Small Animal Medicine VI (51-62) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the etiologic agent of feline bartonellosis.

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2
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline bartonellosis in the cat?

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3
Q

How do we diagnose canine and feline bartonellosis?

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4
Q

What is the treatment for feline bartonellosis?

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5
Q

What is the etiology of canine bartonellosis?

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6
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine bartonellosis?

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7
Q

What is the treatment for canine bartonellosis?

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8
Q

Describe the zoonotic potential of bartonellosis.

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9
Q

Describe the pathophysiology/life cycle of feline bartonellosis.

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10
Q

What are the CDC/AAFP recommendations when it comes to the zoonotic potential of bartonellosis?

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11
Q

Briefly describe the general characteristics of mycoplasma spp./ureaplasma spp.

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12
Q

Mycoplasma felis is associated with ____.

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13
Q

Mycoplasma gateae is associated with ____.

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14
Q

Mycoplasma haemofelis is associated with ____.

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15
Q

Mycoplasma cynos is associated with ____.

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16
Q

Mycoplasma canis is associated with ____.

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17
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline mycoplasma?

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18
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine mycoplasma?

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19
Q

How do we diagnose canine and feline mycoplasma?

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20
Q

What is the treatment for canine or feline mycoplasma?

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21
Q

Describe the etiology of leptospirosis.

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22
Q

What are the clinical signs of leptospirosis?

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23
Q

How do we diagnose leptospirosis?

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24
Q

Describe the use of a snap test to confirm leptospirosis.

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25
Q

What is the treatment for leptospirosis?

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26
Q

Describe the zoonotic potential of leptospirosis.

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27
Q

What is the etiological agent for Lyme disease?

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28
Q

What are the most common clinical signs of Lyme disease?

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29
Q

How do we diagnose Lyme disease?

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30
Q

How do we treat Lyme disease?

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31
Q

How do we prevent Lyme disease?

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32
Q

Describe the etiology and lifecycle of the feline plague.

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33
Q

What are the different clinical manifestations of the feline plague?

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34
Q

Most cats infected with the feline plague have a history of _____.

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35
Q

What are the clinical signs of the feline plague?

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36
Q

How do we diagnose the feline plague?

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37
Q

How do we treat the feline plague?

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38
Q

Describe the zoonotic potential of the feline plague.

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39
Q

How can we prevent or limit the zoonotic potential of the feline plague?

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40
Q

Describe the etiological agent of feline tularemia.

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41
Q

Describe the distribution and transmission of feline tularemia.

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42
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline tularemia?

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43
Q

How do we diagnose feline tularemia?

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44
Q

How do we treat feline tularemia?

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45
Q

Describe the zoonotic potential of feline tularemia.

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46
Q

What is the cell tropism of Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

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47
Q

What is the cell tropism of Anaplasma platys?

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48
Q

What is the cell tropism of Ehrlichia canis?

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49
Q

What is the cell tropism of Ehrlichia chaffeensis?

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50
Q

What is the cell tropism of Ehrlichia ewingii?

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51
Q

What is the cell tropism of Rickettsia rickettsii?

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52
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Ehrlichiosis spp.

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53
Q

Describe the distribution of ehrlichiosis.

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54
Q

Describe the reservoir hosts and tick vectors of ehrlichiosis.

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55
Q

How do dogs become infected with Ehrlichia canis?

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56
Q

What are the 3 phases of infection with E. canis?

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57
Q

Describe the general timeline/characteristics of the acute phase of E. canis.

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58
Q

What are the clinical signs of the acute phase of E. canis?

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59
Q

Describe the subclinical phase of E. canis.

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60
Q

Describe the chronic phase of E. canis.

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61
Q

List some of the multi systemic signs we may see in a dog infected with E. canis.

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62
Q

List some of the ocular signs we may see in a dog infected with E. canis.

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63
Q

List some of the neuromuscular signs we may see in a dog infected with E. canis.

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64
Q

List some of the polyarthritic signs we may see in a dog infected with E. canis.

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65
Q

In general, how do we diagnose E. canis?

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66
Q

What are some of the clinicopathological findings in a dog infected with E. canis?

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67
Q

What are some urinalysis findings in a dog infected with E. canis?

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68
Q

Describe IFA as a diagnostic tool for E. canis.

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69
Q

Describe ELISA/Snap 4DX as a diagnostic tool for E. canis.

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70
Q

Describe PCR as a diagnostic tool for E. canis.

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71
Q

What is the treatment for Ehrlichiosis?

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72
Q

How do we prevent Ehrlichiosis?

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73
Q

How do we prevent Ehrlichiosis?

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74
Q

Describe the distribution of Anaplasma phagocytophilum.

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75
Q

Describe the distribution of Anaplasma phagocytophilum.

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76
Q

What are the clinical signs of anaplasmosis phagocytophilum?

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77
Q

How do we diagnose anaplasmosis phagocytophilum?

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78
Q

How do we treat anaplasmosis phagocytophilum?

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79
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of Anaplasma platys?

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80
Q

In addition to cyclic thrombocytopenia, what other clinical signs are associated with Anaplasma platys?

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81
Q

How do we diagnose Anaplasma platys?

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82
Q

How do we treat Anaplasma platys?

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83
Q

Describe the etiological agent and distribution of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

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84
Q

What are some of the clinical signs we may see in a dog with RMSF?

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85
Q

How do we diagnose RMSF?

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86
Q

How do we treat RMSF?

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87
Q

Describe the most likely etiologic agents in feline rickettsial disease.

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88
Q

What are the most common clinical signs of feline rickettsial disease?

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89
Q

How do we diagnose feline rickettsial disease?

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90
Q

How do we treat feline rickettsial disease?

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91
Q

Describe some of the common characteristics of Blastomyces dermatitidis.

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92
Q

Describe the most common signalment of a patient with blastomycosis.

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93
Q

List some of the common clinical signs of blastomycosis.

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94
Q

Describe the ocular manifestation of blastomycosis.

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95
Q

What would you expect to find in the thoracic radiographs of a patient with blastomycosis?

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96
Q

What clinical pathology findings would expect to find in a patient with blastomycosis?

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97
Q

How do we diagnose blastomycosis?

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98
Q

Identify the fungus in this FNA of a skin lesion.

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99
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for a patient with blastomycosis?

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100
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Histoplasma capsulatum.

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101
Q

Describe the most common clinical presentation for a patient with histoplasmosis.

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102
Q

What would you expect to see in thoracic radiographs of a patient with histoplasmosis?

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103
Q

Describe the ocular manifestations of histoplasmosis.

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104
Q

What are some of the clincopathological findings you may see in a patient with histoplasmosis?

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105
Q

Identify the pathogen.

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106
Q

Identify the pathogen in this FNA.

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107
Q

How do we diagnose histoplasmosis?

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108
Q

How do we treat histoplasmosis?

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109
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with histoplasmosis?

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110
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Coccidioides immitis.

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111
Q

What is the most common signalment for a patient with coccidioidomycosis?

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112
Q

List some of the common clinical signs of a canine coccidioidomycosis.

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113
Q

List some of the common clinical signs of a feline coccidioidomycosis.

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114
Q

List some general clinical signs of coccidioidomycosis.

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115
Q

List some clinicopathological findings consistent with coccidioidomycosis.

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116
Q

How do we diagnose coccidioidomycosis?

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117
Q

How do we treat coccidioidomycosis?

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118
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Sporothrix schenckii.

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119
Q

Describe the most common lesions and clinical signs consistent with sporotrichosis.

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120
Q

How do we diagnose sporotrichosis?

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121
Q

Identify the pathogen.

A

Sporotrichosis

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122
Q

What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?

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123
Q

Describe their zoonotic potential of sporotrichosis.

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124
Q
A
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125
Q
A
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126
Q
A
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127
Q

____ is one of the most prevalent parasites infections warm blooded vertebrates. Only ___ complete the coccidian life cycle and pass _____.

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128
Q

Describe the lifecycle of feline toxoplasmosis.

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129
Q

Describe sporozoites, tachyzoites, and bradyzoites as they relate to feline toxoplasmosis.

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130
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline toxoplasmosis?

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131
Q

What clinicopathological findings would you expect to find in a cat with feline toxoplasmosis?

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132
Q

How do we diagnose feline toxoplasmosis?

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133
Q

How do we treat feline toxoplasmosis?

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134
Q

Describe the zoonotic potential of feline toxoplasmosis.

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135
Q

What is the etiological agent of hepatozoonosis? How is it transmitted?

A
136
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hepatozoonosis.

A
137
Q

What are the clinical signs of hepatozoonosis?

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138
Q

What clinicopathological findings would you find in a dog with hepatozoonosis?

A
139
Q

How do we diagnose hepatozoonosis?

A
140
Q

Describe the periosteal reaction that is unique to hepatozoonosis.

A
141
Q

What is the treatment for hepatozoonosis?

A
142
Q

What is the etiological agent found in neosporosis? What does it infect and what stages does it persist it?

A
143
Q

How do doges become infected with neosporosis?

A
144
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of neosporosis?

A
145
Q

What clinicopathological findings would you expect to find in a dog with neosporosis?

A
146
Q

How do we diagnose neosporosis?

A
147
Q

What is the treatment for neosporosis?

A
148
Q

In general, what is cytauxzoonosis?

A
149
Q

What are some common clinical findings in a cat infected with cytauxzoonosis? What is the top differential?

A
150
Q

What clinicopathological findings would you expect to see in a cat with cytauxzoonosis?

A
151
Q

How do we diagnose cytauxzoonosis?

A
152
Q

How do we treat cytauxzoonosis?

A
153
Q

How do we prevent cytauxzoonosis?

A
154
Q

What are the different etiological agents responsible for babesiosis?

A
155
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of babesiosis?

A
156
Q

Describe the general cytological characteristics of Babesia canis.

A
157
Q

Describe the general cytological characteristics of Babesia gibsoni.

A
158
Q

What are the different clinical manifestations of babesiosis? Which is the most common?

A
159
Q

Describe the peracute manifestation of babesiosis.

A
160
Q

Describe the acute manifestation of babesiosis.

A
161
Q

Describe the chronic manifestation of babesiosis.

A
162
Q

Describe the subclinical manifestation of babesiosis.

A
163
Q

Describe the atypical manifestation of babesiosis.

A
164
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of babesiosis.

A
165
Q

How do we diagnose babesiosis?

A
166
Q

What are your top differentials for babesiosis?

A
167
Q

What is the treatment for babesiosis?

A
168
Q

How do we prevent babesiosis?

A
169
Q

What is leishmaniasis?

A
170
Q

Describe the distribution of leishmaniasis.

A
171
Q

Describe the life cycle of leishmaniasis.

A
172
Q

Describe the transmission of leishmaniasis.

A
173
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of leishmaniasis.

A
174
Q

Describe the clinical signs of leishmaniasis.

A
175
Q

Describe the clinicopathological findings consistent with leishmaniasis.

A
176
Q

How do we diagnose leishmaniasis?

A
177
Q

How do we treat leishmaniasis?

A
178
Q

How do we control/prevent leishmaniasis?

A
179
Q

What is cancer? What are some causes?

A
180
Q

What heritable cancer is associated with German Shepards?

A
181
Q

What heritable cancer is associated with Bernese Mountain dogs?

A
182
Q

What heritable cancer is associated with Scottish Deerhounds?

A
183
Q

What heritable cancer is associated with Golden Retrievers?

A
184
Q

What heritable cancer is associated with Shellie’s, Scotties, Westies, Beagles and Yorkers?

A
185
Q

List some environmental factors that play a role in the development of a cancer.

A
186
Q

How does tobacco smoke play a role in the manifestation of cancer in dogs/cats?

A
187
Q

How do pesticides, herbicides, and insecticides play a role in the manifestation of cancer in dogs/cats?

A
188
Q

Describe FeLV as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
189
Q

Describe FIV as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
190
Q

Describe FeLV/FIV co-infections as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
191
Q

Describe Spirocerca Lupi as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
192
Q

Describe schistosomiasis as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
193
Q

Describe FeSV as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
194
Q

Describe papillomavirus as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
195
Q

Describe Marek’s disease as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
196
Q

Describe bovine leukemia virus as an infectious cause for cancer.

A
197
Q

Describe hormones as a causative agent of cancer.

A
198
Q

Describe trauma/chronic inflammation as a causative agent of cancer.

A
199
Q

Appropriate cancer treatment of combinations treatments are determined by _____/

A
200
Q

What are the three main treatment modalities for cancer? What are the alternate modalities?

A
201
Q

How does tumor stage and tumor behavior influence treatment modality?

A
202
Q

What are the main indications for the surgical resection of cancer? What are the limitations and risk?

A
203
Q

Describe radiation therapy as a treatment option for cancer. What are the limitations?

A
204
Q

Describe chemotherapy as a treatment option for cancer.

A
205
Q

What is induction chemotherapy? What are the indictions?

A
206
Q

What is adjuvant chemotherapy? What are the indictions?

A
207
Q

What is neoadjuvant chemotherapy? What are the indictions?

A
208
Q

Describe photodynamic therapy as an alternative therapy to cancer.

A
209
Q

Describe cryotherapy as an alternative therapy to cancer.

A
210
Q

Describe hyperthermia treatment as an alternative therapy to cancer.

A
211
Q

Describe immunotherapy as an alternative therapy to cancer.

A
212
Q

Define definitive therapy as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
213
Q

Define palliative therapy as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
214
Q

Define median survival time as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
215
Q

Define disease free interval as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
216
Q

Define cure as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
217
Q

Define complete response as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
218
Q

Define partial response as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
219
Q

Define overall response rate as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
220
Q

Define stable disease as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
221
Q

Define progressive disease as it relates to veterinary oncology.

A
222
Q

How do we use QOL to assess a palliative response to cancer treatment?

A
223
Q

What is chemotherapy?

A
224
Q

What is the fundamental mechanism of chemotherapy?

A
225
Q

In general, how do we classify chemotherapeutic drugs?

A
226
Q

Describe cell cycle chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
227
Q

Describe non-cell cycle specific chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
228
Q

List the different subgroups of chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
229
Q

Describe the MOA of antimicrotubule chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
230
Q

Describe the elimination route of antimicrotubule chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
231
Q

Describe the available formulations of antimicrotubule chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
232
Q

Provide an example of a commonly used antimicrotubule chemotherapeutic agent used in veterinary medicine. What are it indications?

A
233
Q

Describe the risks of antimicrotubule chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
234
Q

Describe the MOA of alkylating chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
235
Q

Describe the excretion of alkylating chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
236
Q

Describe the risks of alkylating chemotherapeutic drugs.

A
237
Q

List some examples of alkylating chemotherapeutic agents we use in veterinary medicine.

A
238
Q

Describe the uses and available formulations of cyclophosphamide/cytoxan.

A
239
Q

Describe the special indications and contraindications for cyclophosphamide/cytoxan.

A
240
Q

What are the uses, formulations, and risks associated with chlorambucil (leukeran) and mephalan (alkeran)?

A
241
Q

What are the uses, formulations, and risks associated with lomustine (CCNU or CeeNu)?

A
242
Q

What is the general MOA of anticancer antibiotics?

A
243
Q

What are the available formulations, elimination pathway and toxicity concerns relative to anticancer antibiotics?

A
244
Q

Describe the uses and available formulations for doxorubicin (adriamycin/doxil).

A
245
Q

Describe the excretion pathway and risks associated with doxorubicin (adriamycin/doxil).

A
246
Q

Describe the cardiotoxicity associated with doxorubicin (adriamycin/doxil).

A
247
Q

Describe the nephrotoxicity associated with doxorubicin (adriamycin/doxil).

A
248
Q

What are the contraindications to using doxorubicin (adriamycin/doxil)?

A
249
Q

Describe the available formulations, MOA, excretion pathway and toxicity associated with platinum chemotherapeutic compounds.

A
250
Q

Describe the formulations, uses, risks and contraindications to using cisplatin (platinol).

A
251
Q

What are the uses and special notes related to using carboplatin (paraplatin) in cancer patients?

A
252
Q

List some examples of chemotherapeutic antimetabolites we use in veterinary medicine.

A
253
Q

Describe the MOA, formulations and risks to using chemotherapeutic antimetabolites.

A
254
Q

What is the indiction and mechanism of action of L-asparaginase?

A
255
Q

What are the formulations, uses, and risks associated with L-asparginase?

A
256
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Palladia?

A
257
Q

What are the uses, formulations, and clearance mechanisms of Palladia?

A
258
Q

What are the side effects of Palladia?

A
259
Q

List some of the different ways that tumors become resistant to treatment.

A
260
Q

Define predictable toxicity as it relates to chemotherapeutic agents.

A
261
Q

Define dose limiting toxicity as it relates to chemotherapeutic agents.

A
262
Q

Describe the general MOA of chemotherapy toxicity.

A
263
Q

List some examples of predictable toxicity reactions to chemotherapeutic agents.

A
264
Q

What are unique chemotherapy toxicities?

A
265
Q

____ is the most important component of treatment for solid tumors in dogs and cats. The ____ is the best chance at a cure.

A
266
Q

Describe gross tumor anatomy as it relates to surgical oncology.

A
267
Q

Describe pseudo-capsule tumor anatomy as it relates to surgical oncology.

A
268
Q

Describe microscopic tumor anatomy as it relates to surgical oncology.

A
269
Q

What are the different “types” of surgical oncology?

A
270
Q

What type of information can a tumor biopsy provide us?

A
271
Q

What are some of the risks to taking a tumor biopsy?

A
272
Q

What kind of information can a tumor FNA provide us?

A
273
Q

____ can be indicated if an FNA is inconclusive, non-diagnostic, or doesn’t fit with the clinical picture.

A
274
Q

What are the indictions, approaches, and cons to a tru-cut biopsy?

A
275
Q

Describe the general procedure of a tru-cut biopsy.

A
276
Q

What is an incisional biopsy? What are the indications and risks?

A
277
Q

What is an excisional biopsy?

A
278
Q

What is the general intent behind surgical oncology?

A
279
Q

What is a marginal excision?

A
280
Q

What is the intent of palliative surgical oncology?

A
281
Q

What is debunking? What are the indications?

A
282
Q

What are the general surgical concepts to surgical oncology?

A
283
Q

What are some general risks associated with surgical oncology?

A
284
Q

Why is the extent of surgical margins important?

A
285
Q

What is the preferred marginal extent of sot tissue sarcomas?

A
286
Q

What is the preferred marginal extent of canine MCT?

A
287
Q

What is the preferred marginal extent of feline FSA?

A
288
Q

Describe how/why we treat mast cell tumors with surgery.

A
289
Q

Describe how/why we treat canine soft tissue sarcomas with surgery.

A
290
Q

Describe how/why we treat feline injection site sarcomas with surgery.

A
291
Q

What are the general surgical and adjuvant therapy recommendations for feline injection site sarcomas?

A
292
Q

Describe how/why we treat anal sac tumors with surgery.

A
293
Q

What is radiation therapy?

A
294
Q

Describe the direct action of radiation therapy.

A
295
Q

Describe the indirect action of radiation therapy.

A
296
Q

What are the 4 R’s to radiation biology?

A
297
Q

Describe repair as it relates to radiation biology.

A
298
Q

Describe reoxygenation as it relates to radiation biology.

A
299
Q

Describe redistribution as it relates to radiation biology.

A
300
Q

Describe repopulation as it relates to radiation biology.

A
301
Q

The effects of the 4 R’s can be estimated from _____.

A
302
Q

Describe a tumor that would have a favorable response curve to radiation.

A
303
Q

Describe a tumor that would have an unfavorable response curve to radiation.

A
304
Q

What are fractionation schedules? Why are they important?

A
305
Q

Differentiate between a conventional and palliative fractionation schedule.

A
306
Q

What are the modern forms of external beam irradiation? In general, how do they generate electrons?

A
307
Q

Modern linear accelerations are typically able to generate both photons and electrons of different energies. Why is this important?

A
308
Q

After selecting appropriate energy and particle type (for external bean irradiation), radiation can be further focused by ____.

A
309
Q

What are some factors that influence radiation treatment for cancer?

A
310
Q

Describe acute tissue reactions as they relate to radiation therapy.

A
311
Q

Describe late tissue toxicity as they relate to radiation therapy.

A
312
Q

The dosage of radiation therapy is limited such that the incidence of unacceptable side effects is ___. Some examples include _____.

A
313
Q

Describe cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas as a tumor that is responsive to radiation therapy.

A
314
Q

Describe nasal tumors as a tumor that is responsive to radiation therapy.

A
315
Q

Describe soft tissue sarcomas as a tumor that is responsive to radiation therapy.

A
316
Q

Describe equine sarcoids as a tumor that is responsive to radiation therapy.

A
317
Q

Describe mast cell tumors as a tumor that is responsive to radiation therapy.

A
318
Q

Why do we stage tumors?

A
319
Q

Ideal staging diagnostics are determined by ____.

A
320
Q

How does the biological behavior of carcinomas affect tumor staging/diagnostics?

A
321
Q

How does the biological behavior of sarcomas affect tumor staging/diagnostics?

A
322
Q

____ and ____ are the two ways we summarize tumor staging results in veterinary medicine.

A
323
Q

Describe TNM as a grading scale used to stage tumors.

A
324
Q

Describe WHO I-V as a grading scale used to stage tumors.

A
325
Q

How do we use our staging results to design optimal multi-modal therapy options for cancer patients?

A
326
Q

What is the rationale behind multi-modal therapies in cancer patients?

A
327
Q

What are the basic principles of multi-modal therapy in cancer patients?

A