Small Animal Medicine Exam III Flashcards

1
Q

Neurolocalization yields your _____.

A

differential list

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2
Q

What are the functional divisions of the brain?

A
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3
Q

What are upper motor neurons?

A
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4
Q

What are lower motor neurons?

A
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5
Q

The upper motor neuron system originates in various parts of the brain, what are they?

A
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6
Q

UMN ____ the neurons that directly innervate the muscles (LMN).

A
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7
Q

What are the responsibilities of the UMN system?

A
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8
Q

____ and ____ are mainly responsible for gait. The ____ is thought to play the biggest role in gait.

A
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9
Q

The ____ is the most important of the pathways through which a dog executes voluntary movement.

A
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10
Q

Identify the structure.

A
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11
Q

Identify the structure.

A
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12
Q

Identify the structures.

A
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13
Q

Name the different lobes of the cerebrum. What is their function?

A
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14
Q

What are the functions of the somatosensory cortex?

A
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15
Q

List the different forebrain signs that would indicate a lesion in the cerebrum.

A
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16
Q

The ____ is the chief sensory integrating center of the nervous system that contains a plethora of “rely” nuclei.

A

Diencephalon

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17
Q

What are the 5 major divisions of the diencephalon?

A
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18
Q

What is the location and function of the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS)?

A
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19
Q

Describe the function of and influences of the hypothalamus.

A
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20
Q

The ____ nuclei in the hypothalamus secrete ADH while the ____ nuclei secrete oxytocin. These are the only neurons in the body capable of secreting hormones.

A
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21
Q

What clinical signs are consistent with a lesion in the diencephalon?

A
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22
Q

List the different structures that live in the midbrain, what is their function?

A
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23
Q

What are some clinical signs consistent with a lesion in the midbrain?

A
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24
Q

List the structures that make up the pons.

A
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25
Q

List some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in the pons.

A
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26
Q

List the structures that course through the medulla.

A
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27
Q

Identify the structures.

A
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28
Q

What are some clinical signs consistent with a lesion in the medulla?

A
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29
Q

List the structures that make up the cerebellum.

A
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30
Q

What are the different functional units of the cerebellum?

A
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31
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A
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32
Q

List the clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in the cerebellum.

A
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33
Q

In the spinal cord, the UMN tracts descend in ___ and synapse on the LMN in the ___.

A
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34
Q

What are the different tracts in the spinal cord responsible for walking?

A
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35
Q

What are the different tracts in the spinal cord responsible for standing?

A
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36
Q

Identify the structures.

A
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37
Q

Describe the sensory function of the spinal cord.

A
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38
Q

Lesions affecting both the ____ and the ____ will result in proprioceptive ataxia and paresis (respectively).

A
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39
Q

Interference with the UMN’s influence over the LMY results in ____.

A
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40
Q

Identify the different parts of the spinal cord tract.

A
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41
Q

What are the different clinically important LMN in the spinal cord? In general, damage to these structures will result in what clinical presentation?

A
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42
Q

Identify the parts of the spinal cord.

A
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43
Q

Describe the pertinent anatomy that lives in C1-C5.

A
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44
Q

List the clinical signs that would indicate a lesion between C1 and C5.

A
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45
Q

Describe the pertinent anatomy that lives in C6-T2.

A
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46
Q

List some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in C6-T2.

A
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47
Q

Describe the pertinent anatomy that lives in T3-L3.

A
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48
Q

List some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion from T3 to L3.

A
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49
Q

Describe the pertinent anatomy that lives in the L4-S3 region of the spinal cord.

A
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50
Q

List some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in the L4-S3 region.

A
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51
Q

What are some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in S1-S3?

A
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52
Q

What are some clinical signs that would indicate a lesion in Cd1-C5?

A
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53
Q

What are the goals of a neurological exam?

A
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54
Q

What are the indications for a neurological exam? (small animal medicine)

A
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55
Q

How should you approach a neuro case? (small animal medicine)

A
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56
Q

What will you need in order to perform a neurological exam on your small animal patient?

A
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57
Q

What are the different parts that make up the neurological exam? (small animal medicine)

A
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58
Q

What are the different time courses that we may see in our neurological patients?

A
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59
Q

____, ____, and ____ make up the observation portion of a neurological exam.

A
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60
Q

What are the different kinds of mentations we may see in our neurological patients?

A
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61
Q

What are the different postures we may see in our neurological patients?

A
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62
Q

What are the different kinds of gaits we may see in our neurological patients?

A
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63
Q

If gait is affected than there is a problem in the ____.

A
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64
Q

How can we evacuate the gait in our small animal patients?

A
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65
Q

Define ataxia.

A
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66
Q

Define paresis.

A
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67
Q

Define plegia.

A
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68
Q

What is monoparesis/plegia?

A
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69
Q

What is hemiparesis/plegia?

A
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70
Q

What is paraparesis/plegia?

A
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71
Q

Define tetraparesis/plegia.

A
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72
Q

You notice your patient is circling, what does this indicate? (small animal medicine)

A
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73
Q

What are the 3 forms of ataxia?

A
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74
Q

Describe vestibular ataxia.

A
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75
Q

Describe cerebellar ataxia.

A
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76
Q

Describe proprioceptive ataxia.

A
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77
Q

Why do we test for postural reactions?

A
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78
Q

Postural reactions not only test conscious proprioception, what else do they test?

A
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79
Q

What are the different ways we test postural reactions?

A
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80
Q

Describe how we perform hemiwalking to test postural reactions in our small animal patients.

A
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81
Q

Testing spinal reflexes helps us evaluate _____.

A
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82
Q

What are the different monosynaptic and multisynaptic parts of spinal reflexes?

A
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83
Q

What are some key points regarding the withdrawal (flexor) reflexes?

A
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84
Q

What muscles and spinal cords are tested with the forelimb flexor (withdrawal) reflex?

A
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85
Q

What muscles and spinal cords are tested with the patellar reflex?

A
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86
Q

What muscles and spinal cords are tested with the withdrawal reflex?

A
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87
Q

What muscles and spinal cords are tested with the cutaneous trunci reflex?

A
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88
Q

What are some general UMN signs we can see while performing our neurological exam of dogs/cats?

A
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89
Q

What are some general LMN signs we can see while performing our neurological exam of dogs/cats?

A
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90
Q

What are some general tips to test spinal reflexes in our small animal patients?

A
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91
Q

How do we perform a patellar reflex? What is a normal response and what nerve is being evaluated?

A
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92
Q

How do you perform a withdrawal (flexor) reflex of the pelvic limb? What is a normal response? What nerves and cord segments are involved?

A
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93
Q

How do you perform a withdrawal (flexor) reflex of the forelimb? What is a normal response? What nerves and cord segments are involved?

A
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94
Q

How do you perform a cutaneous trunci reflex? What is the normal response?

A
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95
Q

How to perform a perineal (anal) reflex? What is a normal response? What nerves are being evaluated?

A
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96
Q

Most cranial nerves are ___ but some are “responses”.

A
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97
Q

List the different cranial nerves. What are their functions?

A
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98
Q

What cranial nerves are tested during a menace response?

A
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99
Q

What cranial nerves are tested during a palpebral reflex / facial sensation?

A
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100
Q

What cranial nerves are tested during a pupillary light reflex?

A
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101
Q

Describe how you would preform a menace response test. What are you testing for?

A
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102
Q

Describe how you would preform a palpebral reflex test. What are you testing for?

A
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103
Q

Describe the role that the trigeminal nerve plays in facial symmetry.

A
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104
Q

How would a lesion in the trigeminal nerve affect jaw tone?

A
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105
Q

What role does the facial nerve play in facial symmetry?

A
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106
Q

What role does the trigeminal nerve play in nasal sensation?

A
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107
Q

Identify the afferent and efferent pathways for nasal sensation.

A
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108
Q

Identify which branches of the trigeminal nerve are responsible for sensations in the face.

A
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109
Q

What are you assessing during a pupillary light reflex?

A
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110
Q

What is the swinging light test?

A
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111
Q

What is a physiologic nystagmus? What reflexes and nerves are involved?

A
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112
Q

What are the different kinds of abnormal nystagmus? What are the different orientations?

A
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113
Q

What nerves are being assessed during a gag reflex?

A
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114
Q

What nerve is being assessed when evaluating the tongue?

A
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115
Q

What cranial nerves are being assessed during the menace response?

A
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116
Q

What cranial nerves are being assessed during the palpebral reflex and facial sensation?

A
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117
Q

What cranial nerves are being assessed during the pupillary light reflex?

A
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118
Q

What is hyperesthesia?

A
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119
Q

Describe how you would perform a spinal palpation as part of your neurological exam.

A
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120
Q

Sensation is being simultaneously evaluated throughout your neurological exam, what does our basic neuro exam miss?

A
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121
Q

What is nociception?

A
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122
Q

____ is a conscious, emotional sensation which means it requires input from the brain,

A

Pain

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123
Q

How do we test for nociception? What are some normal responses that indicate deep pain perception?

A
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124
Q

What should be included in your bare minimum or abbreviated neurological exam?

A
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125
Q

The goal of a neurological exam is _____.

A

Lesion localization

126
Q

_____ are the #1 neurological problem in veterinary medicine.

A

Seizures

127
Q

_____ epilepsy has no cure.

A

Primary/idiopathic

128
Q

What is a seizure? Where do they originate and what are the different types?

A
129
Q

What are the different stages of a seizure?

A
130
Q

What is a cluster seizure?

A
131
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A
132
Q

What are some common things mistaken for seizures?

A
133
Q

Are seizures harmful?

A
134
Q

What are the different types of seizures that occur in animals?

A
135
Q

Describe a generalized seizure in small animal patients.

A
136
Q

What are some common complications associated with a generalized seizure in our small animal patients?

A
137
Q

Differentiate between a simple and complex focal/partial seizure.

A
138
Q

What is happening during a partial seizure in our small animal patients?

A
139
Q

How do we classify animal epilepsy?

A
140
Q

What are some causes of seizures in our small animal patients?

A
141
Q

What is the common signalment for a patient with genetic/idiopathic epilepsy?

A
142
Q

How do we diagnose idiopathic epilepsy?

A
143
Q

Describe the use of imaging in diagnosing idiopathic epilepsy.

A
144
Q

Idiopathic epilepsy is a diagnose of ____.

A

exclusion!

145
Q

What physical exam findings are consistent with idiopathic epilepsy?

A
146
Q

What physical exam findings are consistent with idiopathic epilepsy?

A
147
Q

When should you refer your patient with idiopathic epilepsy?

A
148
Q

What are the different types of therapies we use in our patients with idiopathic epilepsy?

A
149
Q

Describe the use of cannabidiol in our small animal epileptic patients.

A
150
Q

What are the goals of therapy in our small animal patients with epilepsy?

A
151
Q

When should you recommend chronic therapy for an epileptic patient?

A
152
Q

What is some important client education surrounding the treatment of epilepsy in our small animal patients?

A
153
Q

What are some common management mistakes when it comes to treating the epileptic patient?

A
154
Q

Most patients with idiopathic epilepsy respond well to _____.

A
155
Q

What drugs do we use for the emergency management of seizures at home?

A
156
Q

_____ causes acute fulminant hepatic necrosis in cats.

A
157
Q

When can you consider weaning an epileptic patient off of their medications?

A
158
Q

Name the different anticonvulsants that we use in our small animal patients.

A
159
Q

Describe the use of phenobarbital in our small animal patients.

A
160
Q

What are the pros to using phenobarbital in our small animal patients?

A
161
Q

What are the cons to using phenobarbital in our small animal patients?

A
162
Q

Describe the use of potassium bromide in our small animal patients.

A
163
Q

What are the pros to using potassium bromide in our small animal patients?

A
164
Q

What are the cons to using potassium bromide in our small animal patients?

A
165
Q

Describe the use of zonisamide in small animals patients.

A
166
Q

What are the pros to using zonisamide in our small animal patients?

A
167
Q

What are the cons to using zonisamide in our small animal patients?

A
168
Q

Describe the use of levetiracetam in our small animal patients.

A
169
Q

What are the pros to using levetiracetam in our small animal patients?

A
170
Q

What are the cons to using levetiracetam in our small animal patients?

A
171
Q

Describe the use of topiramate in our small animal patients.

A
172
Q

What are the pros to using topiramate in our small animal patients?

A
173
Q

What are the cons to using topiramate in our small animal patients?

A
174
Q

What are some other possible anticonvulsants that we use in our epileptic small animal patients?

A
175
Q

What are the take home points for dealing with epileptic patients?

A
176
Q

What is the role of the vestibular system?

A
177
Q

Describe the labyrinth of the peripheral vestibular system.

A
178
Q

Describe CNVIII of the peripheral vestibular system.

A
179
Q

What are some of the central vestibular structures of the vestibular system?

A
180
Q

What are the 3 main targets of the central vesicular projections?

A
181
Q

Describe the role of the cerebellum in the vestibular system.

A
182
Q

Describe the role of the vestibulospinal tract in the vestibular system.

A
183
Q

Describe the regular control of eye movements.

A
184
Q

What are some common clinical signs that align with peripheral and central vestibular disease?

A
185
Q

Describe a pathological nystagmus.

A
186
Q

What are the different types of pathological nystagmus?

A
187
Q

What is a pendular nystagmus?

A
188
Q

What is a positional strabismus?

A
189
Q

What is vestibular ataxia?

A
190
Q

How can we differentiate between a peripheral or central vestibular disease?

A
191
Q

What structures may play a role in central vestibular disease?

A
192
Q

What is paradoxical vestibular disease?

A
193
Q

What are the clinical signs of paradoxical vestibular disease?

A
194
Q

Describe bilateral vestibular disease.

A
195
Q

List some peripheral disease that cause vestibular dysfunction.

A
196
Q

Describe the role of otitis media/interna in contributing to vestibular disease.

A
197
Q

Describe K9 idiopathic vestibular disease.

A
198
Q

Describe feline idiopathic vestibular disease.

A
199
Q

Neurolocalization to central vestibular system is an indication of _____. As a general rule, most of the common causes can be associated with ____.

A
200
Q

What are some diseases/conditions that contribute to central vestibular disease?

A
201
Q

In general, what is the time frame for degenerative diseases.

A
202
Q

What is cognitive dysfunction syndrome?

A
203
Q

What are some pathological findings you would expect in a patient with cognitive dysfunction syndrome?

A
204
Q

What is the most common signalment for a patient with cognitive dysfunction syndrome? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
205
Q

In general, describe the time frame for anomalous/structural neurological diseases.

A
206
Q

What is hydrocephalus? How do we classify it?

A
207
Q

What are the clinical signs and findings consistent with a patient with hydrocephalus?

A
208
Q

How do we diagnose hydrocephalus?

A
209
Q

What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?

A
210
Q

What is the prognosis for hydrocephalus?

A
211
Q

Acquired obstructive hydrocephalus is usually due to ____.

A
212
Q

What is a chiari-like malformation? What breeds are predisposed?

A
213
Q

What are the clinical signs of COMS?

A
214
Q

How do we diagnose COMS?

A
215
Q

What is the treatment for COMS?

A
216
Q

What is the prognosis for a patient with COMS?

A
217
Q

What are the causes and clinical signs of hepatoencephalopathy?

A
218
Q

In general, describe the time frame for neoplastic neurological conditions.

A
219
Q

What are the common locations for primary brain tumors in our small animal patients?

A
220
Q

What are some primary brain tumors that we se in our small animal patients?

A
221
Q

What are some of the common breed dispositions when it comes to primary brain tumors?

A
222
Q

What are the most common clinical signs of a primary brain tumor?

A
223
Q

How do we diagnose and treat primary brain tumors? What is the prognosis?

A
224
Q

In general, describe the time frame of an inflammatory brain disease.

A
225
Q

What are the general classifications of inflammatory brain diseases?

A
226
Q

What are the clinical signs of inflammatory brain disease? How do we diagnose it? What is the prognosis?

A
227
Q

List some causative agents of infectious inflammatory brain diseases.

A
228
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of canine distemper virus and its role in infectious inflammatory brain diseases.

A
229
Q

What are the different forms of canine distemper virus (that lead to infectious inflammatory brain disease)?

A
230
Q

How do we diagnose canine distemper virus (that lead to infectious inflammatory brain disease)? What is the treatment and prognosis?

A
231
Q

Describe the role of FIP in infectious inflammatory brain diseases.

A
232
Q

How do we diagnose FIP?

A
233
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for FIP?

A
234
Q

List some causative agents of fungal infectious inflammatory brain disease.

A
235
Q

What is SRMA? What are the clinical signs?

A
236
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of SRMA.

A
237
Q

How do we diagnose and treat SRMA? What is the prognosis?

A
238
Q

What is GME? What are the different forms?

A
239
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of GME. What are the clinical signs?

A
240
Q

How do we diagnose GME?

A
241
Q

What is the treatment for GME?

A
242
Q

What is the prognosis for GME?

A
243
Q

What is NME/NLE? What is the most common signalment?

A
244
Q

What are the clinical signs of NME/NLE? How do we diagnose and treat it? What is the prognosis?

A
245
Q

Identify the different diseases based on their gross pathological findings.

A
246
Q

Describe white shaker disease in its entirety. (Signalment, signs, path, dx, tx, px)

A
247
Q

How should you go about diagnosing and treating brain disease without having an MRI or CSF?

A
248
Q

In general, describe the time frame of head trauma related neurological diseases.

A
249
Q

Differentiate between primary injury and secondary injury relative to head trauma.

A
250
Q

What are some of the clinical signs we see with head trauma?

A
251
Q

The lower your head trauma patient scores on the modified Glasgow Coma Scale, the ____ the prognosis.

A
252
Q

What is the treatment for head trauma?

A
253
Q

In general, describe the time frame for neurotoxicity.

A
254
Q

Describe the causative agents, signs, dx, tx, px relative to tremorgenic mycotoxins.

A
255
Q

Describe the MOA, clinical signs, treatment, tx, and px relative to metronidazole toxicity.

A
256
Q

In general, describe the time frame of neurological disease secondary to ischemia or other vascular diseases.

A
257
Q

Why is the brain so sensitive to ischemic injures?

A
258
Q

What are the two different kinds of cerebrovascular accidents we see in dogs?

A
259
Q

What are some of the causes of hemorrhagic CVA? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
260
Q

What are some of the causes of ischemic CVA?

A
261
Q

Describe the pathophysiology, clinical signs and diagnosis of ischemic CVA?

A
262
Q

How do we treat ischemic PVA? What is the prognosis?

A
263
Q

What is feline ischemic encephalopathy? Describe the pathophysiology.

A
264
Q

Describe the clinical signs and treatment of FIE.

A
265
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A
266
Q

What is the pathway of Horner’s syndrome?

A
267
Q

What are the clinical signs of Horner’s syndrome?

A
268
Q

What conditions are associated with Horner’s syndrome?

A
269
Q

What testing do we have available for Horner’s syndrome?

A
270
Q

What is idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?

A
271
Q

What are the clinical signs of idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?

A
272
Q

How do we diagnose idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?

A
273
Q

How do we treat idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?

A
274
Q

What is the prognosis for idiopathic facial nerve paralysis?

A
275
Q

What is trigeminal neuritis?

A
276
Q

What are the clinical signs of trigeminal neuritis?

A
277
Q

How do we diagnose trigeminal neuritis?

A
278
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for trigeminal neuritis?

A
279
Q

What is laryngeal paralysis? Describe the two different forms.

A
280
Q

What are the clinical signs of laryngeal paralysis?

A
281
Q

What is the treatment for laryngeal paralysis?

A
282
Q

What is the prognosis for laryngeal paralysis?

A
283
Q

Describe a brachial plexus injury.

A
284
Q

Describe a cranial brachial plexus injury.

A
285
Q

Describe a caudal brachial plexus injury.

A
286
Q

What is the treatment for a brachial plexus injury?

A
287
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for a brachial plexus injury?

A
288
Q

What is tetanus? Describe the pathophysiology.

A
289
Q

What are the clinical signs of tetanus?

A
290
Q

How do we diagnose tetanus?

A
291
Q

How do we treat tetanus?

A
292
Q

What are the two forms of myasthenia gravis?

A
293
Q

Describe acquired myasthenia graves. What are the 3 forms and what diseases can it be associated with?

A
294
Q

What are the main clinical signs of myasthenia grvais in the dog?

A
295
Q

What are the main clinical signs of myasthenia gravis in the cat?

A
296
Q

How do we diagnose myasthenia grvais?

A
297
Q

How do we treat myasthenia grvais?

A
298
Q

What is the prognosis of myasthenia gravis?

A
299
Q

List three examples of polymyositis.

A
300
Q

What is masticatory muscle myositis? What is the pathophysiology?

A
301
Q

What are the clinical signs of masticatory muscle myositis?

A
302
Q

How do we diagnose masticatory muscle myositis?

A
303
Q

How do we treat masticatory muscle myositis?

A
304
Q

What is the prognosis for masticatory muscle myositis?

A
305
Q

What is a saddle thrombus? Describe the pathophysiology.

A
306
Q

What are the clinical signs of a saddle thrombus in cats?

A
307
Q

Describe canine ischemic neuromyopathies. What diseases is it commonly associated with?

A
308
Q

How do we diagnose canine ischemic neuromyopathies?

A
309
Q

How do we treat canine ischemic neuromyopathies?

A
310
Q

What is the prognosis for canine ischemic neuromyopathies?

A