Ocular Anatomy (with some accidental Disease mixed in) Flashcards

1
Q

What is sclerotic scatter used to look for?

A

Corneal edema

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2
Q

What is the illumination angle for sclerotic scatter?

A

60 degrees

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3
Q

What is an optic section used for?

A

Depth assessments - angle, corneal lesions

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4
Q

About how wide should an optic section be?

A

0.5mm

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5
Q

What is specular reflection used for?

A

Evaluate corneal endothelium and anterior/posterior lens surfaces

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6
Q

What is indirect illumination used to view?

A

Non-opaque corneal lesions

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7
Q

When a cobalt filter is used without fluorescein, what is highlighted, and in what color, that is commonly found in keratoconus?

A

Fleischer rings - corneal iron rings

Appear black

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8
Q

What may happen to IOP in cases of severe chemical burns?

A

Increase

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9
Q

Why are alkali burns worse than acid burns?

A

They raise tissue pH, breaking down fatty acids, allowing for faster penetration

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10
Q

Which are more common, alkali burns or acid burns?

A

Alkali - 2x as common

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11
Q

What is the most common cause of alkali burns?

A

Calcium hydroxide

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12
Q

In which type of chemical burn is limbal blanching more common?

A

Alkali

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13
Q

What are the common symptoms of a corneal abrasion?

A 
Pain
FBS
Photophobia
Tearing
Blurred vision
Mild AC reaction
Miotic pupil
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14
Q

A corneal abrasion typically stains with fluorescein, but doesn’t have what?

A

SEIs

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15
Q

What should always be done before removing a corneal foreign body?

A

Check VA

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16
Q

What is hyphema?

A

Blood in the AC

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17
Q

What systemic diseases may cause hyphema?

A

Sickle-cell retinopathy
Clotting disease
(others)

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18
Q

What typically causes hyphema?

A

Trauma to the iris and/or ciliary body

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19
Q

What should NOT be performed on a patient with hyphema?

A

Gonio

Scleral depression - they can cause re-bleeds

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20
Q

How long after an injury that causes hyphema can gonio be performed?

A

About 1 month

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21
Q

What are some additional signs associated with hyphema?

A 
Iris sphincter tear
Iridodialysis
Cataract (traumatic)
Vossius ring on anterior lens capsule
Commotio retinae
Angle recession
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22
Q

Why might there be a significant IOP increase in a patient with hyphema?

A

Blood cells block the TM, blocking outflow

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23
Q

What should you ask about if a patient presents with an idiopathic hyphema?

A

Use of blood thinners

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24
Q

What tests might you order if a patient presents with idiopathic hyphema?

A

CBC
Prothrombin time/partial thromboplastin time
Sickle cell screen

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25
Q

Which ethnicities have a higher prevalence of sickle cell?

A

African American

Mediterranean

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26
Q

Which type of intraocular foreign might cause significant inflammation?

A

Iron
Steel
Copper
Vegetable matter

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27
Q

What bone breaks in an orbital blow out fracture?

A

Maxillary bone

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28
Q

A patient presents with a blow out fracture and complains of loss of sensation of the cheek. What is the probable cause?

A

Damage to the infraorbital nerve

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29
Q

What is commotio retinae of the macula termed?

A

Berlin’s edema

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30
Q

What is iridodialysis?

A

Disinssertion of the iris root from the ciliary body

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31
Q

If a patient has an iridodialysis, what should they be monitored for?

A

Angle recession glaucoma

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32
Q

What is Purtscher’s retinopathy commonly associated with?

A

Chest compressing trauma

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33
Q

What characterizes Purtscher’s retinopathy?

A

Diffuse retinal hemorrhages
Exudates
Cotton wool spots

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34
Q

Acute pancreatitis may also cause this type of retinopathy that is commonly associated with chest-compressing trauma.

A

What is: Purtscher’s retinopathy

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35
Q

What does choroidal rupture usually appear as?

A

Single or multiple areas of subretinal hemorrhage, usually within the temporal posterior pole, with crescent shaped tears concentric to the optic nerve head

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36
Q

Choroidal rupture occurs in 5-10% of what?

A

Blunt trauma

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37
Q

What is the name for the most superficial portion of the orbicularis oculi?

A

Muscle of Riolan

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38
Q

What is the function of the Muscle of Riolan?

A

Keeps lid margin apposed to the globe during eye movement

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39
Q

Do the meibomian glands arise anterior or posterior to the Muscle of Riolan (gray line)?

A

Posterior

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40
Q

Which is the thinnest of the corneal layers?

A

Endothelium

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41
Q

What are the layers of the cornea from anterior to posterior?

A 
Epithelium
Bowmans
Stroma
Descemet's
Endothelium
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42
Q

Which layer of the cornea thickens with age?

A

Descemet’s membrane

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43
Q

What vascular system nourishes the lens during fetal development?

A

Cloquet’s canal (hyaloid vascular system)

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44
Q

What is a remnant of Cloquet’s canal left on the posterior lens called?

A

Mittendorf dot

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45
Q

What is a Bermeister Papilla?

A

Remnant of cloquet’s canal left on the optic disc

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46
Q

What 3 cell types are found within the foveola?

A

PRs (cones)
Glial cells
Muller cells

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47
Q

What 5 retinal layers are found within the foveola?

A 
RPE
PRs
ELM
ONL
Henle's fiber layer
ILM
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48
Q

What is the size of the fovea?

A

1.5mm or 1500 micrometers or 1 DD

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49
Q

What are the approximate thickness of the cornea?

A

Cornea - 550 microns

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50
Q

What is the thickness of the thinnest part of the choroid, and where is it located?

A

Ora serrata

.1mm

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51
Q

What is the thickness of the thickest part of the choroid, and where is it located?

A

Posterior pole

.2mm

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52
Q

How thick is the thickest part of the sclera, and where is it located?

A

1.0mm

Near the ONH

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53
Q

Where is the thinnest part of the sclera, and what does it measure?

A

Insertions of the rectus muscles

.3mm

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54
Q

How thick, and where is the thickest part of the retina?

A

Papillomacular bundle

.23mm

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55
Q

How thick, and where is the thinnest part of the retina?

A

.1mm

Foveola

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56
Q

What are the 2 functions of the ciliary body?

A

Accommodation

Aqueous humor formation

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57
Q

What 2 cranial nerves transmit parasympathetic innervation to ocular structures?

A

CN 3

CN 7

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58
Q

Where do the parasympathetics begin for CN 3?

A

Edinger Westphal Nucleus

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59
Q

What structures and receptors are innervated by the parasympathetics from CN 3?

A

Ciliary body - M2 and M3 receptors

Sphincter muscle - M3 receptors

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60
Q

From where does the Edinger Westphal nucleus arise?

A

Midbrain

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61
Q

Where do the parasympathetics begin for CN 7?

A

Lacrimal nucleus

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62
Q

From where does the lacrimal nucleus arise?

A

Pons

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63
Q

What structures and receptors are innervated by the parasympathetics from CN 7?

A

Lacrimal gland - M2, M3 receptors

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64
Q

What is the course of the parasympathetics that arise from CN 3?

A

Edinger Westphal nucleus
Ciliary ganglion
Innervates ciliary body and sphincter muscle

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65
Q

What is the course of the parasympathetics that arise from CN 7?

A

Lacrimal nucleus
Sphenopalatine ganglion
Innervates lacrimal gland

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66
Q

Parasympathetics to the eye innervate what 3 structures?

A 
Lacrimal gland (CN 7)
Ciliary muscle (CN 3)
Sphincter muscle (CN 3)
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67
Q

What 3 structures make up the uvea?

A

Iris
Ciliary body
Choroid

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68
Q

What is required for the formation of a CNVM?

A

A break in Bruch’s membrane

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69
Q

What are 4 conditions that can cause a break in Bruch’s membrane?

A

Exudative ARMD
Lacquer cracks
Angioid streaks
Histoplasmosis

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70
Q

What are the 2 xanthophyll pigments found in the macula?

A

Lutein

Zeaxanthin

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71
Q

What is the relationship of lutein and zeaxanthin to ARMD risk?

A

The act as antioxidants, and so protect against ARMD

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72
Q

How many layers of ganglion cells are contained in the macula?

A

2 or more layers of ganglion cells

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73
Q

What are the 2 types of sinuses within the cranium?

A

Air - ex. paranasal

Blood - ex. cavernous

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74
Q

What would be the expected facial finding in a patient with a lesion of the superior division of CN III?

A

Ptosis

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75
Q

What condition results from a lesion at the location of the ciliary ganglion?

A

Adie’s tonic pupil - the ciliary ganglion carries parasympathetics from CN 3 to the ciliary body and sphincter muscle

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76
Q

What are the findings of Adie’s tonic pupil?

A

Unilateral dilated pupil

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77
Q

Which nervous system is affected in Adie’s tonic pupil?

A

Parasympathetic - sympathetic takes over and dilates the pupil

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78
Q

What drug is used for diagnosis of Adie’s tonic pupil?

A

Pilocarpine 0.125%

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79
Q

Patient’s with Adie’s tonic pupil will have a delayed what?

A

Light response

Near response

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80
Q

Why do patient’s with Adie’s tonic pupil have a delayed light and near response?

A

There is a lesion of the ciliary ganglion, which is responsible for both the light and near response

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81
Q

Which cranial nerve is used for shoulder shrugging/head turning?

A

XI - accessory

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82
Q

The optic nerve gives off fibers to what 3 structures?

A

LGN
Pretectal nucleus
Superior colliculus

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83
Q

Where do preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that course to the pupil originate?

A

Edinger Westphal nucleus

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84
Q

Where do postganglionic parasympathetic fibers that course to the pupil originate?

A

Ciliary ganglion

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85
Q

What bones make up the medial wall of the orbit?

A

Sphenoid (body)
Maxilla
Ethmoid
Lacrimal

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86
Q

What bone makes up the majority of the floor of the orbit?

A

Maxillary bone

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87
Q

What degree of abduction makes the inferior rectus the primary depressor?

A

23 degrees

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88
Q

Which muscle cause intorsion, abduction, and depression?

A

Superior oblique

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89
Q

When are the oblique muscles responsible for elevation and depression?

A

When the eye is adducted 51-55 degrees

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90
Q

If a patient is instructed to look straight up, which muscles are performing this action?

A

Superior rectus

Inferior oblique

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91
Q

Where does the inferior oblique muscle start its course?

A

Maxillary bone

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92
Q

Which 2 bones make up the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

Zygomatic bone
Greater wing of sphenoid
(Lateral wall = Great-Z)

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93
Q

The bulbar conj and ciliary body both receive part of their blood supply from which vessels?

A

Anterior ciliary artery

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94
Q

What comprises the major arterial circle of the iris?

A

Long posterior ciliary arteries

Anterior ciliary arteries

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95
Q

Where is the major arterial circle of the iris located?

A

In the ciliary body

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96
Q

Why does a uveitis patient have inflammation of the ciliary body and circumlimbal injection?

A

Because they are both supplied by the anterior ciliary arteries

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97
Q

Lateral conj lymphatics drain into what?

A

Preauricular lymph nodes

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98
Q

Medial lymphatics drain into what?

A

Submandibular lymph nodes

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99
Q

Which glands lubricate the eyelashes?

A

Glands of Zeis

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100
Q

What is a second major function of the glands of Zeis?

A

Assist the glands of Moll and meibomian glands to produce the lipid layer of the tear film

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101
Q

Which layer of the tear film is secreted by blinking?

A

Lipid layer

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102
Q

What produces the lipid layer of the tear film?

A

Goblet cells

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103
Q

A deficiency in what will cause decreased production from goblet cells, causing evaporative dry eye?

A

Vitamin A

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104
Q

Which layer of the eyelid contains goblet cells?

A

Palpebral conjunctiva

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105
Q

What pupil abnormality would be most prevalent in the light?

A

Adie’s tonic pupil - (acute, dilated pupil)

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106
Q

Which pupil abnormality is most prevalent in the dark?

A

Horner’s

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107
Q

Sympathetic innervation to the dilator follows the course of which sensory nerve?

A

Nasociliary nerve

108
Q

Sympathetics on the nasociliary nerve have what two options?

A

Go to pupil dilator

Go to Muller’s muscle

109
Q

What nervous fibers does a pancoast tumor upset?

A

Sympathetic fibers

110
Q

What are the symptoms of a pancoast tumor?

A 
Miosis
Ptosis
Reverse ptosis
Anhydrosis
Dilation lag
(Much like Horner's)
111
Q

Does a Pancoast tumor affect pre or post ganglionic sympathetic fibers?

A

Preganglionic - synapse in the superior cervical ganglion

112
Q

Why does Bell’s cause ipsilateral paralysis?

A

It is damage to a lower motor neuron, so it stays ipsilateral

113
Q

What is the main ocular concern with Bell’s palsy?

A

Exposure keratopathy

114
Q

Bell’s palsy is an idiopathic palsy of what nerve?

A

CN 7

115
Q

What is the main ocular function of CN 7?

A

Close the eye

116
Q

A patient with a pupil involved CN 3 palsy should be suspected of an aneurysm at the junction of what 2 arteries?

A

Posterior communicating artery

Internal carotid

117
Q

A pupil sparing CN 3 palsy typically occurs from what 2 systemic diseases?

A

HTN

DM

118
Q

A lesion of the facial nerve would elicit what symptoms?

A

Loss of anterior 2/3 taste
Loss of facial expression
Loss of lacrimation
Loss of sound dampening

119
Q

Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in a patient with papilledema?

A

CN VI - due to the intracranial course ( and no protection by the cavernous sinus, like the other nerves) a rise in pressure will most affect this nerve

120
Q

What nerve innervates the lateral conj and lateral portion of the upper eyelid?

A

Lacrimal nerve (of V1)

121
Q

What nerve innervates the lateral part of the lower eyelid?

A

Zygomatic nerve (of V2)

122
Q

A palsy of which muscle will cause a patient to tilt their head to to opposite side of the palsy?

A

CN 4 - the entire nerve decussates, and the head tilts toward the side of the nuclear lesion, but away from the palsy

123
Q

Which extra ocular muscle has a different anatomical and physiological origin?

A

Superior Oblique

124
Q

What is the anatomical origin of the superior oblique?

A

Lesser wing of the sphenoid, and common tendinous ring (annulus of Zinn)

125
Q

What is the physiological origin of the superior oblique?

A

Trochlea

126
Q

Inability for a patient to look up during abduction is most likely a result of a lesion of what nucleus?

A

Contralateral superior rectus

-SR fibers decussate

127
Q

Which lens fibers are the most immature?

A

Lens cortex

128
Q

Which region of the lens continues to grow throughout life?

A

Cortex

129
Q

What are the vitreo-retinal attachments from strongest to weakest?

A 
Ora serrata
Posterior lens
Optic nerve
Macula
Retinal vessels
130
Q

The posterior pigmented iris epithelium is continuous with what?

A

Nonpigmented ciliary body epithelium and neural retina

131
Q

How does accommodation influence IOP?

A

Ciliary muscle contracts, pulling on the scleral spur, which is attached to the TM, pulling it open and opening the pores, increasing outflow

132
Q

Where do the lens zonules begin?

A

Pars plana of the ciliary body

133
Q

What part of the ciliary body secretes aqueous?

A

Pars plicata

134
Q

What is another name for the pars plicata?

A

Corona cilaris

135
Q

What percent of the eye does the vitreous comprise?

A

80%

136
Q

The pupillary ruff is formed by what layer of the iris?

A

Posterior pigmented epithelium

137
Q

Which layer of the iris is the primary contributor to iris color?

A

Anterior border layer

138
Q

Which iris layer is a minor contributor to iris color?

A

Iris stroma

139
Q

Which veins drain Schlemm’s Canal?

A

External collector channels
Deep scleral venous plexus
Intrascleral veins
Episcleral veins

140
Q

Where do corneal stem cells originate?

A

At the Pallisades of Vogt (limbus)

141
Q

Which corneal epithelia cells are the only type that undergo mitosis?

A

Basal cells

142
Q

Corneal limbal stem cells become what type of cell?

A

Basal cells

143
Q

When a corneal basal cells undergoes mitosis, what does it produce?

A

Wing cells

144
Q

What is the approximate axial length of the adult eye?

A

24mm

145
Q

Which is the most anterior angle structure?

A

Schwalbe’s line

146
Q

Which is the most posterior angle structure?

A

Iris

147
Q

Which layer of the eye is considered avascular?

A

Sclera

148
Q

Which areas of the eye have non-fenestrated capillaries?

A

Iris

Retina

149
Q

Which areas of the eye have fenestrated capillaries?

A

Ciliary body

Choroid

150
Q

What can pass through the tight junctions of non-fenestrated capillaries?

A

Water

Small ions

151
Q

What nerves supply the cornea?

A

Long ciliary nerves
Short ciliary nerves
-both are branches of V1

152
Q

Where do corneal nerves enter the cornea?

A

Mid-stromal region

153
Q

Which layer of the cornea is devoid of nerve supply?

A

Descemet’s membrane

154
Q

Why type of nerve endings are found in the cornea?

A

Open ended

AKA nocioreceptors

155
Q

What is the approximate volume of the orbit?

A

30 cc

-Globe is 6.5cc

156
Q

About what percent of the orbit is occupied by the globe?

A

22%

157
Q

What is the purpose of the Valve of Hasner?

A

To prevent nasal cavity fluid from entering the nasolacrimal system

158
Q

Where is the lacrimal gland located?

A

In a fossa of the frontal bone

159
Q

What types of tears does the lacrimal gland shed?

A

Reflex tearing

Emotional tearing

160
Q

What glands shed maintenance tears?

A

Accessory lacrimal glands

161
Q

A 45 y/o man has a loss of corneal sensation, cannot abduct, and tilts his head to his left shoulder as you examine him. No facial asymmetry is found, nor are there hearing difficulties. Where is the site of the lesion?

A

Cavernous sinus

-Symptoms stem from affected CNs IV, V1 and VI

162
Q

Macular sparing homonymous hemianopsias are often the result of what?

A

Stroke

163
Q

What two arteries supply the macula?

A

Middle cerebral artery

Posterior cerebral artery

164
Q

A cuneus gyrus lesion would give what VF defect in the macula?

A

Inferior VF defect

-That is where superior fibers terminate

165
Q

A temporal lobe lesion would yield what VF defect?

A

“Pie in the sky”

166
Q

A parietal lobe lesion would yield what VF defect?

A

“Pie on the floor”

-You “Par(ietal)ty on the floor)

167
Q

Which fibers would medial in the left optic tract?

A

Ipsilateral superior temporal

Contralateral superior nasal

168
Q

Superior fibers in the optic tract always go which way?

A

Medial

169
Q

Inferior fibers in the optic tract always go which way?

A

Lateral

170
Q

Which optic nerve fibers never cross?

A

Temporal fibers

171
Q

The left optic tract carries what fibers?

A

Ipsilateral temporal fibers
Contralateral nasal fibers
Contralateral nasal macular fibers

172
Q

Which region of the optic nerve head do the superior temporal retinal fibers occupy?

A

Superior pole

173
Q

Vision loss from anterior AION results from lack of blood flow through which arteries?

A

Short posterior ciliary arteries (SPCA)

174
Q

Where is the thickest region of rods in the retina?

A

Just outside the perifovea - 5mm outside the foveola

175
Q

Which region of the macula has the thickest region of ganglion/bipolar cells?

A

Parafovea

176
Q

What do neuroglial cells do?

A

Glycogen metabolism - providing nutrients to the retina
Immunological activities - some are phagocytic
Provide structure, support, and protection

177
Q

The central retinal artery forms 2 capillary networks within the inner retina. Where are they located?

A

In the inner nuclear layer (INL)

178
Q

Where does the first synapse occur in the visual pathway?

A

Outer plexiform layer

179
Q

What is the only layer in the retina that receives blood from the central retinal artery and the choriocapillaris?

A

Outer plexiform layer

180
Q

Where are the cell bodies for rods/cones located?

A

Outer nuclear layer

181
Q

In what layer of the retina are amacrine, bipolar and horizontal cells found?

A

Inner nuclear layer (INL)

182
Q

What are the layers of the retina?

A 
-RPE, 2 outer, 2 inner, GNI
RPE
PRs
External limiting
ONL - cell body of PRs
OPL
INL - cell body of bipolar cells
IPL
GCL - cell body of ganglion cells
NFL
Inner limiting membrane
183
Q

The RPE has a tight association with what?

A

Choroid

184
Q

RPE is derived from what?

A

The outer layer of the optic cup

185
Q

What fibers do the fetal nucleus originate from?

A

Secondary fibers

186
Q

Which layer of the lens contains the most crystallins?

A

Embryonic nucleus

187
Q

Which layer of the lens has the highest index of refraction?

A

Embryonic nucleus - because of all the crystallins

188
Q

Which layer of the lens contains the Y sutures?

A

Fetal nucleus

189
Q

What is Henle’s fiber layer?

A

The outer plexiform layer (OPL) in the foveola

190
Q

Where does CSF flow within the optic nerve?

A

Between the pia and arachnoid mater

191
Q

What is the most common cause of unilateral proptosis?

A

Hyperthyroidism - it is the number one cause of both unilateral and bilateral proptosis

192
Q

What is a distinctive sign of a carotid cavernous fistula?

A

Pulsatile proptosis

193
Q

Which nerve is responsible for swallowing, and posterior 1/3 taste?

A

Glossopharyngeal

194
Q

CN 9 - glossopharyngeal innervates which salivary gland (among other things)?

A

Parotid - allows salivation

195
Q

A 40 y/o male reports sudden onset metamorphopsia OD. He had a similar episode about 5 years earlier that “drove him crazy” because it lasted about 3 months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR)

196
Q

What is the most distinctive FA pattern in CSR?

A

Smokestack appearance

197
Q

What are the common signs/symptoms of Phthiriasis palpebarum?

A

Severe Itching
Pinpoint blood-tinged debris along eyelash margins
Inflamed eyelash margins (but no meibomitis)

198
Q

What is Phiriasis palpebarum?

A

Lice

199
Q

What is madarosis?

A

Loss of eyelashes

200
Q

What is the most common etiology for orbital cellulitis?

A

Extension of a current paranasal sinus infection

201
Q

What is the main cause of a conjunctival melanoma?

A

Primary acquired melanosis

202
Q

What is the most common etiology of conjunctival squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

203
Q

What is the typical demographic for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Elderly
Caucasian
Males

204
Q

What stain is helpful in the diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Rose bengal

205
Q

Where does a conj squamous cell carcinoma most commonly arise?

A

At the limbus - with a feeder vessel

206
Q

A carcinoma is a cancer of what?

A

Epithelial tissue

207
Q

A sarcoma is a cancer of what?

A

Connective tissue

208
Q

Which corneal dystrophy is not autosomal dominant?

A

Macular distrophy (AR)

209
Q

What is the typical demographic of Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy?

A

Signs at age 30-40
Symptoms at age 40-50
Female
Often inherited (AD)

210
Q

What are the common early symptoms of Fuch’s?

A

Glare

Light sensitivity

211
Q

What are the common later symptoms of Fuch’s?

A 
Pain (because of bullae)
Decreased VA (corneal edema)
212
Q

What are some early signs/symptoms of Terrien’s marginal dystrophy?

A 
Blurred vision (high astigmatism)
Haze in corneal periphery (slowly progresses to circumlimbal peripheral corneal thinning)
213
Q

What is scleromalacia perforans?

A

Necrotizing scleritis without inflammation

214
Q

Scleromalacia perforans is associated with what systemic disease?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

215
Q

What is the worst form of scleritis?

A

Necrotizing with inflammation

216
Q

Choroidal melanomas typically arise from what?

A

Choroidal nevus

217
Q

What is the most common primary intraocular tumor in adults?

A

Choroidal melanoma

218
Q

What are the most common secondary causes of ocular cancer in males and females?

A

Males - Lung cancer

Females - breast cancer

219
Q

Choroidal melanomas are more common in which demographic?

A

Caucasians

220
Q

What are 3 risk factors for increased progression from dry to wet AMD?

A

Focal hyperpigmentation
Smoking
Soft drusen

221
Q

What is the most likely location for a retinal tear?

A

Superior temporal

222
Q

What are 2 common causes of exposure keratopathy?

A

Thyroid eye disease

Ectropion

223
Q

Name 3 conditions that can cause a mucous tear film deficiency.

A

Ocular pemphigoid
Steven Johnson’s syndrome
Vitamin A deficiency

224
Q

What is a common ocular complication of Ehler’s Danlos syndrome?

A

Lens subluxation

225
Q

Ehler’s Danlos syndrome is a disorder of what?

A

Connective tissue

226
Q

Why is vitamin A deficiency one of the leading causes of blindness in 3rd world countries?

A

Causes keratinization of the cornea and conj

227
Q

What is the most common cause of dacryocystitis?

A

Blockage of the nasolacrimal duct

228
Q

What things are associated with microcornea?

A

HVID less than 10mm
Hyperopia
Glaucoma
AD or AR inheritance

229
Q

What things are associated with megalocornea?

A

HVID over 13mm
X-linked inheritance
Associated with myopia

230
Q

What is the buzz-word for Salzmann’s nodular degeneration?

A

Blue-gray stromal opacities

Unilateral

231
Q

What are the 4 common etiologies for Salzmann’s?

A

Dry eye
Trachoma
Phlyctenulosis
Interstitial keratitis

232
Q

A patient who has suffered what is at higher risk for RCE?

A

Corneal abrasion

233
Q

What are the two main etiologies that increase the risk of RCE?

A 
Corneal abrasion
Corneal dystrophies (Mainly EBMD)
234
Q

Retinoschisis is most common in what two retinal locations?

A

Inferior-temporal

Superior-temporal

235
Q

What is the inheritance characteristic of juvenile retinoschisis?

A

X-linked

236
Q

What is the age classification of a premature baby?

A

Less than 36 weeks

237
Q

What is the most common, benign orbital tumor in adults?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

238
Q

Where do cavernous hemangioma usually arise?

A

Directly behind the eye, in the circle of Zinn

239
Q

What is a common sequelae of a cavernous hemangioma?

A

Progressive, unilateral proptosis

240
Q

What is the most common, benign orbital tumor in kids?

A

Capillary hemangioma

241
Q

What are the 2 common culprits of Ocular Ischemic Syndrome (OIS)?

A

Atherosclerosis - most common

Giant cell arteritis

242
Q

What is the typical presentation of OIS?

A

Periorbital pain
Gradual VA loss
Unilateral
Midperipheral hemes

243
Q

What is the most likely etiology of a cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Nasal infection

-Or any infection around the nose or eye

244
Q

What bacteria is the most common culprit causing a cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

Staph aureus

245
Q

Which causes a higher risk of neovascular glaucoma: CRVO or BRVO?

A

CRVO

246
Q

What are the two main risk factors in retinal vein occlusions?

A

HTN

DM

247
Q

What is the most common cause of retinal vascular occlusive disease?

A

Branched retinal vein occlusion

248
Q

Which corneal layer has the most mitochondria?

A

Endothelium

- NaK pump uses a lot of energy

249
Q

What are the average horizontal and vertical dimensions of the ONH?

A

H: 1.5mm
V: 1.75

250
Q

What two arteries supply blood to the ONH?

A

Short posterior ciliary arteries

Central retinal artery - minor contributor

251
Q

Which portion of the optic nerve has some attachments with EOMs, and causes pain during eye movements in optic neuritis?

A

Intraorbital

252
Q

What are the 4 portions of the optic nerve, and their approximate lengths?

A

Intraocular - 1mm
Intraorbital - 30mm
Intracanalicular - 6-10mm
Intracranial - 10-16mm

253
Q

What does the optic nerve consist of?

A

Axons of ganglion cells

254
Q

How many axons of ganglion cells are found in a typical optic nerve?

A

1.0 - 1.2 million

255
Q

The infraorbital nerve is a branch of what nerve?

A

V2

256
Q

What bone does the optic foramen pass through?

A

Lesser wing of the sphenoid

257
Q

What is another name for the ethmoid bone in the medial wall?

A

Lamina papyracea

258
Q

Which orbital wall does not utilize the sphenoid bone?

A

Floor

259
Q

What are the 7 bones of the orbit?

A 
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Lacrimal
Maxilla
Palatine
Zygomatic
260
Q

How many cells thick is the corneal endothelium?

A

1 cell

261
Q

What is the main function of the corneal endothelium?

A

Use NaK pump to remove fluid from the cornea, back into the aqueous

262
Q

What is the correct order of these muscles from superior to inferior: Superior oblique, Superior levator palpebrae, Superior rectus.

A

Superior levator palpebrae
Superior rectus
Superior oblique

263
Q

When does the eye reach maximum size?

A

Puberty

264
Q

What is the function of the vortex veins?

A

Drain the choroid, ciliary body, and iris (vascular tunic)

265
Q

How many vortex veins are there per eye?

A

4-7

266
Q

Muller’s muscle is innervated by what nervous system?

A

Sympathetic

KMK (8 decks)

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