Small Animal Medicine Exam V (42-49) Flashcards

1
Q

What hormones are made by the hypothalamus?

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2
Q

What hormones are made by the anterior pituitary?

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3
Q

What hormones are made by the posterior pituitary?

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4
Q

What hormone is secreted in excess in a patient with acromegaly?

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5
Q

Draw out the normal hormone pathway for growth hormone.

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6
Q

What mediates the indirect anabolic effects of growth hormone? What are the effects?

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7
Q

What mediates the direct anabolic effects of growth hormone? What are the effects?

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8
Q

List the catabolic effects of growth hormone.

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9
Q

Describe the etiology of acromegaly in the feline.

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10
Q

Describe the etiology of acromegaly in the canine.

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11
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a cat with acromegaly.

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12
Q

What clinical signs do we see in feline acromegaly due to the anabolic effects of GH?

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13
Q

What clinical signs do we see in feline acromegaly due to the catabolic effects of GH?

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14
Q

What neurological signs secondary to acromegaly can we see in our feline patients?

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15
Q

What laboratory findings would you expect to see in a cat with acromegaly?

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16
Q

How do we diagnose feline acromegaly?

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17
Q

What should be some of our other differentials in a cat with suspect acromegaly?

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18
Q

What is the definitive treatment for feline acromegaly?

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19
Q

Describe the medical management of feline acromegaly.

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20
Q

What is the prognosis for feline acromegaly?

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21
Q

What is pituitary dwarfism? What is the etiology?

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22
Q

What are the clinical signs of pituitary dwarfism?

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23
Q

How do we diagnose pituitary dwarfism?

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24
Q

What are some endocrine and non-endocrine ddx for pituitary dwarfism?

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25
Q

What is the treatment for pituitary dwarfism?

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26
Q

What is the prognosis for pituitary dwarfism?

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27
Q

What is a normal amount of water intake and urine output for a dog/cat?

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28
Q

List the ddx for PU/PD.

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29
Q

Name some drugs that can cause PU/PD.

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30
Q

List the usual etiologies of PU/PD.

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31
Q

What is renal medullary solute washout?

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32
Q

What is central diabetes insipidus?

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33
Q

What is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

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34
Q

ADH (Vasopressin) is released when _____ or ____.

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35
Q

The main job of ADH is to reduce free water clearance, how does it do this?

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36
Q

List some causes of central diabetes insipidus.

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37
Q

List some causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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38
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a patient with central diabetes insipidus.

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39
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a patient with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

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40
Q

What are some clinical signs and physical exam findings consistent with diabetes insipidus?

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41
Q

In general, how do we diagnose diabetes insipidus?

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42
Q

When and why should we perform specific diagnostic tests (beyond the minimum database) to confirm DI?

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43
Q

What specific diagnostic tests do we have to diagnose DI?

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44
Q

How can a patient’s response to desmopressin help us confirm DI?

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45
Q

Describe the first phase of the water deprivation test.

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46
Q

Describe the second phase of the water deprivation test.

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47
Q

How do we interpret the first phase of the water deprivation test?

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48
Q

How do we interpret the second phase of the water deprivation test?

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49
Q

How do we treat central DI?

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50
Q

How do we treat nephrogenic DI?

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51
Q

How do we treat psychogenic polydipsia?

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52
Q

What is the prognosis for idiopathic/congenital central DI?

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53
Q

What is the prognosis for traumatic central DI?

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54
Q

What is the prognosis for central DI secondary to tumors?

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55
Q

What is the prognosis for primary nephrogenic DI?

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56
Q

What is the prognosis for secondary nephrogenic DI?

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57
Q

What is the prognosis for psychogenic water consumption?

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58
Q

Draw out the HPA axis of cortisol secretion.

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59
Q

What is the role of the zona glomerulosa?

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60
Q

What is the role of the zona fasciculata?

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61
Q

What is the role of the zona reticularis?

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62
Q

List some factors that stimulate ACTH secretion and therefore cortisol secretion.

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63
Q

List some factors that inhibit ACTH secretion and therefore cortisol secretion.

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64
Q

List the general effects of cortisol/glucocorticoids.

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65
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on kidney and water balance?

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66
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on the cardiovascular system?

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67
Q

What are the effects of cortisol on the hemopoetic systems?

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68
Q

_____ is a disease syndrome resulting from abnormally elevated levels of circulating cortisol, either endogenous or exogenous in origin. It is classified as ____, ____, or ____.

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69
Q

Briefly describe pituitary dependent hyperadrenocortism.

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70
Q

Briefly describe tertiary hyperadrenocorticism.

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71
Q

Briefly describe primary adrenal hyperadrenocorticism.

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72
Q

Briefly describe iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism.

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73
Q

Describe the most common signalment of a patient with Cushing’s.

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74
Q

What are the most common signs of Cushing’s disease?

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75
Q

What are the dermatological signs of Cushing’s disease?

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76
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of pituitary tumor syndrome causing secondary hyperadrenocorticism.

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77
Q

List some potential medical complications associated with hyperadrenocorticism.

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78
Q

Describe the prevalence of hyperadrenocorticism in the cat.

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79
Q

What are some PE findings we may see in a cat with hyperadrenocorticism?

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80
Q

What clinical pathology findings can we find in our canine patients with Cushing’s disease?

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81
Q

What clinical pathology findings can we find in our feline patients with Cushing’s disease?

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82
Q

What may you find on radiographs of a patient with Cushing’s disease?

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83
Q

What may you find on abdominal ultrasound of a patient with Cushing’s disease?

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84
Q

What is the role of MRI and CT in a patient with Cushing’s disease?

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85
Q

What are the different diagnostic and differentiation tests we have to help us diagnose hyperadrenocorticism?

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86
Q

Differentiate between sensitivity and specificity when it comes to diagnostic testing.

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87
Q

Describe the Urine-Cortisol-Creatinine Ratio (UCC) as a diagnostic test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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88
Q

Describe the LDDS test as a diagnostic test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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89
Q

Describe the ACTH stimulation test as a diagnostic test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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90
Q

____ is the screening test of choice for hyperadrenocorticism according to the 2012 ACVIM Consensus Statement.

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91
Q

Describe the abdominal ultrasound as a differentiation test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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92
Q

Describe the HDDS test as a differentiation test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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93
Q

Describe the endogenous ACTH level as a differentiation test for hyperadrenocorticism.

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94
Q

A majority of dogs with classic Cushing’s disease screened with ____ or ____ will have at least one positive test.

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95
Q

What is atypical Cushing’s disease?

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96
Q

What questions should we ask and answer prior to deciding to treat a patient with Cushing’s disease?

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97
Q

Describe trilostane (Vetoryl) as a treatment from hyperadrenocorticism.

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98
Q

You started a Cushing’s patient on trilostane, how do we monitor the patient’s response and disease progression?

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99
Q

What adverse reactions are associated with Trilostane?

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100
Q

Describe mitotane/lysodren as a treatment for Cushing’s disease.

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101
Q

You started a Cushing’s patient on mitotane/lysodren, how do we monitor the patient’s response and disease progression?

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102
Q

Describe an adrenalectomy as a treatment for Cushing’s disease.

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103
Q

Describe radiation as a treatment for Cushing’s disease.

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104
Q

What are some key client education points we should rely when we diagnose Cushing’s disease?

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105
Q

Describe infections as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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106
Q

Describe muscle weakness as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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107
Q

Describe neuropathies as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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108
Q

Describe systemic hypertension as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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109
Q

Describe proteinuria as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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110
Q

Describe bladder calculi as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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111
Q

Describe dystrophic calcification as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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112
Q

Describe diabetes mellitus as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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113
Q

Describe pancreatitis as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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114
Q

Describe biliary mucoceles as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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115
Q

Describe thromboembolisms as a secondary complication to Cushing’s disease.

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116
Q

What CNS signs can we see in our Cushing’s patients?

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117
Q

What nutroceuticals can we use to support our patients with Cushing’s disease?

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118
Q

How should we monitor disease progression in our patients with Cushing’s disease?

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119
Q

The parasympathic system has ____ receptors while the sympathic nervous system has ____ receptors.

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120
Q

List the different circumstances which require regulation by adrenal medullary secretions.

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121
Q

What are the effects of the release of epinephrine by the adrenal gland medulla?

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122
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

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123
Q

What are the most common clinical signs associated with a pheochromocytoma?

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124
Q

How do we diagnose pheochromocytomas?

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125
Q

How do we treat pheochromocytomas?

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126
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with a pheochromocytoma?

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127
Q

Describe the pathway that triggers the release of angiotensin I which eventually initiates the release of aldosterone.

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128
Q

T/F: The role of ACTH in aldosterone secretion is significant.

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129
Q

What is the role of extracellular fluid volume in regulation aldosterone secretion?

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130
Q

What is the role of K+ concentration in regulating the secretion of aldosterone?

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131
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of primary/idiopathic hypoadrenocorticism.

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132
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of secondary hypoadrenocorticism.

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133
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a canine/feline with Addison’s disease.

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134
Q

Describe the most common history and clinical signs that you make see in a patient with Addison’s disease.

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135
Q

What physical exam findings will you often find in a patient with Addison’s disease?

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136
Q

What CBC findings will you often see in a patient with Addison’s disease?

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137
Q

What biochemistry findings will you often see in a patient with Addison’s disease?

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138
Q

What radiographic findings will you often see in a patient with Addison’s disease?

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139
Q

What EKG findings will you often see in a patient with Addison’s disease?

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140
Q

How do we use baseline cortisol levels and ACTH stimulation tests to confirm Addison’s disease?

A
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141
Q

Describe the treatment for an Addisonian patient in an acute crisis.

A
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142
Q

Describe DOCP as a maintenance treatment for Addison’s disease.

A
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143
Q

Describe fludrocortisone acetate as a maintenance treatment for Addison’s disease.

A
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144
Q

Describe glucocorticoids as a maintenance treatment for Addison’s disease.

A
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145
Q

____ is the reference drug when we use to compare all glucocorticoids to.

A
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146
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with Addison’s disease?

A
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147
Q

What is primary hyperaldosteronism?

A
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148
Q

What is secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A
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149
Q

Describe hypokalemia as a clinical signs of hyperaldosteronism.

A
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150
Q

Describe hypernatremia as a clinical signs of hyperaldosteronism.

A
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151
Q

How do we diagnose hyperaldosteronism?

A
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152
Q

How do we treat hyperaldosteronism?

A
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153
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with hyperaldosteronism?

A
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154
Q

What is feline hyperthyroidism?

A
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155
Q

____ is one of the most common endocrine disorders in cats.

A

Feline hyperthyroidism

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156
Q

____% of cats 10yrs or older have feline hyperthyroidism.

A

10%

157
Q

What are the different etiologies of feline hyperthyroidism?

A
158
Q

What are the risk factors associated with feline hyperthyroidism?

A
159
Q

Describe the most common signalment of a patient with feline hyperthyroidism.

A
160
Q

What clinical signs, relative to appearance and behavior, will you see in a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
161
Q

What may you find on a thyroid exam of a cat with feline hyperthyroidism?

A
162
Q

What clinical signs, relative to the GIT, will you see in a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
163
Q

What clinical signs, relative to the renal system, will you see in a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
164
Q

What clinical signs, relative to the cardiovascular system, will you see in a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
165
Q

Describe the apathetic (atypical) form of feline hyperthyroidism.

A
166
Q

You have an older cat with a history of losing weight, increased appetite , and PU/PD. What are your ddx?

A
167
Q

What clinical pathology changes would you expect to find in a cat with feline hyperthyroidism?

A
168
Q

What would you expected the T4 and T3 levels to be in a cat with feline hyperthyroidism?

A
169
Q

What would you expected the free T4 levels to be in a cat with feline hyperthyroidism?

A
170
Q

Describe the role of radionuclide thyroid scanning to diagnose feline hyperthyroidism.

A
171
Q

What are the 3 treatment options for a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
172
Q

According to the AAFP, what should be our treatment goal when we treat for feline hyperthyroidism?

A
173
Q

How do we treat the cardiovascular effects of feline hyperthyroidism?

A
174
Q

How do we treat the renal effects of feline hyperthyroidism?

A
175
Q

How does diet play a role in our treatment for feline hyperthyroidism?

A
176
Q

List the different anti thyroid medications that we use to treat feline hyperthyroidism.

A
177
Q

What is the MOA of methimazole (thiamazole) in our treatment of feline hyperthyroidism?

A
178
Q

What are the different available formulations of methimzole (thiamazole)?

A
179
Q

Describe the clinical use and timeframe of improvement when we use methimazole (thiamazole) to treat our hyperthyroid feline patients.

A
180
Q

What adverse effects are associated with methimazole?

A
181
Q

Describe the MOA of radioactive iodine in treating our hyperthyroid feline patients.

A
182
Q

What are some of the different outcomes of radioactive iodine when treating hyperthyroid cats?

A
183
Q

What are some of the disadvantages of radioactive iodine when treating hyperthyroid cats?

A
184
Q

Describe surgery as a treatment option for cats with hyperthyroidism. What is the most serious complication?

A
185
Q

What is the prognosis for a cat with hyperthyroidism?

A
186
Q

Describe the etiology of canine hyperthyroidism. What are the clinical signs?

A
187
Q

How do we diagnose and treat canine hyperthyroidism? What is the prognosis?

A
188
Q

How do we diagnose and treat canine hyperthyroidism? What is the prognosis?

A
189
Q

What is hypothyroidism?

A
190
Q

Describe the regular pathophysiology of thyroid hormones in the body.

A
191
Q

What is primary hypothyroidism? Name the different etiologies.

A
192
Q

What is secondary hypothyroidism?

A
193
Q

What is tertiary hypothyroidism?

A
194
Q

What are some of the causes of congenital hypothyroidism?

A
195
Q

List some of the normal physiologic effects of thyroid hormones.

A
196
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a patient with hypothyroidism.

A
197
Q

What are some of the metabolic clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
198
Q

What are some of the dermatological clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
199
Q

What are some of the reproductive clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
200
Q

What are some of the neuromuscular clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
201
Q

What are some of the cardiovascular clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
202
Q

What are some of the gastrointestinal clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
203
Q

What are some of the ocular clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
204
Q

What clinical signs will you see in puppies with hypothyroidism?

A
205
Q

What clinical pathology changes would you expect to find in a patient with hypothyroidism?

A
206
Q

How do we use thyroid hormone level testing to confirm hypothyroidism?

A
207
Q

Many factors can decrease baseline thyroid hormone measurements. What are the most common factors?

A
208
Q

What are the effects of glucocorticoids on tT4, fT4, and cTSH?

A
209
Q

What are the effects of sulfonamides on tT4, fT4, and cTSH?

A
210
Q

What are the effects of phenobarbital on tT4, fT4, and cTSH?

A
211
Q

What are the effects of carprofen on tT4, fT4, and cTSH?

A
212
Q

What are the effects of clomipramine on tT4, fT4, and cTSH?

A
213
Q

What is non-thyroidal illness (NTI)?

A
214
Q

What is tT4? What are the advantages and disadvantages to using it as diagnostic tool?

A
215
Q

What is baseline fT4? Describe its role as a diagnostic tool.

A
216
Q

Describe baseline cTSH tests as a diagnostic tool.

A
217
Q

Describe TSH and TRH tests as a diagnostic tool.

A
218
Q

How does lymphocytic thyroiditis affect thyroid testing?

A
219
Q

What is the preferred initial diagnostic plan for a patient you suspect may have thyroid pathology?

A
220
Q

What are the different screening tests we perform on breeding dogs with and without thyroid pathology clinical signs?

A
221
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with hypothyroidism?

A
222
Q

How do we monitor our patient’s response to hypothyroid treatment?

A
223
Q

What should we do if our patients fail to respond to hypothyroid treatment?

A
224
Q

When should we consider decreasing our hypothyroid patient’s levothyroxine medication?

A
225
Q

What are the different calcium concentrations/fractions found in the body?

A
226
Q

What is the role of PTH in calcium metabolism?

A
227
Q

“GOSHDARNIT my patient is hypercalcemic” is a common pneumonic used to help us list the differentials for hypercalcemia. What does it mean?

A
228
Q

List some of the different granulomatous causes of hypercalcemia.

A
229
Q

List some of the different osteolytic causes of hypercalcemia.

A
230
Q

List some of the different spurious causes of hypercalcemia.

A
231
Q

Briefly describe how hyperparathyroidism leads to hypercalcemia.

A
232
Q

Briefly describe how hypervitaminosis leads to hypercalcemia.

A
233
Q

Briefly describe how Addison’s disease leads to hypercalcemia.

A
234
Q

Briefly describe how renal secondary hyperparathyroidism leads to hypercalcemia.

A
235
Q

Briefly describe how neoplasia leads to hypercalcemia.

A
236
Q

Briefly describe idiopathic hypercalcemia.

A
237
Q

Temperature induced _____ can lead to hypercalcemia.

A
238
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
239
Q

Fill in the blanks.

A
240
Q

Differentiate between primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A
241
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a dog with primary hyperparathyroidism.

A
242
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a cat with primary hyperparathyroidism.

A
243
Q

What are the clinical signs of primary hyperparathyroidism in the dog?

A
244
Q

What are the clinical signs of primary hyperparathyroidism in the cat?

A
245
Q

What physical exam findings may you find in a patient with hyperparathyroidism?

A
246
Q

What general tests do we have to help us diagnose hyperparathyroidism?

A
247
Q

What specific tests do we have to help us diagnose hyperparathyroidism?

A
248
Q

What are your primary DDx for hypercalcemia in cats and dogs?

A
249
Q

What is the treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
250
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A
251
Q

Why is high PTH bad?

A
252
Q

Why is high cellular calcium bad?

A
253
Q

What is the treatment for renal secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
254
Q

What are the effects of calcitriol on PTH?

A
255
Q

Calcitriol has two main types of actions, what are they?

A
256
Q

What are the functions of calcitriol?

A
257
Q

Describe the general guidelines to calcitriol dosing.

A
258
Q

What are the traditional thoughts on when to stop calcitriol treatment?

A
259
Q

Describe the prevalence of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism in the cat.

A
260
Q

Describe the prevalence of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism in the dog.

A
261
Q

What is the relation between renal secondary hyperparathyroidism and appetite?

A
262
Q

What are the causes of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
263
Q

What are the effects of nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A
264
Q

Briefly describe adrenal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A
265
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism? What are the consequences and treatment?

A
266
Q

Briefly describe the causes and consequences of transient hypoparathyroidism.

A
267
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a dog with primary hypoparathyroidism.

A
268
Q

Describe the most common signalment for a cat with primary hypoparathyroidism.

A
269
Q

What are the clinical signs of primary hypoparathyroidism ?

A
270
Q

What physical exam findings would you expect to find in a patient with primary hypoparathyroidism?

A
271
Q

How do we diagnose primary hypoparathyroidism?

A
272
Q

What are your differentials for hypocalcemia in the dog/cat?

A
273
Q

Describe the treatment for primary hypoparathyroidism.

A
274
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with primary hypoparathyroidism?

A
275
Q

List some of the different causes of PTH independent hypercalcemia.

A
276
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with primary hyperthyroidism?

A
277
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with malignant hypercalcemia?

A
278
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with primary hypoadrenocorticism?

A
279
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with CKD?

A
280
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with primary hypervitaminosis D (calcitriol or calcitriol analogue)?

A
281
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with hypervitaminosis D (D2 or D3 toxicity)?

A
282
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a patient with granulomatous disease?

A
283
Q

What would you expect the total calcium, ionized calcium, intact PTH, vit D, phosphorus, and PTHrP levels to be in a cat with idiopathic hypercalcemia?

A
284
Q

____ is the most common disorder of the endocrine pancreas in the dog and cat.

A

Diabetes mellitus

285
Q

Differentiate between type I and type II DM.

A
286
Q

Differentiate between insulin dependent and non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.

A
287
Q

Essentially all dogs have ____ diabetes mellitus at the time of presentations; ____ diabetes mellitus is uncommon.

A
288
Q

What are the causes of diabetes mellitus in dogs?

A
289
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of diabetes mellitus in the dog.

A
290
Q

Describe the prevalence of diabetes mellitus in the cat. What are the different types and some predisposing factors?

A
291
Q

Provide a brief overview of feline type II diabetes.

A
292
Q

Describe amylin as a risk factor for DM.

A
293
Q

Describe obesity as a risk factor for DM.

A
294
Q

Describe physical inactivity as a risk factor for DM.

A
295
Q

Describe gender as a risk factor for DM.

A
296
Q

Describe age as a risk factor for DM.

A
297
Q

Describe genetic predisposition as a risk factor for DM.

A
298
Q

Describe medication/diet as a risk factor for DM.

A
299
Q

What are they metabolic hallmarks and consequences of type II DM?

A
300
Q

_____ requirements fluctuate in approximately 20% of cats with DM.

A
301
Q

Describe the common signalment for a dog with diabetes mellitus.

A
302
Q

Describe the common signalment for a cat with diabetes mellitus.

A
303
Q

Describe the most common clinical presentation for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
304
Q

What is a diabetic neuropathy? What are the causes and treatment?

A
305
Q

How do we make our presumptive diagnostics of DM?

A
306
Q

What would you expect to see on the CBC of a patient with diabetes mellitus?

A
307
Q

What would you expect to see on the biochemistry of a patient with diabetes mellitus?

A
308
Q

What would you expect to see on the urinalysis of a patient with diabetes mellitus?

A
309
Q

Describe the role of fructosamine in diagnosing diabetes mellitus.

A
310
Q

Describe the role of glycolated hemoglobin in diagnosing diabetes mellitus.

A
311
Q

What are some reasons to utilize fructosamine and glycosylated hemoglobin assays in diabetic patients?

A
312
Q

What are the primary goals of treatment for patients with diabetic mellitus?

A
313
Q

Describe the role of nutrition in managing patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
314
Q

What are the differences in feline nutrition that help us manage diabetic patients?

A
315
Q

What is the carnivore connection theory?

A
316
Q

Cats may not be metabolically adapted to ingest _____.

A
317
Q

What dietary recommendations should we make for diabetic cats?

A
318
Q

Describe the role of exercise as a multimodal treatment option for patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
319
Q

_____ do NOT substitute the use of insulin, cannot reverse beta cell glucose toxicity and are backed by limited veterinary data.

A
320
Q

What are the 4 classes of oral hypoglycemic agents?

A
321
Q

Describe the use of acarbose (precose) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
322
Q

Describe the use of troglitazone (rezulin) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
323
Q

Describe the use of vanadium as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
324
Q

Describe the use of chromium picolinate as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
325
Q

Describe the use of metformin (glucophage) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
326
Q

Describe the use of glipizide (glucotrol) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
327
Q

Describe the use of glimepiride (amaryl) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
328
Q

Describe the use of glucagon-like peptide 1 analogue as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
329
Q

Describe the use of bexacat (bexagliflozin tablets) as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
330
Q

Describe the use of senvelgo as a treatment option for a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
331
Q

How do we categorize the different types of insulin?

A
332
Q

Describe e the onset, peak, and duration of regular (crystalline) insulin.

A
333
Q

Describe the onset, peak, and duration of NPH insulin.

A
334
Q

Describe e the onset, peak, and duration of PZI insulin.

A
335
Q

What are the different insulin preferences for dogs/cats?

A
336
Q

What is the most common type of insulin we use in veterinary medicine (origin)?

A
337
Q

What should be your initial insulin therapy for dogs with diabetes mellitus?

A
338
Q

What should be your initial insulin therapy for cats with diabetes mellitus?

A
339
Q

Describe the use of PZI insulin in cats.

A
340
Q

Describe the use of glargine insulin.

A
341
Q

Diabetic cats treated with twice daily _____ have better glycemic control and a higher probability of remission than cats treated with twice daily ____ or ____.

A
342
Q

Describe the use of detemir insulin.

A
343
Q

Describe the use of insulin pumps to help treat diabetes mellitus.

A
344
Q

What are the general guidelines to initiation insulin therapy in our patients with diabetes mellitus?

A
345
Q

Glycemic control (in our diabetic patients) is defined as _____.

A
346
Q

Describe the home management for an owner whose dog/cat has diabetes mellitus.

A
347
Q

Describe how to perform a blood glucose curve at home.

A
348
Q

What are the advantages of glucose monitors?

A
349
Q

What are some factors that affect the accuracy of glucose monitors?

A
350
Q

Draw out the ideal blood glucose curve.

A
351
Q

Draw out the blood glucose curve consistent with an insufficient insulin dose.

A
352
Q

Draw out the blood glucose curve consistent with an inappropriate duration of insulin action.

A
353
Q

Draw out the blood glucose curve consistent with a somogyi effect.

A
354
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of the somogyi effect on the BG curve.

A
355
Q

Draw out the blood glucose curve consistent with insulin resistance.

A
356
Q

List some of the potential causes of insulin resistance.

A
357
Q

Assess this BG curve.

A
358
Q

What are the general guidelines to monitoring a blood glucose curve?

A
359
Q

What are some owner management errors that can lead to an unregulated diabetic patient?

A
360
Q

What are the different initial, intermediate, and long term regulation parameters/tests we have to assess our diabetic patients?

A
361
Q

What should be included in the routine management of a patient with diabetes mellitus?

A
362
Q

Describe hypoglycemia as a potential complication when treating patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
363
Q

____ is the most common clinical sign when treating a patient with diabetes mellitus.

A
364
Q

Describe insulin overdose as a potential complication when treating patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
365
Q

Describe a shorten duration of insulin as a potential complication when treating patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
366
Q

Describe inadequate insulin absorption as a potential complication when treating patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
367
Q

Describe insulin antibodies as a potential complication when treating patients with diabetes mellitus.

A
368
Q

How can concurrent disease affect insulin treatment in a diabetic patient?

A
369
Q

What are the risk factors associated with an insulin overdose?

A
370
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with an insulin overdose?

A
371
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis associated with an insulin overdose?

A
372
Q

When evaluating the BG curve, if the NADIR is too high you should ____.

A
373
Q

When evaluating the BG curve, if the insulin is too short acting you should _____.

A
374
Q

When evaluating the BG curve, if notice a Somogyi effect, you should ______.

A
375
Q

Describe the use and importance of urine glucose monitoring to monitor a diabetic patient.

A
376
Q

List the indications for a glycosylated blood proteins in your diabetic patients.

A
377
Q

Analyze the blood glucose and serum fructosamine.

A
378
Q

Analyze the blood glucose and serum fructosamine.

A
379
Q

Analyze the blood glucose and serum fructosamine.

A
380
Q

Analyze the blood glucose and serum fructosamine.

A
381
Q

Analyze the blood glucose and serum fructosamine.

A
382
Q

For a cat with diabetes mellitus, the primary goal of therapy is _____.

A
383
Q

List the positive predictors for remission in cats with diabetes mellitus.

A
384
Q

List the factors that have not been shown to affect remission in a diabetic cat.

A
385
Q

Briefly describe how we manage diabetic remission in the cat.

A
386
Q

What is considered “tight regulation” of the diabetic cat?

A
387
Q

List some keys factors that affect the prognosis for a cat with diabetes mellitus. What is the median survival time?

A
388
Q

List some negative prognostic factors for a cat with diabetes mellitus.

A