Food Animal Medicine VI (35-45) Flashcards

1
Q

____ is the most widely eaten meat.

A
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2
Q

List some of the different benefits to pigs.

A
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3
Q

Identify the pork cuts.

A
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4
Q

Where in the U.S is pork production the highest?

A
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5
Q

What are the trends in pork production and consumption in the U.S?

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6
Q

What is the trend in U.S pork exports?

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7
Q

What is the trend in the number of hog operations in the U.S?

A
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8
Q

A young female that has not yet given birth yet is called a ____.

A

Gilt

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9
Q

A mature female pig is called a ____.

A

Sow

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10
Q

An intact male pig is called a ____.

A

Boar

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11
Q

A castrated male pig is called a _____.

A

Barrow

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12
Q

A pig gestation period is ____.

A
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13
Q

What is the term used when a pig is giving birth?

A

Farrowing

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14
Q

Pigs are weaned at around ____ of age. At this time they are called _____ pigs.

A
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15
Q

A weaned pig weighing up to about 50lb is called a ____ pig.

A

Nursery

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16
Q

A pig weighing about 150lbs or more is called a ____ or a ____.

A
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17
Q

In the US, pigs reach market weight at around ____.

A

280lb

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18
Q

What are the differences in the hog farms between today and the past?

A
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19
Q

Pigs are __% leaner than in the 1950s.

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20
Q

How has pork production become more efficient?

A
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21
Q

What are some of the nutritional challenges in pasture-raised pork?

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22
Q

What are some of the general differences in show/pet pigs versus food animal pigs?

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23
Q

What are some of the diseases we see in show pigs?

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24
Q

What are the consequences of lameness specifically in show pigs?

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25
Q

What are some of the legislative guidelines around owning pot bellied pigs?

A
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26
Q

Describe an appropriate diet for a pot bellied pig.

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27
Q

What is the purpose of a rooting box?

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28
Q

List some appropriate treats for pot bellied pigs.

A
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29
Q

Describe the appropriate housing for pot bellied pigs.

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30
Q

What are the different skills/tricks that can be taught to pigs?

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31
Q

List the recommended vaccines for pet pigs.

A
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32
Q

What are the three most common problems we see in the pet pig?

A
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33
Q

List some of the different careers for swine veterinarians.

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34
Q

Most commercial pig farms have become _____.

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35
Q

Name and describe the different phases of swine production.

A
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36
Q

Draw out the pig flow in a typical pork production system.

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37
Q

What is the role of boar studs in commercial operations?

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38
Q

Describe the general process of semen delivery in the pig.

A
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39
Q

What are the different housing options for a breeding/gestation barn?

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40
Q

Why is breeding the most important job on a sow farm?

A
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41
Q

Describe the management of gilts in a commercial sow farm.

A
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42
Q

When will gilts reach puberty? When do we breed them?

A
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43
Q

Describe the management of farrowing rooms on a sow farm.

A
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44
Q

Describe the importance of farrowing stalls/crates.

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45
Q

Describe the general management of a pig nursery.

A
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46
Q

Describe the management of a wean-to-finish pig operation.

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47
Q

Describe the general management a a pig finishing barn.

A
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48
Q

Describe PSY as a pork production key parameter.

A
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49
Q

Describe mortality rate as a pork production key parameter.

A
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50
Q

Describe growth performance as a pork production key parameter.

A
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51
Q

What are the major advantages of multi-site pig production?

A
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52
Q

What are the problems with farrow to finish swine farms?

A
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53
Q

Built in separations, paired with _____ production, provides opportunities to break the cycle of disease transmission.

A
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54
Q

What is meant by “all in/all out” on a production farm?

A
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55
Q

What are the general steps to cleaning in food animal production industry?

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56
Q

Describe wash/cleaning as a step in cleaning a food animal production farm.

A
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57
Q

Describe disinfection as a step in cleaning a food animal production farm.

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58
Q

Describe drying as a step in cleaning a food animal production farm.

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59
Q

____ is a basic principe of preventing disease on swine farms.

A
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60
Q

Differentiate between internal and external biosecurity on a pig farm.

A
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61
Q

Describe the biosecurity practices in place that occur during your arrival onto a pig farm.

A
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62
Q

How should a veterinarian structure biosecurity into their visit to a pig farm?

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63
Q

What is one of the environmental challenges of managing a lactating sow and piglets?

A
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64
Q

What are the different components of history we should collect in our analysis of a sow farm?

A
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65
Q

What is the 4 circle method to assessing a pig farm?

A
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66
Q

Describe the subjective portion to assessing a pig farm.

A
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67
Q

Describe the objective portion to assessing a pig farm.

A
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68
Q

One of the most critical components of a pig farm that you should assess EVERY time is ____.

A
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69
Q

How do we assess feed on a pig farm?

A
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70
Q

How do we assess water on a pig farm?

A
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71
Q

How do we assess air/environment on a pig farm?

A
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72
Q

How do we assess air/floor surface on a pig farm?

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73
Q

Describe the assessment portion of analyzing a pig farm.

A
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74
Q

Describe the plan portion of analyzing a pig farm.

A
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75
Q

You should necropsy at least ____ pigs per group and submit to the VDL for testing. Which pigs should we choose for necropsy?

A
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76
Q

Identify the different organs in this necropsies pig.

A
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77
Q

Identify the anatomy of the pig.

A
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78
Q

Fill in the blanks.

A
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79
Q

A complete necropsy submission of a pig should have at least ____.

A
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80
Q

What is the fixation requirement for a necropsy submission of a pig?

A
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81
Q

What are some additional field diagnostics we can perform on a pig farm in addition to necropsy?

A
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82
Q

What supplies to we need to collect nasal swabs from pigs?

A
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83
Q

What is the best location to collect blood in the pig?

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84
Q

Define swine lameness.

A
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85
Q

A significant portion of lesions that cause swine lameness are NOT _____.

A
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86
Q

What are some common sites for swine lameness?

A
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87
Q

Why do we care about lameness in the sow?

A
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88
Q

Describe the relevant anatomy of the pig foot.

A
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89
Q

Identify the anatomy of the pig foot.

A
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90
Q

If this a normal pig foot?

A

Yes

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91
Q

Each toe of the pig has ___ that are aligned end to end. The final ___ at the end is covered by ____.

A
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92
Q

Describe the relevant anatomy of the ping joints when it comes to lameness.

A
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93
Q

In general, how do we identify lameness on swine operations?

A
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94
Q

List some clinical signs that indicate a further elevation of the feet and legs are needed.

A
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95
Q

How do we use our clinical examination to diagnose lameness in the pig?

A
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96
Q

Describe the clinical significance of shoulder sores in the pig.

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97
Q

Identify the common sow lesions.

A
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98
Q

Identify the common sow lesions.

A
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99
Q

List the major causes of swine lameness in growing pigs.

A
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100
Q

What are the take home messages from the ISU swine lameness study?

A
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101
Q

List some infectious causes of swine lameness.

A
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102
Q

Describe the age group affected, nature of lesions, and additional clinical signs of mycoplasma polyserositits in the pig.

A
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103
Q

Describe the age group affected, nature of lesions, and additional clinical signs of mycoplasmal arthritis in the pig.

A
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104
Q

Identify the lesion. What agents are commonly associated with this lesion?

A
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105
Q

Identify the lesions and which agent they are most commonly associated with.

A
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106
Q

Identify the agent, age of onset, and lesions in grower/finisher pigs with erysipelas.

A
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107
Q

Identify the lesion and which agent it is most commonly associated with.

A
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108
Q

In general, describe OCD as a causative agent of lameness in the pig.

A
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109
Q

List some manifestations that can pre-disposed a pig to the clinical manifestation of OCD.

A
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110
Q

What are the two forms of OCD/DJD that affect the pig?

A
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111
Q

Describe epiphyseolysis as a clinical manifestation of OCD/DJD in the pig.

A
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112
Q

What form of OCD/DJD does this pig have?

A
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113
Q

Metabolic bone disease is a disruption related to ____ and can result in ____.

A
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114
Q

Define rickets.

A
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115
Q

Define osteomalacia.

A
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116
Q

Define osteoporosis/osteopenia.

A
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117
Q

Describe nutrition as a causative agent of swine lameness.

A
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118
Q

Describe the environment as a causative agent of swine lameness.

A
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119
Q

What is one way we can follow the progression of swine lameness?

A
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120
Q

List some of the different diagnostics that we use to diagnose swine lameness.

A
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121
Q

You perform a necropsy on a lame pig was you just euthanized. You find this, what can you conclude?

A
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122
Q

What are some questions you should answer prior to choosing to treat a lame pig?

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123
Q

What are some general treatment options for lame pigs?

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124
Q

Describe antibiotics as a treatment option for lame pigs.

A
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125
Q

Describe corrective trimming as a treatment option for lame pigs.

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126
Q

How can we prevent swine lameness?

A
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127
Q

What are the basic principles of preventing piglet diarrhea on sow farms?

A
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128
Q

How can we modify the environment to prevent piglet diarrhea on sow farms?

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129
Q

List some risk factors that influence prevalence of neonatal diarrhea in farrowing rooms.

A
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130
Q

What are some general strategies to managing neonatal piglet diarrhea?

A
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131
Q

What is going on in this image?

A

Piglets in totes already ate which allows piglets who haven’t to properly suckle/ingest colostrum

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132
Q

List the 7 key points relevant to achieving low piglet mortality.

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133
Q

List some bacterial causes of neonatal piglet diarrhea.

A
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134
Q

List some viral causes of neonatal piglet diarrhea.

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135
Q

List some parasitic causes of neonatal piglet diarrhea.

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136
Q

Describe colibacillosis as a causative agent of diarrhea in piglets (general).

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137
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of E.coli diarrhea in piglets.

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138
Q

What are the clinical signs of colibacillosis in unweaned piglets?

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139
Q

What are the clinical signs of colibacillosis in weaned piglets?

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140
Q

What are some gross lesions associated with colibacillosis in piglets?

A
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141
Q

Describe edema disease as a causative agent of piglet diarrhea (general).

A
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142
Q

What are some risk factors associated with the manifestation of edema disease in piglets?

A
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143
Q

What is your top differential?

A
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144
Q

How do we diagnose edema disease in piglets?

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145
Q

How do we treat edema disease in piglets?

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146
Q

How do we prevent edema disease in piglets?

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147
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to E.coli diarrhea in piglets.

A
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148
Q

Pre-weaned and freshly weaned pigs are most susceptible to which pathogens known to cause piglet diarrhea?

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149
Q

What are the different etiological agents responsible for clostridial enteritis in piglets?

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150
Q

What are the different etiological agents responsible for clostridial enteritis in piglets?

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151
Q

Describe the general characteristics of clostridium perfringens.

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152
Q

What are the clinical signs of clostridial enteritis in piglets?

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153
Q

How do we diagnose clostridial enteritis in piglets?

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154
Q

How do we treat clostridial enteritis in piglets?

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155
Q

How do we prevent clostridial enteritis in piglets?

A
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156
Q

Describe clostridium difficult as a causative agent of clostridial enteritis in piglets.

A
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157
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to clostridium perfringens infections in piglets.

A
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158
Q

Describe the general characteristics of rotaviruses as a causative agent of viral enteritis in pigs.

A
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159
Q

Describe the general characteristics of swine enteric coronavirus disease as a causative agent of viral enteritis in pigs.

A
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160
Q

Describe coronaviruses as a causative agent of swine diarrhea.

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161
Q

Describe rotaviruses as a causative agent of swine diarrhea.

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162
Q

Why does PED spread so rapidly?

A
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163
Q

Describe the clinical and economical significance of porcine epidemic diarrhea.

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164
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of porcine epidemic diarrhea.

A
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165
Q

You receive this histopathological sample of a pig intestine. What is your top differential?

A
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166
Q

You receive this histopathological sample of a pig intestine. What is your top differential?

A
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167
Q

What are the clinical signs of PED?

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168
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with PED?

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169
Q

How do we diagnose PED?

A
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170
Q

How do we prevent rotaviral diarrhea?

A
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171
Q

How do we prevent TGE/PED diarrhea?

A
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172
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to rotavirus/TGE/PED.

A
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173
Q

Describe porcine sapovirus (PSaV) as a potentially emerging pathogen in piglets.

A
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174
Q

Identify the pathogen. What clinical signs would you expect?

A
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175
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Isospora suis.

176
Q

What are the clinical signs of Isospora suis?

177
Q

How do we diagnose Isospora suis?

178
Q

How do we treat Isospora suis?

179
Q

How do we prevent Isospora suis?

180
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to Isospora suis in pigs.

181
Q

Describe the general characteristics of PRRS.

182
Q

Describe the etiology of enteric salmonellosis in mature pigs.

183
Q

Describe the epidemiology of enteric salmonellosis in mature pigs.

184
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of enteric salmonellosis in mature pigs.

185
Q

Describe the clinical signs of enteric salmonellosis (salmonella choleraesuis) in mature pigs.

186
Q

Describe the macroscopic lesions of enteric salmonellosis (salmonella choleraesuis) in mature pigs.

187
Q

How do we diagnose enteric salmonellosis?

188
Q

How do we treat enteric salmonellosis?

189
Q

How do we prevent enteric salmonellosis?

190
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to Salmonella cholearasuis/typhimurium in mature pigs.

191
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis is the causative agent for ____ or ____ in mature pigs.

192
Q

Describe the etiology of proliferative enteritis in the mature pig.

193
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of proliferative enteritis in the mature pig.

194
Q

Describe the three main forms of porcine proliferative enteropathy.

195
Q

What are the clinical signs of PPE?

196
Q

What gross lesions would you expect to find in a mature pig that is positive for PPE?

197
Q

How do we diagnose PPE?

198
Q

How do we treat PPE?

199
Q

How do we prevent PPE?

200
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to Lawsonia intracellularis in mature pigs.

201
Q

Swine dysentery is caused by ____.

202
Q

Describe the etiology of swine dysentery.

203
Q

Describe the epidemiology of swine dysentery.

204
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of swine dysentery.

205
Q

What are the clinical signs of swine dysentery?

206
Q

What necropsy findings would you expect to see in a pig with swine dysentery?

207
Q

How do we diagnose swine dysentery?

208
Q

How do we treat swine dysentery?

209
Q

How do we prevent swine dysentery?

210
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to Brachyspira hyodysenteriae in mature pigs.

211
Q

_____ or ____ are two parasitic agents known to cause diarrhea in mature pigs.

212
Q

Describe, in general, Trichuris suis as a causative agent of GI disease in mature pigs.

213
Q

What are the clinical signs of Trichuris suis in pigs?

214
Q

What macroscopic lesions would you expect in a pig with Trichuris suis?

215
Q

Identify the parasite.

216
Q

Describe Ascaris suum (in general) as a causative agent of GI disease in mature pigs.

217
Q

What are the clinical signs of Ascaris suum in pigs?

218
Q

What macroscopic lesions would you expect to find in a pig with Ascaris suum?

219
Q

Describe the most common scenario for a pig infected with Ascaris suum.

220
Q

Identify the parasite.

221
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to roundworm and whipworm infections in pigs.

222
Q

What is the etiological agent and clinical signs of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome (HBS) in pigs?

223
Q

What post-mortem lesions would you expect to find in a pig with HBS?

224
Q

How can we control/prevent HBS in pigs?

225
Q

Describe the pre-disposing factors and clinical signs of gastric ulcers in pigs.

226
Q

What is a porcine rectal prolapse? What are some predisposing factors?

227
Q

Describe a purse string as a treatment for rectal prolapse in the pig.

228
Q

Describe a rectal ring as a treatment for rectal prolapse in the pig.

229
Q

List the major bacterial pathogens that cause respiratory disease in swine.

230
Q

What are the two broad categories when it comes to swine respiratory disease?

231
Q

_____ is commonly used to describe the outcome of interactions of multiple respiratory pathogens (both viral and bacterial), environmental factors, type of production system, quality of managements and pig-specific factors (genetics, age, immunological status).

232
Q

What is your top differential for these pigs?

233
Q

Atrophic rhinitis is an infectious disease characterized by _____ that progresses to ____.

234
Q

What is the etiology of atrophic rhinitis?

235
Q

What are some risk factors associated with Atrophic rhinitis?

236
Q

The degree of atrophy, secondary to Atrophic rhinitis, is best assessed by _____.

237
Q

How do we diagnose atrophic rhinitis?

238
Q

How do we prevent atrophic rhinitis?

239
Q

Describe the clinical signs, lesions, and diagnosis of a pig with Bordetella bronchispetica.

240
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to atrophic rhinitis.

241
Q

Mycoplasmal pneumonia is a widespread, chronic respiration disease of swine characterized by ____.

242
Q

Describe the occurrence/prevalence of mycoplasma pneumonia in pigs.

243
Q

What two pathogenic mycoplasmas are recognized in swine? What does they cause?

244
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of mycoplasmal pneumonia in pigs.

245
Q

Describe the clinical signs of mycoplasmal pneumonia in pigs.

246
Q

What lung lesions would you expect to find in a pig infected with Mycoplasmal pneumonia?

247
Q

Describe the transmission of mycoplasma pneumonia on swine operations.

248
Q

How do we diagnose mycoplasmal pneumonia in pigs?

249
Q

How do we treat and control for mycoplasmal pneumonia on swine operations?

250
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to mycoplasmal pneumonia in swine.

251
Q

Describe Pasteurella multocida as a causative agent of respiratory disease in swine.

252
Q

How do we diagnose Pasteurella multocida in swine?

253
Q

How do we control/treat Pasteurella multocida in swine?

254
Q

Answer these questions as there relate to P. multocida in swine.

255
Q

What does it mean when someone says a pig is thumping?

A

Resp distress, using abdominal muscles actively to breathe

256
Q

Pleuropneumonia, caused by _____, is a highly contagious disease of swine often characterized by ____.

257
Q

Describe the etiology of swine pleuropneumonia.

258
Q

Describe the transmission of swine pleuropneumonia.

259
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of swine pleuropneumonia.

260
Q

Describe the clinical signs of swine pleuropneumonia.

261
Q

What lesions would you expect to find in a pig with pleuropneumonia?

262
Q

Describe how we diagnose of swine pleuropneumonia.

263
Q

Describe how we control/prevent swine pleuropneumonia.

264
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to swine pleuropneumonia.

265
Q

Actinobacillus suis is an infectious disease characterized by _____. It can be differentiated from APP because it is ____.

266
Q

Describe the etiology of Actinobacillus suis in swine.

267
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Actinobacillus suis in swine.

268
Q

Describe the clinical signs of Actinobacillus suis in swine.

269
Q

How do we diagnose Actinobacillus suis?

270
Q

How do we treat/control Actinobacillus suis?

271
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to A. suis.

272
Q

List the major virtual pathogens that cause respiratory disease in swine.

273
Q

Briefly describe PRCV as a mild cause of viral respiratory disease in swine.

274
Q

Briefly describe IBR as a mild cause of viral respiratory disease in swine.

275
Q

Swine influenza is a rapidly spreading viral disease characterized by ____ and followed by ___.

276
Q

Describe the prevalence and origin of influenza virus in the U.S.

277
Q

Describe some of the characteristics of SIV that make it pathogenic to swine.

278
Q

Influenza all started with ____.

279
Q

Describe how antigenic drift and antigenic shift play a role in influenza viruses.

280
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of SIV.

281
Q

List the clinical signs of SIV.

282
Q

What macroscopic lesions would you expect to find in a pig with SIV?

283
Q

What microscopic lesions would you expect to find in a pig with SIV?

284
Q

How do we diagnose SIV ante-mortem and post-mortem?

285
Q

How do we treat/prevent SIV?

286
Q

What are the 3 biggest challenges to treating/preventing SIV?

287
Q

Answer these questions as they relate to SIV.

288
Q

PRRS is a viral disease characterized by _____.

289
Q

____ is the most economically significant disease to affect US swine production since the eradication of classical swine fever.

290
Q

Why is PRRSv such a devastating disease?

291
Q

Describe the etiology of PRRSv.

292
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of PRRSv.

293
Q

____ is the main reason for multi-site production in the modern swine industry.

294
Q

____ is the main reason for multi-site production in the modern swine industry.

295
Q

List the clinical signs of PRRS.

296
Q

List the clinical signs of PRRS specific to the sow.

297
Q

How do we diagnose PRRS?

298
Q

How can we control, eliminate or prevents PRRS?

299
Q

Describe herd closure elimination as a strategy to prevent PRRS.

300
Q

Answer these questions as it relates to PRRS.

301
Q

Porcine circovirus type 2 is a very ____ that infects pigs. Infection is widespread but relatively few have ____ due to ____.

302
Q

Describe the relevant background of PCV2 in swine populations.

303
Q

Describe the etiology and epidemiology of PCV2.

304
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of PCV2.

305
Q

Describe the clinical signs of PCV2.

306
Q

How do we diagnose PCV2?

307
Q

How do we control/prevent PCV2?

308
Q

Answer these questions as it relates to PCV2.

309
Q

Briefly describe pseudorabies as a causative agent of viral respiratory disease in swine.

310
Q

List the toxic manure pit gases that can accumulate on a swine operation.

311
Q

Briefly describe ammonia toxicity on swine operations.

312
Q

Briefly describe hydrogen sulfide toxicity on swine operations.

313
Q

In general, respiratory disease problems in pigs are frequently the result of ____ and rarely due to the effects of ____.

314
Q

It is difficult to keep herds free of respiratory diseases. ____ have been suspected as sources of pathogen entry onto naive farms.

315
Q

The main control factors for swine respiratory diseases are ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____.

316
Q

_____ and _____ practices greatly decrease the need for preventive and therapeutic medications when it comes to swine respiratory disease.

317
Q

Neurological diseases of pigs are often ____. Some of the clinical signs you may appreciate include ___.

318
Q

List some infectious differentials for a neurological pig.

319
Q

List some non-infectious differentials for a neurological pig.

320
Q

_____, also known as ____ or ____, is a sporadic but not uncommon neurological manifestation in newborn pigs. Several causes include high cholera virus, porcine circovirus, and porcine pestivirus.

321
Q

Describe conventional tremors as a neurological disease of newborn piglets.

322
Q

What is Aujeszky’s Disease (pseudorabies)?

323
Q

What is the most common etiological agent of bacterial meningitis in swine?

324
Q

What are the clinical signs of bacterial meningitis in pigs?

325
Q

How do pigs become infected with bacterial meningitis?

326
Q

What gross lesions and clinical signs would you expect to find in a pig infected with bacterial meningitis?

327
Q

Describe the neurological manifestation of edema disease in pigs.

328
Q

What are some risk factors associated with edema disease in pigs?

329
Q

How do we diagnose edema disease?

330
Q

How do we treat edema disease?

331
Q

How do we prevent edema disease?

332
Q

Describe the clinical signs and most common history for a pig infected with hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus (HEV).

333
Q

How do we diagnose HEV?

334
Q

How do we treat HEV?

335
Q

What are some risk factors associated with salt toxicity/water deprivation in swine?

336
Q

What are the clinical signs of salt toxicity/water deprivation in swine?

337
Q

What is the treatment for salt toxicity/water deprivation in swine?

338
Q

What is one necropsy finding you may find in a pig that died from salt toxicosis/water deprivation?

339
Q

The ISU VDL recommends which samples to proper be able to diagnose CNS disease in swine?

340
Q

In general, what is swine polyserositis?

341
Q

Name the etiological agents of swine polyserositis.

342
Q

What are some gross lesion you may find in a pig with polyserositis?

343
Q

Briefly describe the peracute, acute, and chronic forms of swine polyserositis.

344
Q

What is the etiological agent in Glasser’s disease? Describe the pathogenesis.

345
Q

What gross lesions are associated with Glasser’s disease?

346
Q

How do we diagnose Glasser’s disease?

347
Q

How do we prevent Glasser’s disease?

348
Q

How do we treat Glasser’s disease?

349
Q

What did this pig die from?

350
Q

What is the treatment for streptococcus suis?

351
Q

How do we prevent streptococcus suis?

352
Q

Describe the general characteristics of Mycoplasma hyorhinis.

353
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Mycoplasma hyorhinis.

354
Q

Describe the general characteristics of mulberry heart disease.

355
Q

What are the clinical signs of mulberry heart disease?

356
Q

What macroscopic lesions would you expect to find in a pig with mulberry heart disease?

357
Q

How do we diagnose mulberry heart disease in swine?

358
Q

How do we treat/prevent/control mulberry heart disease in the pig?

359
Q

List some common skin conditions in the pig.

360
Q

Describe the clinical importance of greasy pig disease.

361
Q

What are some risk factors for the development of greasy pig disease?

362
Q

How do we diagnose greasy pig disease?

363
Q

How do we treat greasy pig disease?

364
Q

How do we prevent/control for greasy pig disease?

365
Q

There are two types of mange seen in swine. What are they?

366
Q

How does scabies spread on a swine operation? What are the risk factors?

367
Q

What are the clinical signs of scabies in pigs?

368
Q

How do we diagnose scabies in pigs?

369
Q

How do we treat, prevent and control scabies in pigs?

370
Q

Describe the clinical importance of lice in swine.

371
Q

Describe the lifecycle and transmission of Haematopinus suis.

372
Q

What are the clinical signs of lice in pigs?

373
Q

How do we treat, prevent, and control lice on swine operations?

374
Q

Describe sunburn as a dermal manifestation seen in pigs.

375
Q

Describe pityriasis rosea as a dermal manifestation seen in pigs.

376
Q

When should we intervene for a sow with a dystocia? When do we use oxytocin?

377
Q

Describe the different dystocia presentations we may see in a sow and how we manage them.

378
Q

What is savaging? How do we treat it?

379
Q

Describe the day 1 management/treatment of newborn piglets.

380
Q

Describe splay leg in baby pigs. How do we treat it?

381
Q

Describe the importance of iron to baby piglets.

382
Q

What are some of the different things we do as a part of pig processing?

383
Q

Why are pigs castrated?

384
Q

Describe inguinal/scrotal hernias in piglets. How do we treat it?

385
Q

Why do we clip the teeth of piglets?

386
Q

Why do we dock piglet tails?

387
Q

How do we manage pain during pig processing?

388
Q

Describe the standard piglet treatment protocol.

389
Q

List some of the different swine vesicular diseases, why are they clinically significant?

390
Q

You notice vesicular lesions on some pigs. What should your next steps be?

391
Q

Identify this clinical sign.

392
Q

Identify the different swine vesicular diseases based on the images.

393
Q

Identify the different swine vesicular diseases based on the images.

394
Q

What post-mortem lesions would you expect to find in a pig that died from a vesicular disease?

395
Q

Describe the clinical significance of African Swine Fever.

396
Q

Describe the significance of the most recent ASF outbreak in China.

397
Q

What risk factors are associated with ASF?

398
Q

What gross lesions would you expect to find in a pig that died from ASF?

399
Q

Why do we give antibiotics to pigs?

400
Q

Describe judicious antibiotic use in pigs.

401
Q

How do we use antibiotics as prevention or control measures on swine operations?

402
Q

List some of the advantages and disadvantages to giving pigs injectable antibiotics.

403
Q

List some of the advantages and disadvantages to giving pigs feed antibiotics.

404
Q

List some of the advantages and disadvantages to giving pigs water antibiotics.

405
Q

Where do we give IM shots to pigs?

406
Q

Describe the general guidelines to giving injectable antibiotics to pigs.

407
Q

How do we choose antibiotics for our pig patients?

408
Q

All antibiotics are ____ if they are effective and ____ if they don’t work.

409
Q

How do we know which pigs to treat with antibiotics?

410
Q

What should we monitor for in pigs as an indication that they may need antibiotics?

411
Q

When do we choose to give antibiotics through water?

412
Q

When do we choose to give antibiotics through feed?

413
Q

Describe the ELDU of cephalosporins in the swine industry.

414
Q

Describe the ELDU of fluroquinolones in the swine industry.

415
Q

When is swine anesthesia needed? How do we do it?

416
Q

How many grams of medication needs to be added in the producer is using a water tank? Medicator /proportioner?

417
Q

Identify the daily dose and maximum dose.

418
Q

All sow housing systems should: ______.

419
Q

What are the options for pregnant sows during gestation in specialized barns?

420
Q

Why do we use gestation stalls?

421
Q

In general, describe swine behavior and social hierarchy.

422
Q

What are some of the benefits and challenges to housing pregnant sows in individual stalls?

423
Q

What are some of the benefits and challenges to housing pregnant sows in group pens?

424
Q

Differentiate between the lesions you may find in swine with FMD, vesicular stomatitis, swine vesicular disease, and vesicular exanthema of swine.

425
Q

Describe some of the new technology we have when it comes to housing pregnant sows.

426
Q

What’s the best sow housing?

427
Q

What is proposition 12 and how does it differ from previous laws?

428
Q

Summarize some of the sow housing issues that we are experiencing today.

429
Q

What are the key elements to humane euthanasia?

430
Q

Under what conditions is timely euthanasia required for pigs?

431
Q

List some of the top considerations for performing euthanasia on pigs. (7)

432
Q

List some of the different euthanasia methods for pigs.

433
Q

____ is the preferred euthanasias method for piglets.

434
Q

What are stop movements? What are some alternative strategies?

435
Q

What is depopulation?