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Prevention & Production Medicine > Small Ruminant P+P > Flashcards

Small Ruminant P+P Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most widely distributed mammalian livestock species?

A

goats

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2
Q

What are principles of small ruminant dairy production in the US?

A
  • reproduce each year, lactate 9-10m does, 6-7m ewes
  • need a dry period of at least 60d
  • some farms bottle raise kids/lambs
  • on others, kids/lam raised by dam:
    • nurse for 1/2d then dams milked once/day
    • or remain w/ dam until weaning @ 45-60d
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3
Q

Why is it common for small ruminant dairy farmers to manipulate seasonal breeding?

A

to have animals kid/lamb over a wide time frame so that milk can be marketed for more of the year

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4
Q

What are the small ruminant dairy regulatory standards?

A
  • SCC limit: 1x106 cells
  • Standard plate count: limit = 100,000 cells/ml
    • goal = < 5000 cell/ml
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5
Q

How often should goats and sheep be sheared? How does the position that each species is sheared differ?

A
  • Goats: angoras - 2x/yr, spring and fall
    • sheared standing or recumbent
  • Sheep: 1-2x, spring is best (long during winter)
    • sheared recumbent
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6
Q

What are the typical production cycles for sheep and goats on meat production farms?

A
  • Sheep: fall breeding, spring lambing
  • Goats: same as sheep, or 2 kiddings/year
  • Weaning age variable, typically 60-120d
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7
Q

How do sheep vs. goat meat production processes differ?

A
  • Lambs: fed to market wt by producer or sold as feeder lambs; kids usally fed by producer to market wt
  • less concentrates typically fed for finishing kids than lambs
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8
Q

Why is it difficult to detect lung disease in goats and sheep?

A

their lung sounds are comparatively harsh

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9
Q

How do you estmate a sheep or goat’s age using their dentition?

A
  • <1 yr, no permanent teeth
  • 1 yr, 2 perm teeth
  • 2 yr, 4 perm teeth
  • 3 yr, 6 perm teeth
  • 4 yr, 8 perm teeth
  • >4 yr, worm perm teeth
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10
Q

What are the points along the lumbosacral joint that you use for BCS evaluation in goats and sheep?

A
  • spine (sharp vs. smooth vs. not detectable)
  • fat cover presence over epaxial mm
  • expaxial mm.
  • transverse processes (sharp, rounded, cannot be felt)
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11
Q

What is the typical birth weight of lambs and kids?

A
  • 8-13lbs for single lambs, 7-10lbs for twins
  • breed specific in kids
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12
Q

What are required for sheep and goats (>1 yr of age) moving via interstate commerce?

A

Scrapie ear tags

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13
Q

When is the ideal time to castrate a goat?

A
  • 4-14 d, if indicated (more common in fiber animals)
    • pets: delayed until >3 mo might decr risk of obstructive urolithiasis
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14
Q

What are common methods of bloodless (closed) castration?

A
  • Elastrator bands
    • best if <1 week, always give tetanus antitoxin even if vaccinated
    • disinfect band
    • sloughing in 7-10d
  • Burdizzo emasculatome
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15
Q

Describe the process of surgical castration

A
  • done at any age; preferable to closed techniques for post-pubertal males
  • remove distal 1/3 of scrotum or incise scrotal skin
  • expose testicles, crush spermatic cord, remove testicles by traction, or ligate (older animals)
  • leave scrotum open for drainage
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16
Q

Describe the process of tail docking in lambs

A
  • common procedure for wool breeds
  • not necessary in hair sheep
  • best @ 2-7d of age
    • electronic docking iron (best)
    • elastrator band (vacc. tetanus/TAT)
  • length:
    • should cover vulva (ewes) or anus (rams), no shorter than distal end of the caudal tail fold
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17
Q

What happens if a lamb’s tail is docked too short?

A

it predisposes to vaginal and rectal prolapses, perineal neoplasia

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18
Q

Describe the process of debudding in goat kids

A
  • most breeds: 4-7d
  • nubian, pygmy, angora goats: 10-14d
  • restraint and sedation often required
  • local nerve block: lidocaine (dilute to 0.5%)
  • Methods: heat cautery to destroy horn corneum (10 sec), paste NOT a good option, small Barnes calf dehorner can be used up to 6 wks of age, sx dehorning if older (more complications)
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19
Q

Describe descenting

A
  • removal of scent glands; usually removed with disbudding in horned males, but may remove in polled males
    • removed similar to dehorning
  • glands located caudomedial to horn bud
  • males castrated before 7.5 mo do not develop this gland
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20
Q

Which of the following is false?

a) If male kids are castrated prior to puberty, the scent glands on the head do not mature
b) Goat kids should generally be disbudded in the first week of life, except Nubian, Pygmy, and Angora kids can be disbudded at 10-14 days
c) To disbud kids, an electric dehorning iron should be applied to the bud for 60 seconds
d) Lidocaine should typically be diluted to 0.5% prior to use for disbudding young goat kids

A

C; no longer than 10 seconds/until copper colored ring is formed - longer could cause brain sweeling

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21
Q

What routine vaccine should be given to all sheep? What is the vax protocol for this vaccine?

A
  • Clostridial dz vax - covers the following strains:
    • C. tetani, C. perfringens type C&D, C. novyi, C. sordelli, C. chauvoei, C. septicum

Protocol:

  • Vaccinate at 1-2 mo, booster in 3-4 wks if dam vaccinated
  • Vax at 1-3 wks, booster twice at 3-4 wk intervals if dam not vaccinated
  • Annual booster
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22
Q

What is a routine vaccine given to all goats?

A
  • Clostrial disease - CDT
    • C. perfringens C&D and C. tetani
  • Same vax protocol as in sheep
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23
Q

What are some non-routine vaccinations in sheep and goats?

A

Sheep:

  • Abortion dz in endemic areas:
    • Chlamydia psittaci and Camplyobacter spp.
  • In specific situations:
    • footrot
    • rabies*
    • contagious ecthyma (orf)*

* in both sheep and goats

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24
Q

What are the biggest production-limiting problem of small ruminants in most parts of the world?

A

nematode parasites

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25
Q

What are the most common nematodes that affect small ruminants, and what problems do they cause?

A
  • most common: Haemonchus, Ostertagia, and Trichostrongylus (“HOT”)
    • Haemonchus contortus = most significant cause of clinical dz and resistance, esp in SE U.S.; Ostertagia more a problem in temperate climates

Problems:

  • affect abomasum or SI
  • incr susceptibility when overcrowding, overgrazing, malnutrition, poor quality pasture
  • resistance to antihelmenthics
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26
Q

Describe Haemonchus contortus

A
  • female worms lay very large #s of eggs and short life cycle at optimum times of year, so environmental contamination builds up quickly
  • larvae thrive under hot, humid conditions
  • transmission and infection level usually low in months w/ avg temp <50 F, problems usually peak in late spring/summer
  • young animals are most susceptible
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27
Q

What are the clinical pathology and clinical signs seen with nematode parasite infestation?

A
  • Clin Path: anemia (mostly with Haemonchus), hypoproteinemia, maldigestion, malabsorption
  • C/S: d/t anemia –> pale MM, weakness, lethargy, death, diarrhea, wt loss or reduced wt gain, ventral edema and bottle jaw
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28
Q

How do you diagnose a nematode infestation?

A
  • poor performance
  • C/S
  • necropsy
  • fecal exam/float, quantitative - fecal egg count
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29
Q

What do you do when a clinical case of nematode parasitism is recognized?

A
  • use antihelmintic you expect to work on farm, combine with FECRT or DrenchRite test (larval dev. assay) to determine efficacy, supportive care
  • Long-term parasite control program:
    • FECRT or Drench Rite test every 2-3 years
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30
Q

What is the protocol for proper antihelmintic use?

A
  • targeted selective deworming
    • 20-305 of flock harbor 80% of worms
    • need to dilute out the resistant population on pasture
  • minimize # of tx/year - discourage selection of resistant worms
    • ID individuals in need and tx
    • +/- deworm prior to lambing/kidding, 10-14 d after heavy rain
  • NEVER deworm simply at regular intervals or on a calendar basis
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31
Q

How do you determine who needs deworming?

A
  • FAMACHA score for detecting anemia animals
    • deworm those w/ scores 3-5 (or just 4 and 5)
    • only where Haemonchus is the major problem
    • cull animals in need of freq tx
  • 5-point check:
    • scores for eye (FAMACHA), back (BCS), tail (soiling), jaw (bottle-jaw), nose (nasal d/c)
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32
Q

How often should you check animals for parasites in Florida?

A
  • at least every 3-4 wks in winter and 2 wks in summer
  • onlyl very small %age of herd/flock should require tx at any one time
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33
Q

What are some management strategies for controlling internal parasites?

A
  • dont feed hay, grain or creep feed on ground
  • keep animals in good nutritional status
  • pastures - avoid overstocking, use pasture rest periods, supplemental feed if pasture is stressed
  • multi-species grazing w/ cattle or horses
  • graze tannin-rich forages that help control nematodes
  • quarantine new arrivals and deworm w/ 2 dewormers from different classes
  • genetic selection for parasite-resistant populations
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34
Q

What are some deworming products to consider using?

A
  • Benzimidazoles
    • albendazole (S)
    • fenbendazole (G)
    • oxfendazole
  • Macrocyclic lactones
    • ivermectin (S)
    • moxidectin (S)
  • Imidadazoles
    • levimisole (S)
  • Tetahydropyrimidines
    • morantel tartrate (S,G)
    • pyrantel tartrate

use oral products ONLY except for moxidectin injectable in goats (NO pour-ons)

35
Q

What should you base your dosing for benzimidazoles on?

A
  • the heaviest animal in the group
36
Q

What are the primary predators of small ruminants?

A

coyotes or domestic dogs

37
Q

What can you do for predator control?

A
  • active destruction of predators
  • livestock guarding animals
    • dogs, donkeys, camelides (NOT intact males)
  • incr surveillance, esp during kidding/lambing season
38
Q

What are some important and common conditions in sheep and goats?

A
  • Neonatal problems
    • mismothering and starvation, failure of passive transfer, navel infection, septicemia, neonatal diarrhea complex
  • Clostridial dz
  • Multisystemic dz
    • Bluetongue virus, chronic viral infections: CAEV, Scrapie, Border dz virus
  • Digestive problems:
    • nematode parasitism, coccidiosis, rumen acidosis, paratuberculosis (Johne’s)
39
Q

What are common production-limiting conditions in sheep and goats?

A
  • Skin: contagious echthyma (orf), external parasites
  • Subcutaneous swellings: caseous lymphadenitis
  • Musculoskeletal: Polyarthritis, footrot, nutritional muscular dystrophy
  • Nervous system: Scrapie, thiamine deficiency
  • Ocular: pinkeye
  • Respiratory: pneumonia
  • Hemolymphatic: copper toxicity
  • Urinary: urolithiasis
  • Repro: abortion dz, brucellosis, pseudopregnancy, dystocia
  • Mammary glands: mastitis, precocious lactation
  • Metabolic: preg toxemia, hypoCa, rickets
  • Chronic wt loss: dental problems, malnutrition, chronic parasitism, Johne’s, CAEV, OPP
40
Q

What are the major problems experienced in neonates (birth to 48hrs)?

A
  • mismothering of lambs/kids
  • failure of passive transfer of maternal Ab
  • exposure leading to hypothermia
  • predation - highest risk period
  • dz: neonatal sepsis, navel infections
41
Q

What are your management goals in neonates (birth to 48hrs)?

A
  • be well prepared for lambing/kidding
  • monitor closely to assist as needed and minimize morbitidy/mortality losses
  • pay attention to the 5 C’s
42
Q

Whsat are the 5 C’s of Lamb/Kid raising?

A
  • Colostrum
  • Calories
  • Cleanliness
  • Comfort
  • Consistency
43
Q

How much colostrum and milk should a neonate receive?

A
  • Colostrum: 10-20% BW in first 2-12 hrs
  • Milk: 15-20% BW/day, wean at 6 wks
44
Q

What are some causes and signs of mismothering and starvation of neonates? How can you treat and prevent this from occurring?

A
  • Causes: more common when > 3 offspring, insufficient colostrum/milk, failure of passive transfer
  • Signs: hypothermia >24h of age, hunched stance, empty belly, bleating, weak, approaching mult females to nurse
  • Tx: assist to nurse or bottle/tube feed colostrum, resuscitative care for hypothermia/hypoglycemia
  • Prev: careful observation, early intervention, prevent overcrowding
45
Q

What are some causes and signs of failure of passive transfer? How can you treat and prevent this from occurring?

A
  • Causes: dam - mismothering, mastitis, teat lesions, recumbency, death; neonate - weak d/t dz, dystocia, cold exposure
  • Signs: hx, presence of predisposing factors, low serum IgG, low serum TP
  • Tx: oral colostrum asap, IV or IP plasma if >24h and valuable animals
  • Prev: prevent predisposing conditions, good supervision, store extra colostrum and feed within 12 h of birth
46
Q

What are major problems seen in lambs/kids from 2 days and weaning?

A
  • predation
  • neonatal diarrhea
  • pneumonia
  • coccidiosis (>3 wks, high stocking density)
47
Q

What are your management goals for lambs/kids from 2 days until weaning?

A
  • Monitor relatively closely to minimize morbidity and mortality losses
  • Prevent predation
  • Carry out preventative health procedures so that animals are well prepared for later life
    • start creep feeding by 1-2 wks, CDT or 7-way clostridial vax, disbud/castrate/tail docking
48
Q

In what scenarios should creep feeding be performed?

A
  • intensive production systems with early weaning
  • mult births or if milk production is limiting
  • dairy herds/flocks
    • start at 1-2 wks of age, allow only babies in
49
Q

What are the major problems that occur in lambs/kids after weaning and in the early post-weaning period?

A
  • reduced rate of wt gain d/t poorly-managed transition
  • coccidiosis, esp. in high stocking density
  • pneumonia, esp in housed animals
  • nematode parasitism
  • predation
50
Q

What are the management goals for lambs/kids after weaning and in the early post-weaning period?

A
  • monitor performance
  • minimize stress at weaning
  • prevent and control parasitism
  • prevent unwanted pregnancies if pubertal
51
Q

What is the cause of coccidiosis? What are the clinical signs for this disease, and how do you diagnose and prevent it from occurring?

A
  • Cause: several spp. of Eimeria
  • Signs: 3 wks to 6 mo; diarrhea, may be blood-tinged, tenesmus, off-feed, wt loss/failure to thrive, death
  • Dx: fecal float, oocysts appear in feces 2 wks after infection and sometimes death occurs before this
  • Prev: sanitiation, isolate sick animals, feed coccidiostats in face of an outbreak, on arrival at feedlot or during/after weaning, during high stress periods
52
Q

What are the major problems that occur in lambs/kids that are the period of post-weaning to entry to the breeding herd or feedlot?

A
  • nematode parasitism
  • coccidiosis, esp if high stocking facility
  • pneumonia, esp in housed animals
  • predation
  • rumen acidosis, obstructive urolithiasis if high concentrate diet (feedlot, show animals)
53
Q

What are the management goals for lambs/kids that are the period of post-weaning to entry to the breeding herd or feedlot?

A
  • meet goals for BCS, size and weight
  • prevent and control parasitism
  • prevent rumen acidosis, urolithiasis
54
Q

Describe obstructive urolithiasis in small ruminants

A
  • Who: mainly castrated males (pets, feedlots, club lambs)
  • Signs: consistent w/ acute urethral obstruction, urethral rupture, bladder rupture, or chronic partial urethral obstruction; urethral process = most common site of impaction
  • Tx: surgical management w/ supportive medical care; for feedlot lambs often euthanasia or salvage slaughter
  • Prev: dietary management (depends on urolith composition, but Ca:P ratio > 2:1 and adequate forage), feed anionic salts to maintain urine pH of 5.5-6.5, maximize water intake, avoid early castration of pets
55
Q

What is basic care for adult small ruminants?

A
  • Fresh water, mineral supplement, feed to maintain appropriate BCS
  • inspect feet and trim 2x/year
  • inspect external parasite status and tx as needed, monitor internal parasites (FAMACHA, 5-point)
  • annual C. Perfringens C&D vax
  • shear wool sheep and angora at least yearly, not in last month of gestation/first after birth
56
Q

What are the major problems and management goals of females during breeding season?

A
  • Problems: poor fertility d/t poor nutritional management, infectious dz or poor breeding management
  • Management Goals: selection of females for breeding and culling, max fertility by maintaining proper BCS (2.5-3)/nutritional status and by controlling infectious dz
57
Q

Describe reproductive management of sheep and goats

A
  • Puberty - varies, but generally 5-12 mo
  • breeding at 70% mature size, ideally 7-10 mo
  • gestation length: 147d sheep, 150d goats
  • repro rate = # offspring born per female exposed for breeding
  • most breeds avg 2 offspring/pregnancy
58
Q

Describe the reproductive seasonality in ewes and does.

A
  • Seasonal polyestrus (short day breed - fall)
  • photoperiod - melatonin, shortening day length
  • seasonality affected by nutrition, genetics, management and geography
  • induction of cyclicity by abrupt introduction of male = Whitten effect
    • ​ewes must be in shallow anestrus
    • will ovulate in 48 hrs and initiate estrus in 17d
59
Q

Describe ewes, does, and bucks during breeding season

A

Does: flagging, vocalizing, mounting

Ewes: subtle, will stand for ram to mate

Bucks: spray urine, incr scent gland activity, smell attracts females/triggers estrus

60
Q

What are the major problems and management goals of females during early and mid gestation?

A
  • Problems: overconditioning, abortion
  • Management goals: maintain proper BCS (3.0-3.5), determine preg status, dairy animals: tx subclinical mastitis
61
Q

How do you diagnose pregnancy in ewes and does?

A
  • Progesterone (to dx non-pregnancy) - low >5d after breeding
  • pregnancy-specific protein b: at least 30d post-breeding
  • US: rectal/transabd (ideal time is 45-90d), can be useful to determine # of fetuses and separate groups for nutritional management
62
Q

What are the major problems and management goals for females in late gestation?

A
  • Problems: metabolic dz (preg toxemia, hypoCa), infectious abortion
  • Management goals: maintain BCS, provide nutrients for rapid fetal growth, parasite control (15-30d before birthing), maintain udder health
63
Q

What are the major problems and management goals for females during birthing season early lactation?

A
  • Problems: dystocia, metabolic dz, mastitis;
  • Management goals: minimize BCS loss in early lactation (<0.5), avoid obesity, support rapid fetal growth, maximize milk production, support colostrum production, avoid losses d/t dystocia/cold exposure, provide clean and dry environment
64
Q

What are examples of periparturient problems?

A
  • Dystocia - C-section performed in left low paralumbar fossa or ventral midline
  • dead lambs/kids in utero
  • pregnancy toxemia and hypocalcemia
  • starvation
  • mastitis
  • lambing/kidding paralysis
65
Q

What are the clinical signs, treatment, prognosis, and prevention techniques for pregnancy toxemia, ketosis and fatty liver?

A
  • Signs: off-feed, depression, recumbent, progress to coma, ketonuria and hypoglycemia
    • last 2-4 wks of gestation, often mult fetuses
  • Px: guarded to very poor pre-partum, good for early lactation ketosis
  • Tx: C-section or induce parturition, if down, hospitalization is best - IV dextrose, oral propylene glycol, Ca
  • Prev: good nutrition, maintain proper BCS, avoid stressors in late gestation, higher energy diet for mult fetuses

*dz of management

66
Q

What are the causes and clinical signs of mastitis, how do you diagnose it, what is the prognosis for it, and how do you prevent and treat it?

A
  • Causes: Mycoplasma spp, Staph. aureus (S + G), Mannheimia haemolytica (S), Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, retroviral mastitis
  • Signs: mycoplasma - arthritis, conjunctivitis, pneumonia, septicemia; ewe/doe may resist nursing, or kids/lambs may be starving, abnormal milk
  • Dx: incr SCC, milk culture
  • Px: depends on agent
  • Prev: parlor hygiene, biosecurity
  • Tx: antimicrobrials (NO intramammary abx labeled for small ruminants), cull chronic cases
67
Q

What are your management goals for breeding males?

A
  • Maintain BCS (3.0), build to 4.0 at start of breeding
  • prepare for breeding season weight loss
  • support good fertility
  • protect from clostridial dz
  • prevent neg effects of parasitism
  • good feet at start of breeding
68
Q

When should a breeding soundness exam for bucks and rams occur and what does it consist of?

A
  • 2 months pre-breeding
  • BCS: 3-4/5
  • PE, scrotal circumference, semen eval (motility, morphology), appropriate levels for satisfactory vary w/ breed
69
Q

What are your management goals for adult castrated males used for fiber production?

A
  • BCS 2.5-3.0
  • support fiber growth, prevent urolithiasis
  • prevent neg effects of parasitism
  • protect from clostridial dz
  • hoof care at least annually
70
Q

What are your management goals for pet goats and sheep?

A
  • BCS 2.5-3.0
  • prevent obesity!
  • prevent urolithiasis
  • prevent pseudopregnancy
  • minimize effects of parasitism and selection of resistant worms
  • protect from clostridial dz
  • hoof care, shearing: at least annually
71
Q

What are the clinical signs of hydrometra? How do you diagnose this, what is the prognosis, how is it prevented and how is it treated?

A
  • Signs: ​primarily seen in goats d/t prolonged luteal function
  • Dx: U/S differentiate false from true pregnancy and diagnose hydrometra, no estrous activity
  • Px: good; most animals respond to tx
  • Prev: in dairy goat herds, US bred does before drying off, for pets that will not be bred, can perform OHE
  • Tx: prostaglandin F2alpha IM to cause CL regression and emptying of uterus; +/- oxytocin to aid in evacuation of uterus
72
Q

What does biosecurity for small ruminant flocks consist of?

A
  • Management goals: closed herds, keep dz off farm that you don’t already have, don’t take dz elsewhere
  • Purchased animals: Bring in after lambing/kidding, quarantine for 1 mo w/ regular observation, vaccinate on arrival, deworm, foot bath on arrival, disinfect trailer
73
Q

Animals with clinical signs of which diseases should not leave the farm?

A
  • Orf
  • Caseous lymphadenitis
  • Pinkeye
  • Ringworm/club lamb fungus
  • Footrot
74
Q

What are the signs of bluetongue virus (orbivirus)? What is the prognosis for this, and how can you treat and prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: often subclinical, seasonl, Culicoides vector, fever, erosions on lips, gums and tongue, salivation, lameness, abortion, swollen face/ears, hemorrhage at base of pulm aa.
  • Px: poor in lambs and in naive adults, rams infected before breeding may not recover BCS and fertility for that season
  • Tx: none (supportive care)
  • Prev: vax (only available in CA serotype 10), spray flock weekly, house indoors

*occurs in late summer and fall in NW, spring, summer, fall in FL; reportable dz

75
Q

What are the signs of caprine arthritis-encephalitis and Maedi-visna?

A
  • Signs: CAE, affecting goats: subclinical - arthritis (adults), leukoencephalomyelitis (1-6 mths), chronic progressive interstitial pneumonia (adults), mastitis (young does), progressive wt loss (any age)
  • MV, affecting sheep: ovine progressive pneumonia; progressive emaciation, mastitis (“hard bag”), progressive pneumonia, neuro form rare
76
Q

How do you diagnose caprine arthritis-encephalitis and Maedi-visna, and how can you treat and prevent these viruses?

A
  • Dx: herd hx, work up of suspect clinical cases, serology to detect Ab
  • Tx: none (supportive care for animals w/ mild arthritis)
  • Prev: 1) test and cull or 2) isolation of infected animals and artificial rearing of their offspring
77
Q

What are the signs of scrapie/transmissable spongiform encephalopathy? What is the prognosis for this, and how can you prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: 1-5 yrs, early behavioral changes, wt loss, pruritis of incr intensity w/ self mutilation, bruxism, progresses to tremors, ataxia, convulsions, recumbency, stupor; mainly sheep\
  • Px: fatal and irreversible
  • Prev: reportable dz, eradication - slaughter and destroy affected animals, quarantine flock
    *
78
Q

What are the signs of paratuberculosis (Johne’s dz)? What is the prognosis for this, how is diagnosed, and how can you treat and prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: wt loss, ill thrift, +/- diarrhea, anorexia, clinical dz in older though infected as juveniles
  • Px: eventually fatal
  • Dx: ELISA and fecal culture/PCR, tissue PCR and histopath
  • Prev: ID and cull infected animals (poss. vax)
  • Tx: none
79
Q

What are the signs of contagious ecthyma (Orf) - parapox virus? What is the prognosis for this, and how can you treat and prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: lesions in mouth, on nose and around vulva and teats, blisters –> scabs, lambs/kids usually
  • Px: good, wt loss may be severe, young can starve and lactating females can dev mastitis
  • Prev: vax if premises is infected (live/MLV)
  • Tx: none, self limiting
  • ZOONOTIC
80
Q

What are the signs of caseous lymphadenitis (Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis)? What is the prognosis for this, how is it diagnosed and how can you treat and prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: abscesses of ext l.n., thick, sticky pus, usually >1 yr, unthrifty if internal abscesses
  • Px: recovery rare, economic loss crucial
  • Dx: C/S, culture from lesions (only definitive Dx)
  • Prev: sanitation, prevent shearing wounds and lacerations, cull chronic cases
  • Tx: drain or sx remove abscesses, plus abx and isolate until healed or closed-system lavage
81
Q

What are the signs of foot rot (Dichelobacter nodosus + Fusobacterium necrophorum)? What is the prognosis for this, and how can you treat and prevent this virus?

A
  • Signs: severe lameness causing wt loss and reduced repro efficiency, exudative inflammation and necrosis of interdigital tissues w/ foul odor
  • Px: death uncommon but economic loss is severe, recovery possible w/ early tx but can be carriers
  • Prev: regular foot trimming and foot baths, cull chronics, avoid muddy/rocky areas, vax in sheep
  • Tx: trim and foot bath, severely affected: penicillin, ceftiofur, long-acting oxytetracylcine
82
Q

What are your differentials for wasting (chronic weight loss) in small ruminants?

A
  • malnutrition and starvation
  • lentivirus (CAE/MV)
  • Paratuberculosis (Johne’s dz)
  • Caseous lymphadenitis w/ internal abscesses
  • internal parasitism, chronic coccidosis
  • dental problems in older animals
83
Q

What are some contact zoonoses of small ruminants in North America?

A
  • Orf/contagious ecthyma
  • Agents causing abortion: Q fever (Coxiella burnetii), Chlamydia abortus, Listeria
  • Agents causing pinkeye: Chlamydia
  • Crypto parvum
84
Q

What zoonotic diseases have been linked to raw small ruminant milk consumption?

A
  • Camplyobacter jejuni
  • Q fever
  • Listeriosis
  • Brucella melitensis

Prevention & Production Medicine (17 decks)

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