Small Animal Medicine Exam II (5-16) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the approximate locations of the various valve along the chest wall?

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2
Q

What happens in the heart when you hear LUB-DUB with your stethoscope?

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3
Q

Describe the S1 heart sound.

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4
Q

Describe the S2 heart sound.

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5
Q

Describe the S3 heart sound.

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6
Q

Describe the S4 heart sound.

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7
Q

What is a gallop rhythm?

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8
Q

What causes a heart murmur? How do we describe them?

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9
Q
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10
Q

Identify the anatomy of the heart in this radiograph.

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11
Q

Identity the pathology in this radiograph.

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12
Q

Identify the anatomy in this radiograph.

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13
Q

What structures are enlarged in this radiograph?

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14
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

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15
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

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16
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

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17
Q

Identify the different structures that make up the heart.

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18
Q

Identify the different structures that make up the heart.

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19
Q

What controls the opening and closing of the heart valves during the cardiac cycle?

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20
Q

The right heart is ___ pressure and provides blood to the ___.

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21
Q

The left heart is ___ pressure and provides blood to the ___.

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22
Q

Identify the different pressures in the different structures of the heart.

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23
Q

Identify the different structures that play a role in the conduction of the heart.

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24
Q

What happens during the p wave of the ECG?

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25
Q

What happens during the QRS portion of the ECG?

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26
Q

What happens during the t wave of the ECG?

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27
Q

Identify the different parts of the ECG.

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28
Q

What is cardiac output and how do you calculate it?

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29
Q
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30
Q

What is the Frank-Starling Law?

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31
Q

What is cardiac preload?

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32
Q

What is cardiac afterload?

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33
Q

When reading an ECG, what questions should you ask?

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34
Q
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35
Q
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36
Q
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37
Q
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38
Q
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39
Q

What is the heart block poem?

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40
Q
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41
Q
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42
Q

How do we calculate the VHS?

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43
Q

What are the four basic echocardiography views of the heart?

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44
Q

Identify the electrocardiographic view of the heart.

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45
Q

Identify the electrocardiographic view of the heart.

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46
Q

Identify the electrocardiographic view of the heart.

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47
Q

Identify the electrocardiographic view of the heart.

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48
Q

Draw out the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

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49
Q

Where is the blood pressure the highest in the CV system?

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50
Q

Where is most of the blood volume in the CV system?

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51
Q

The systolic blood pressure is not a fixed number, it is typically ___ mmHg greater than diastolic pressures.

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52
Q

How does sympathetic tone affect the CV system?

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53
Q

How does parasympathetic tone affect the CV system?

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54
Q

Define inotrophy.

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55
Q

Define chronotrophy.

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56
Q

Define dromotrophy.

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57
Q

Define lusitrophy.

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58
Q

How is angiotensinogen converted to angiotensin II?

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59
Q

Reduced ___ perfusion will activate the RAAS system.

A

Renal

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60
Q

What effects does angiotensin II have on the body?

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61
Q

Name the different natriuretic peptides. What is their purpose?

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62
Q

Describe atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

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63
Q

Describe B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).

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64
Q

What is the equation for cardiac output?

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65
Q

What is the equation for cardiac resistance?

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66
Q

What is the equation for total peripheral resistance?

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67
Q

What is the equation for cardiac ejection fraction?

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68
Q
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69
Q

Which is more responsible for congestive heart failure, systolic of diastolic function?

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70
Q

Which is more responsible for low cardiac output, systolic of diastolic function?

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71
Q

Are you more likely to treat abnormal systolic function or abnormal diastolic function?

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72
Q

What is cardiac preload?

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73
Q

What is cardiac afterload?

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74
Q

Describe the general arrangement of circulation.

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75
Q

Name the determinants of the resistance Poiseuille equation.

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76
Q

Which physical mechanism is used primarily to alter vascular resistance?

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77
Q

List some of the common diagnostic tools we use in cardiology.

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78
Q
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79
Q

T/F: Most of the blood volume of the circulation (nearly 75%) resides in the systemic veins.

A

True

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80
Q

T/F: Most of the systemic vascular resistance is attributable to the micro-circulation (arterioles).

A

True

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81
Q

T/F: Generalized vasoconstriction of the arterioles changes TPR while vasoconstriction of the veins doesn’t.

A

True

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82
Q

The highest velocity of the blood flow occurs ____; the lowest velocity of blood flow occurs in the ____.

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83
Q

Blood flow in the arteries is ____ while the blood flow in the systemic veins is ____.

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84
Q

Pressure in the arteries _____, while pressure in the veins is ____.

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85
Q

Describe the term oxygen delivery.

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86
Q

Differentiate between oxygen delivery and oxygen consumption.

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87
Q
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88
Q

____ is defined as the volume of blood a vessel can hold at a given pressure.

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89
Q

What is the role of compliance in the maintenance of the cardiovascular system?

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90
Q

______ (think arteries) determines blood flow distribution.

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91
Q

_____ (think veins) determines blood volume distribution.

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92
Q

Label the tracing.

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93
Q

Describe the different cardiac action potentials.

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94
Q

Identify the different refractory periods.

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95
Q

Differentiate between a premature depolarization and escape depolarization.

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96
Q

What is paroxysmal tachycardia?

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97
Q

The ECG standard calibration is ____ cm/Mv. If you wanted to make the QRS complexes smaller, you can ___ the cm/Mv.

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98
Q

What is a normal canine heart rate?

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99
Q

List the normal canine cardiac rhythms.

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100
Q

What is a normal feline heart rate?

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101
Q

List the normal feline cardiac rhythms.

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102
Q

By keeping the ECG leads below the elbows and the knees, you will decrease the chances of ____ artifact.

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103
Q

How can you calculate the heart rate on an ECG printout? (at 50mm/sec and 25 mm/sec)

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104
Q

What does a left atrial enlargement pattern look like on an ECG?

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105
Q

Based on this ECG, what pathology is present?

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106
Q

What does a right ventricular enlargement pattern look like on a n ECG?

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107
Q

What does s a left bundle brand block look like on an ECG?

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108
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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109
Q

What does a right bundle branch block look like on an ECG?

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110
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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111
Q

How should you approach an arrhythmia diagnosis?

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112
Q

All sinus rhythms originate in the ____.

A

Sinoatrial node

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113
Q

Describe a normal sinus rhythm.

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114
Q

What does a sinus arrhythmia look like on the ECG?

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115
Q

Differentiate respiratory sinus arrhythmia and a wandering pacemaker.

A

Both normal!

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116
Q

What does sinus bradycardia look like on ECG?

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117
Q

What does sinus tachycardia look like on ECG?

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118
Q

What does supraventricular premature depolarizations look like on an ECG?

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119
Q

Identify the pathology on this ECG.

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120
Q

What does supraventricular tachycardia look like on an ECG?

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121
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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122
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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123
Q

What does atrial fibrillation look like on an ECG?

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124
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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125
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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126
Q

What does a ventricular premature depolarization look like on an ECG?

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127
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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128
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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129
Q

What does ventricular tachycardia look like on an ECG?

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130
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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131
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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132
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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133
Q

What does ventricular fibrillation look like on an ECG?

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134
Q

Identify the different waveforms in this ECG.

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135
Q

Differentiate between a junctional and ventricular escape rhythm.

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136
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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137
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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138
Q

What is sinus arrest? What does it look like on an ECG?

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139
Q

What is sick sinus syndrome? What does it look like on an ECG?

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140
Q

What is atrial standstill? What does it look like on an ECG?

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141
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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142
Q

Briefly differentiate between a first, second, and third degree AV block.

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143
Q

List some causes of a first degree AV block.

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144
Q

What does a first degree AV block look like on an ECG?

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145
Q

What does a second degree AV block look like on an ECG?

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146
Q

What are some causes of a second degree AV block?

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147
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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148
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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149
Q

List the causes of a third degree AV block.

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150
Q

What does a third degree AV block look like on an ECG?

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151
Q

Identify the pathology in this ECG.

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152
Q

ST segment alterations are non-specific but may indicate _____.

A
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153
Q

Identify the different ST segment changes.

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154
Q

What information can you gain from a physical exam and auscultation relative to the CV system? (small animal medicine)

A
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155
Q

Describe the normal heart sounds in the small animal patient.

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156
Q

What is the etiology of an S4 gallop? (small animal medicine)

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157
Q

What is the etiology of an S3 gallop? (small animal medicine)

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158
Q

What is the etiology of a mid-systolic click? (small animal medicine)

A
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159
Q

Describe a 1/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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160
Q

Describe a 2/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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161
Q

Describe a 3/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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162
Q

Describe a 4/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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163
Q

Describe a 5/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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164
Q

Describe a 6/6 heart murmur. (small animal medicine)

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165
Q

Where are the different cardiac auscultation locations in the small animal?

A
166
Q

Name and describe the different kinds of systolic murmurs in the small animal.

A
167
Q

Name and describe the different kinds of diastolic murmurs in the small animal.

A
168
Q

Name and describe the different kinds of continuous murmurs in the small animal.

A
169
Q

What are some of the different causes of pulmonary crackles? (small animal medicine)

A
170
Q

How should we evaluate RR/RE in our small animal patients? What is normal?

A
171
Q

Describe the significant of a cough in our small animal patients when evaluating their CV system.

A
172
Q

What are some terms we use to describe arterial pulses in our small animal patients?

A
173
Q

What is the significant of ascites found in our CV exam of a small animal patient?

A
174
Q

What can the jugular vein tell us in our small animal patients?

A
175
Q

What are some of the indications for thoracic radiographs in our small animal patients?

A
176
Q

What questions can be answered from thoracic radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
177
Q

What do thoracic radiographs miss? (small animal medicine)

A
178
Q

What are some structures of cardiovascular interest in thoracic radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
179
Q

Which lateral thorax radiograph is more common when trying to evaluate the CV system?

A
180
Q

You small animal patient is dyspneic but you need to get thoracic radiographs. Which is more appropriate, a DV or VD?

A
181
Q

How do the CV structures differ in a thoracic radiograph of a deep chested dog?

A
182
Q

How do the CV structures differ in a thoracic radiograph of a barrel chested dog?

A
183
Q

This is a normal thoracic radiograph of a ____.

A
184
Q

This is a normal thoracic radiograph of a ____.

A
185
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
186
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
187
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
188
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
189
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
190
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
191
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
192
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
193
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
194
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
195
Q

How would you know if the heart is big in your canine and feline patients?

A
196
Q

What is a normal canine vertebral heart size?

A
197
Q

What is a normal feline vertebral heart size?

A
198
Q

What does a vertebral left atrial size tell us in our canine or feline patients?

A
199
Q

Describe how to measure/calculate a vertebral left atrial size? (small animal medicine)

A
200
Q

Is this small animal thoracic radiograph normal?

A
201
Q

Is this small animal thoracic radiograph normal?

A
202
Q

Identify the structures in the small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
203
Q

What are your differentials if both the pulmonary arteries and veins are small on radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
204
Q

What are your differentials if both the pulmonary arteries and veins are big on radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
205
Q

What are your differentials if only the pulmonary artery is big on radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
206
Q

What are your differentials if only the pulmonary vein is big on radiographs? (small animal medicine)

A
207
Q

Identify the pathology in this thoracic radiograph. (small animal medicine)

A
208
Q

Identify the pathology in this thoracic radiograph. (small animal medicine)

A
209
Q

Identify the pathology in this thoracic radiograph. (small animal medicine)

A
210
Q

Identify the pathology in this small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
211
Q

If your canine/feline patient is hypovolemic what would you expect to see on their thoracic radiograph?

A
212
Q

A caudal vena cava to aorta ratio that is greater than ___ suggests right sides heart disease.

A
213
Q

Identify the pathology in this small animal thoracic radiograph.

A
214
Q

List the structures of pulmonary interest when evaluating a thoracic radiograph in your small animal patient.

A
215
Q

Identify the different areas that make up the pulmonary portion of a thoracic radiograph.

A
216
Q

List the different pulmonary patterns that exist.

A
217
Q

What are your differentials for an interstitial pattern in the lungs? (small animal medicine)

A
218
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern.

A
219
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern.

A
220
Q

What are your differentials for a bronchial pattern in the lungs? (small animal medicine)

A
221
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern.

A
222
Q

What are your differentials for an alveolar pattern in the lungs? (small animal medicine)

A
223
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern.

A
224
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern.

A
225
Q

What are your differentials for a vascular pattern in the lungs? (small animal medicine)

A
226
Q

Identify the pathological lung pattern in this radiograph.

A
227
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
228
Q

What are some common tracheal pathologies we may see in our small animal thoracic radiographs?

A
229
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
230
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
231
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
232
Q

Describe e what pleural effusion looks like on thoracic radiographs.

A
233
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
234
Q

What does pericardial effusion look like on thoracic radiographs?

A
235
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
236
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
237
Q

In CV cases, should you routinely get 2 views or 3 views? (small animal medicine)

A
238
Q

In dogs and cats, a systolic blood pressure less than ___ mmHg is considered hypotension. A MAP of less than ___ mmHg is problematic.

A
239
Q

In most cats and dogs with chronic CHF, you want a BP grater than ___ mmHg.

A
240
Q

Dogs typically have a systolic blood pressure greater than __mmHg while cats have it less than ___ mmHg.

A
241
Q

How do we measure blood pressure in our small animal patients?

A
242
Q

What are some situations where we want to measure systemic blood pressure in our small animal patients?

A
243
Q

What is a cardiac biomarker?

A
244
Q

Name and describe the different leakage cardiac biomarkers in our small animal patients.

A
245
Q

Name and describe the different functional cardiac biomarkers in our small animal patients.

A
246
Q

Describe troponin I and troponin T as cardiac biomarkers in our small animal patients.

A
247
Q

Describe C-BNP as cardiac biomarkers in our small animal patients.

A
248
Q

Describe NT-proBNP as cardiac biomarkers in our small animal patients.

A
249
Q

____ testing can help differentiate if a cough is due to CHF or respiratory disease.

A
250
Q

BNP testing can help us identify animals with ___ heart disease.

A
251
Q

When should you use a SNAP NT-proBNP in cats?

A
252
Q

Natriuretic peptides are a _____, the gold standard remains _____.

A
253
Q

List the different kinds of echo modes we can use during echocardiography. (small animal medicine)

A
254
Q

What will you see on echo of a small animal patient with pericardial effusion?

A
255
Q

The left atrium MUST be enlarged in animals with _____.

A
256
Q

What are the goals of a focused echo exam in our small animal patient?

A
257
Q

How can we differentiate CHF for respiratory disease in dogs?

A
258
Q

How can we differentiate CHF for respiratory disease in cats?

A
259
Q

____ suggests there is active fluid accumulation (ascites, edema).

A
260
Q

Define left sided congestive heart failure.

A
261
Q

Define right sided congestive heart failure.

A
262
Q

Forward heart failure is synonymous with low ____.

A
263
Q

Describe Stage A heart disease according the the ACVIM/ECVIM stages of heart disease.

A
264
Q

Describe Stage B heart disease according the the ACVIM/ECVIM stages of heart disease.

A
265
Q

Describe Stage C heart disease according the the ACVIM/ECVIM stages of heart disease.

A
266
Q

Describe Stage D heart disease according the the ACVIM/ECVIM stages of heart disease.

A
267
Q

What are the most important tests/signs to confirm congestive heart failure? (small animal medicine)

A
268
Q

How do we pick drugs to treat heart disease in veterinary medicine?

A
269
Q

What are the most common causes of death in dogs and cats with CHF?

A
270
Q

What are the most common CHF drugs that we use in small animal medicine?

A
271
Q

Initial treatment for CHF in small animals includes a 4 drug regimen, what are they?

A
272
Q

Describe the use of furosemide in treating CHF in small animal patients.

A
273
Q

What are the side effects of furosemide? (small animal medicine)

A
274
Q

What are the different ways we use furosemide in our small animal patients with CHF?

A
275
Q

Describe the use of pimobendan in treating CHF. (small animal medicine)

A
276
Q

What are the possible side effects of pimobendan in small animal patients?

A
277
Q

Describe the use of pimobendan in cats.

A
278
Q

How do we use pimobendan off label? (small animal medicine)

A
279
Q

What positive effects do ACE inhibitors have in small animal patients?

A
280
Q

Why do we use ACE inhibitors in our small animal patients?

A
281
Q

What are the therapeutic recommendations for using ACE inhibitors? (small animal medicine)

A
282
Q

What are the possible side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A
283
Q

What are the side effects of spironolactone? (small animal medicine)

A
284
Q

What are the side effects of spironolactone? (small animal medicine)

A
285
Q

What are the side effects of spironolactone? (small animal medicine)

A
286
Q

What are the effects of benazepril and spironolactone? (small animal medicine)

A
287
Q

When is a thoracentesis indicated?

A
288
Q

When is an abdominocentesis indicated? (small animal medicine)

A
289
Q

What should our dietary recommendations be in our patients with CHF? (small animal medicine)

A
290
Q

When should we recommend exercise restriction in our small animal patients with CHF?

A
291
Q

What are some reasons to recurrent CHF in our small animal patients?

A
292
Q

Describe the different antiarrythmic drugs based on the Vaughan-Williams classification. (small animal medicine)

A
293
Q

____ is a cardiac glycoside that is used as an antiarrhythmic drug in small animal medicine.

A

Digitalis

294
Q

Describe class 1A antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
295
Q

Describe class 1B antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
296
Q

Describe class 1B antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
297
Q

Describe class 1C antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
298
Q

Describe the clinical use of lidocaine in small animal medicine.

A
299
Q

Describe the clinical use of mexiletine in small animal medicine.

A
300
Q

Describe the clinical use of quinidine in small animal medicine.

A
301
Q

Describe the clinical use of procainamide in small animal medicine.

A
302
Q

List the different class II antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
303
Q

Describe the clinical use of class II antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine.

A
304
Q

What are the side effects of class II antiarrhythmic drugs? (small animal medicine)

A
305
Q

What are the different class III antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine? What are they used for?

A
306
Q

What are the different class IV antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine?

A
307
Q

What are the clinical uses class IV antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine?

A
308
Q

What are the side effects of class IV antiarrhythmic drugs used in small animal medicine?

A
309
Q

What is digitalize glycoside used for in small animal medicine? What are its two main effects?

A
310
Q

What ECG changes would you expect to see in your small animal patient treated with digitalis?

A
311
Q

What are the signs of digitalis intoxication in small animals?

A
312
Q

How do we monitor digoxin concentrations in our small animal patients?

A
313
Q

What are the potential effects of cardiac arrhythmias in our small animal patients?

A
314
Q

Describe what a sinus rhythm looks like on ECG. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
315
Q

Describe what a sinus arrhythmia looks like on ECG. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
316
Q

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
317
Q

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
318
Q

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
319
Q

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
320
Q

Identify the rhythm. What is the treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
321
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
322
Q

What are the different treatment options for supraventricular tachycardia? (small animal medicine)

A
323
Q

Describe the use of vagal maneuver to correct an arrhythmia. (small animal medicine)

A
324
Q

What is the main indication for diltizem? What are the side effects? (small animal medicine)

A
325
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
326
Q

How does the presence or absence of heart disease affect our treatment for atrial fibrillation in our small animal patients?

A
327
Q

What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation if there is significant heart disease? (small animal medicine)

A
328
Q

What is the optional heart rate during atrial fibrillation? (small animal medicine)

A
329
Q

What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation if there is no significant heart disease? (small animal medicine)

A
330
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
331
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
332
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
333
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
334
Q

How do we manage ventricular arrhythmias in the short term and the long term? (small animal medicine)

A
335
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it need treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
336
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it need treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
337
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it need treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
338
Q

What are the indications for defibrillation in our small animal patients?

A
339
Q

What is defibrillation?

A
340
Q

Defibrillation chances of restoring a pulse decrease rapidly with ____.

A
341
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
342
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
343
Q

What is the treatment for sick sinus syndrome? (small animal medicine)

A
344
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
345
Q

What are the causes of atrial standstill? (small animal medicine)

A
346
Q

What are the treatment options for atrial standstill in our small animal patients?

A
347
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it require treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
348
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it require treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
349
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
350
Q

Identify the rhythm, does it require treatment? (small animal medicine)

A
351
Q

Identify the rhythm, is treatment required? (small animal medicine)

A
352
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
353
Q

Identify the rhythm. (small animal medicine)

A
354
Q

Identify the rhythm, is treatment required? (small animal medicine)

A
355
Q

What are the different therapeutic options for bradycardias? (small animal medicine)

A
356
Q

How would you preform an atropine response test?

A
357
Q

List the different kinds of cardiac pacemakers we have in small animal medicine.

A
358
Q

What do we know about the effects of pacemakers in our small animal patients?

A
359
Q

____ abounds to 5% of heart diseases in dogs and cats.

A

Congenital Heart disease

360
Q

What are the different congenial heart diseases we see in our small animal patients?

A
361
Q

What are the most common congenital heart diseases found in cats?

A
362
Q

What are the most common congenital heart diseases found in dogs?

A
363
Q

Describe your clinical approach to congenial heart disease. (small animal medicine)

A
364
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus? What are the outcomes?

A
365
Q

What clinical signs and history are most consistent with patent ductus arteriosus?

A
366
Q

What physical exam findings are most consistent with patent ductus arteriosus?

A
367
Q

What ECG findings are most consistent with patent ductus arteriosus?

A
368
Q

What thoracic radiographic findings are most consistent with patent ductus arteriosus?

A
369
Q

What are the minimally invasive treatment options for patent ductus arteriosus? (small animal medicine)

A
370
Q

Describe a thoracotomy as a treatment option for patent ductus arteriosus.

A
371
Q

Compare and contrast the different treatment options for patent ductus arteriosus.

A
372
Q

What is pulmonic stenosis? What are the consequences? (small animal medicine)

A
373
Q

List some canine breeds that are predisposed to pulmonic stenosis.

A
374
Q

Describe the clinical signs and history consistent with pulmonic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
375
Q

Describe the physical exam findings consistent with pulmonic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
376
Q

Describe the thoracic radiographic findings consistent with pulmonic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
377
Q

Describe the different Doppler gradients we may see in pulmonic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
378
Q

What are the classical findings in a dog/cat with pulmonic stenosis?

A
379
Q

Describe the use of a balloon valvuloplasty for pulmonic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
380
Q

Describe aortic stenosis in our small animal patients.

A
381
Q

Describe subvalvular aortic stenosis in our small animal patients.

A
382
Q

What are some of the canine breeds predisposed to subaortic stenosis?

A
383
Q

Describe the clinical signs and history consistent with subaortic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
384
Q

Describe the physical exam findings consistent with subaortic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
385
Q

Describe the ECG findings consistent with subaortic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
386
Q

Describe the thoracic radiographic signs consistent with subaortic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
387
Q

Describe the different Doppler gradients we can see with subaortic stenosis. (small animal medicine)

A
388
Q

What are the treatment options for subaortic stenosis? (small animal medicine)

A
389
Q

What are the classical findings for a dog/cat with subaortic stenosis?

A
390
Q

How can we use OFA screening to help diagnose early subaortic stenosis? (small animal medicine)

A
391
Q

What is a ventricular septal defect? (small animal medicine?

A
392
Q

What are the consequences of a ventricular septal defect? What canine breeds are predisposed?

A

.

393
Q

What physical exam findings are most consistent with a ventricular septal defects? (small animal medicine)

A
394
Q

What ECG findings are most consistent with a ventricular septal defects? (small animal medicine)

A
395
Q

What thoracic radiographic findings are most consistent with a ventricular septal defects? (small animal medicine)

A
396
Q

What are the different therapeutic options for ventricular septal defects in cats/dogs?

A
397
Q

What are the classification findings for a dog/cat with a ventricular septal defect?

A
398
Q

What is an atrium septal defect? What breeds are predisposed? (small animal medicine)

A
399
Q

What canine breeds are predisposed to an atrial septal defect?

A
400
Q

What auscultation findings would you expect in a dog with an atrial septal defect?

A
401
Q

What is AV valve dysplasia? (small animal medicine)

A
402
Q

What are the cardiac consequences of AV valve dysplasia? (small animal medicine)

A
403
Q

List some of the the defects associated with right to left shunting and cyanosis. (small animal medicine)

A
404
Q

What are some problems associated with right to left shunting? (small animal medicine)

A
405
Q

What are the 4 pathologies that make up tetrology of fallot? (small animal medicine)

A
406
Q

What are the classical findings of a dog/cat with tetralogy of fallot?

A
407
Q

What are the consequences of right to left VSD? (small animal medicine)

A
408
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome? (small animal medicine)

A
409
Q

Describe Cor Triatriatum Dexter in dogs.

A
410
Q

Describe Cor Triatriatum Sinister in cats.

A
411
Q

Describe supravalvular mitral stenosis in cats.

A