Small Animal Medicine Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

For animals with GI signs, getting a good history is of the utmost importance to get on the correct diagnostic path. What are some questions you should be asking your clients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define dysphasia. List some common causes.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neurogenic dysphagia can be categorized as ____, ____, or ____.

A

Prehensile, pharyngeal, or cricopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is prehensile neurogenic dysphagia?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pharyngeal and cricopharyngal dysfunction/dysphasia usually result in _____.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define halitosis. List some common causes.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differentiate between ptyalism and pseudopytalism.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differentiate between vomiting and regurgitation.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can we use nausea, retching, the presence of bile, and pH to differentiate between vomiting and regurgitation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Vomiting is most commonly associated with which other clinical manifestations?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Regurgitation paired with dysphagia should lead to explore for ___ disease.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Regurgitation without dysphagia should lead to explore for ___ disease. List some examples.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is expectoration?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is hematemesis?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is diarrhea? List some different causes for acute and chronic diarrhea.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe small intestinal diarrhea in terms of weight loss, polyphagia, frequency of vowel movements, volume of feces, blood in feces, mucus in feces, tenesmsus, and vomiting.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe large intestinal diarrhea in terms of weight loss, polyphagia, frequency of vowel movements, volume of feces, blood in feces, mucus in feces, tenesmsus, and vomiting.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List some common causes of chronic large intestinal diarrhea.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

____ is considered normal on the purina fecal score.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is hematochezia? What is it associated with?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is melena? What is it associated with?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define tenesmus.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define dyschezia.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is constipation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is obstipation?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is fecal incontinence? List some common causes.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the different GI related etiologies of weight loss?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anorexia and hyporexia are common findings in GI disease. Differentiate between the two.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does abdominal pain look like in the small animal patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an acute abdomen? List some causes.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

List some different causes of abdominal enlargement in the small animal patient.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is this?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What individual organ s should you be able top identify on abdominal palpation of the dog?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What individual organs should you be able top identify on abdominal palpation of the cat?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How can we increase our visualization of the base of the cat tongue to assess for linear foreign bodies?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A complete physical exam in the dog includes a rectal palpation. What structures should you be able to palpate?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the value of a minimum database for a small animal patient with GI related clinical signs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe the value of a fecal parasite test for a small animal patient with GI related clinical signs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the value of a bacterial fecal culture for a small animal patient with GI related clinical signs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the value of an ELISA/IFA/PCR fecal analysis for a small animal patient with GI related clinical signs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the use of ELISA testing to diagnose parvovirus.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Describe the use of ELISA-SNAP testing to diagnose giardia.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the value of a fecal cytology for a small animal patient with GI related clinical signs.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Identify the pathogen found on a fecal cytology.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Identify the pathogen found on a fecal cytology.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Identify the pathogen found on a fecal cytology.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How do we use serum gastrin as a diagnostic test for GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How do we use Helicobacter testing as a diagnostic test for GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do we use fecal alpha-1 protease inhibitor as a diagnostic test for GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

We use _____ to diagnose EPI.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

We use ____ to diagnose pancreatitis.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

We use _____ to evaluate/diagnose bacterial overgrowth and intestinal disease.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

____ and ____ are two different ways we can use radiography to diagnose GI diseases.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List the contraindications for a GI barium study in a small animal patient.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is your top differential for this patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe how we use ultrasonography to diagnose GI disease.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Differentiate between a rigid and flexible endoscope and their usefulness as a diagnostic test for a patient with GI disease.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the pros to using endoscopy/colonoscopy to diagnose GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the cons to using endoscopy/colonoscopy to diagnose GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the two main goals (general) of a laparotomy in a patient with GI disease?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Fluids should never be administered _____ since it can cause ____.

A

Intraperitoneal ; peritonitis (also takes 24-48hrs to absorb)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What distribution of total body water can be found intracellular, extracellular, interstitial and intravascular?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

We use fluids in patients with GI disease to address ____, ____, and ____.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

_____ such as ____ are known to correct acid-base deficits faster than acidifying fluids like _____.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

_____ is a common pathology in chronic GIT disease. How do we address it with fluid therapy?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Differentiate between enteral, parenteral, and SQ fluid administration.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How do we determine the rate at which to administer fluids to our small animal patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Daily crystalloid fluids should be calculated based on ____, ____, and ____.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does 5-6% dehydration look like clinically?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does 7-8% dehydration look like clinically?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does 9-10% dehydration look like clinically?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How do we calculate fluid deficit in L?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the fluid maintenance needs for a canine or feline patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How do we calculate ongoing losses as it relates to vomiting or diarrhea?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the appropriate rates for initial resuscitation boluses in canine and feline patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If your patient is anorexic or not eating enough, you can prevent hypokalemia by supplement KCl in their fluids. However, you should not add more than ___.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are some foods that we consider bland and easily digestible for our small animal patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Describe hypoallergenic dietary management for GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the indications for an ultra low fat diet for a GI patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the indications for a low fat diet for a GI patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When and why would you consider fiber supplementation in a GI patient?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Differentiate between soluble and insoluble fiber.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How do we calculate basal energy requirements and maintenance energy requirements for our small animal patients?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  • Use 1.5 as your adjustment factor
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In addition to adjusting the diet, how else can we modify the diet our of GI patients to encourage them to eat?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

List the different therapeutics we use as appetite stimulates in our canine and feline patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Differentiate between enteral nutrition and tube feeding.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Differentiate between total parental nutrition and partial parental nutrition.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

List some of the different peripherally acting antiemetics we use in our GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

List some of the different centrally acting antiemetics we use in our GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Why do we use antacids? List the major categories.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

List the different acid titrating antacid drugs we use in our GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

List the different H2 blocker antacid drugs we use in our GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

List the different proton pump inhibitors antacid drugs we use in our GI patients.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Why do we use intestinal protectants in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Why do we use pancreatic enzyme supplements in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Why do we use motility modifiers in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Why do we use anti-inflammatory or anti-secretory drugs in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Why do we use immunosuppressive therapies in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Why do we use antibacterials in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

We use a combination of ____, ____, and _____ for symptomatic Helicobacter gastritis.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Differentiate between a probiotic and prebiotic.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Why do we use enema, laxatives, and cathartics in our GI patients? List the ones we most commonly use.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is gingivitis/periodontitis? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is a sialocele? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

List the most common benign neoplasias of the canine oral cavity.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

List the most common malignant neoplasias of the canine oral cavity.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How do we diagnose, stage, and treat oral neoplasia in the canine oral cavity?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are some of the different oral neoplasms we may find in the feline oral cavity? Which is most common?

A
122
Q
A
123
Q

Describe the etiology, lesions, diagnosis, and treatment of feline eosinophilic granulomas.

A
124
Q

When it comes to eosinophilic granuloma complex, you should always think of the cause as ____ or ____.

A
125
Q

What are some of the causes of primary and secondary stomatitis?

A
126
Q

What is the etiology of feline lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis?

A
127
Q

How do we diagnose and treat feline lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis?

A
128
Q

Describe masticatory muscle myositis as a potential causative agent of dysphasia.

A
129
Q

Describe cricopharyngeal achalasia/dysfunction as a potential causative agent of dysphasia.

A
130
Q

What is the etiology, clinical signs, diagnosis, and treatment for pharyngeal dysphasia?

A
131
Q

What is the etiology, clinical signs, and diagnostic tests for congenital megaesophagus?

A
132
Q

What is the treatment for congenital megaesophagus? What secondary complication is the primary cause of death for these patients?

A
133
Q
A
134
Q

What are the different etiologies of acquire megaesophagus? How do we diagnose it?

A
135
Q

How do we treat acquire megaesophagus? What secondary complication is the leading cause of death for these patients?

A
136
Q

What is the etiology of esophagitis?

A
137
Q

What are the clinical signs of esophagitis? How do we diagnose it?

A
138
Q

How do we treat esophagitis?

A
139
Q

Esophageal stricture is a possibility for up to ___ following an anesthetic/intubation event.

A
140
Q

Describe a hiatal hernia as an esophageal pathology.

A
141
Q

Describe dysautonomia as an esophageal pathology.

A
142
Q

What is happening in this radiograph?

A
143
Q

What is a vascular ring anomaly? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
144
Q

Identify the pathology in this radiograph.

A
145
Q

Identify the pathology.

A
146
Q
A
147
Q

Describe the prevalence, clinical signs, sequelae, and diagnose of an esophageal foreign body.

A
148
Q

What are the most common locations for an esophageal foreign body?

A
149
Q

What is the treatment for an esophageal foreign body?

A
150
Q

What are your differentials for this patient?

A
151
Q

What is esophageal cicatrix? What is the most common clinical sign and how do we diagnose it?

A
152
Q

How do we treat esophageal cicatrix?

A
153
Q

What are the most common esophageal neoplasms seen in the dog?

A
154
Q

What are the most common esophageal neoplasms seen in the cat?

A
155
Q

How do we diagnose and treat esophagus neoplasms in our canine and feline patients?

A
156
Q

Identify the anatomy of the stomach.

A
157
Q

Identify the anatomy of the stomach.

A
158
Q

What key clinical pathology findings would you expect to find in a patient with chronic vomiting versus chronic diarrhea?

A
159
Q

Gastritis is a diagnosis of ____. What are the different kinds of gastritis we will encounter clinically?

A
160
Q

Describe the prevalence and causes of acute gastritis.

A
161
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute gastritis? How do we diagnose it?

A
162
Q

When should we consider acute gastritis more severe and pursue intestinal treatment?

A
163
Q

What is the treatment for acute gastritis?

A
164
Q

Describe the prevalence and key clinical signs/signalment relative to acute hemorrhagic diarrhea syndrome/

A
165
Q

How do we diagnose AHDS/HGE?

A
166
Q

How do we treat AHDS/HGE?

A
167
Q

What is chronic gastritis? What is the most common clinical sign?

A
168
Q

How do we diagnose chronic gastritis?

A
169
Q

What are your differentials for a patient with chronic gastritis?

A
170
Q

How do we use dietary management and supportive therapeutics to treat chronic gastritis?

A
171
Q

How do we diagnose and treat Helicobacter-associated disease?

A
172
Q

What are the different causes of gastric outflow obstructions?

A
173
Q

Describe the causes, risk factors, and clinical signs of pyloric stenosis.

A
174
Q

How do we diagnose and treat pyloric stenosis?

A
175
Q

Describe the prevalence and most common clinical sign of gastric foreign bodies.

A
176
Q

How do we diagnose gastric foreign bodies?

A
177
Q

What is the treatment for gastric foreign bodies?

A
178
Q

What are the risk factors for a GDV?

A
179
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of a GDV.

A
180
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
181
Q

Identify the anatomy.

A
182
Q

Identify the radiographic pathology.

A
183
Q

How do we diagnose a GDV?

A
184
Q

A ___ rotations (GDV) is the most common.

A
185
Q

What is the treatment for a GDV?

A
186
Q

What should we monitor for in our GDV patients post-operatively?

A
187
Q

Describe the cause, clinical signs, diagnosis, and treatment for bilious vomiting syndrome.

A
188
Q

What are the different etiologies of gastrointestinal ulceration/erosion?

A
189
Q

What are the clinical signs of GI ulcers/erosions?

A
190
Q

How do we diagnose gastrointestinal ulceration/erosion?

A
191
Q

What would you expect to find on the abdominal ultrasound of a patient with GI ulcers?

A
192
Q

What is the treatment for GI ulcers?

A
193
Q

How do we prevent GI ulcers?

A
194
Q

What is the most common gastric neoplasia in the dog? What about the cat?

A
195
Q

What are the clinical signs of gastric neoplasias?

A
196
Q

How do we diagnose gastric neoplasia?

A
197
Q

What would you expect to find on the CBC of a patient with gastric neoplasia?

A
198
Q

What is the treatment for gastric neoplasia?

A
199
Q
A
200
Q
A
201
Q
A
202
Q

What is the etiology of acute enteritis?

A
203
Q

What are the clinical signs of acute enteritis?

A
204
Q

How do we diagnose acute enteritis?

A
205
Q

What are the general treatment options for acute enteritis?

A
206
Q

How do we modify diet to treat acute enteritis?

A
207
Q

What is the etiology of dietary induced acute diarrhea?

A
208
Q

What are the clinical signs of dietary induced acute diarrhea?

A
209
Q

How do we diagnose and treat dietary induced acute diarrhea?

A
210
Q

What is the etiology of canine parvovirus?

A
211
Q

What is the most common cause of canine parvovirus infections? What breeds are most susceptible?

A
212
Q

What are the clinical signs of canine parvovirus?

A
213
Q

How do we diagnose canine parvovirus?

A
214
Q
A
215
Q

What is the canine parvovirus monoclonal antibody?

A
216
Q

What are some common therapeutic mistakes when it comes to treating GI disease?

A
217
Q

In addition to canine parvovirus, what are some other causative agents of viral diarrhea?

A
218
Q

List three bacterial causes of diarrhea.

A
219
Q

List two fungal causes of diarrhea.

A
220
Q

Describe Campylobacter as a causative agent of bacterial diarrhea. What are the clinical signs? How is it diagnosed and treated?

A
221
Q

Describe salmonella as a causative agent of bacterial diarrhea. How is it spread? What are the clinical signs and treatment?

A
222
Q

Describe clostridium disease as a causative agent of diarrhea. What are the clinical signs? How do we diagnose it?

A
223
Q

How do we treat clostridial diarrhea?

A
224
Q

Describe histoplasmosis as it affects dogs and cats. What systems does it primarily attack?

A
225
Q

How do we diagnose and treat diarrhea secondary to histoplasmosis?

A
226
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
227
Q

What are the clinical signs of whipworms? How do we diagnose and treat them?

A
228
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
229
Q

What are the clinical signs of roundworms? How do we diagnose and treat them?

A
230
Q

Describe the public health concern relative to roundworms.

A
231
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
232
Q

What are the clinical signs of hookworms? How do we diagnose and treat them?

A
233
Q

Describe the public health concern when it coms to hookworms.

A
234
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
235
Q

What are the clinical signs of tapeworms? How do we diagnose and treat them?

A
236
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
237
Q

What are the clinical signs of coccidiosis? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
238
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
239
Q

What are the clinical signs of cryptosporidia? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
240
Q

Identify the parasites.

A
241
Q

Identify the parasites.

A
242
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
243
Q

What are the clinical signs of giardiasis? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
244
Q

Identify the organism (common and scientific name).

A
245
Q

What are the clinical signs of trichomoniasis? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
246
Q

Identify the parasites.

A
247
Q

Describe the etiology and clinical signs of EPI.

A
248
Q

How do we diagnose EPI?

A
249
Q

Describe the etiology, clinical signs, and diagnosis of dietary responsive diarrhea.

A
250
Q

What is the treatment for dietary responsive diarrhea?

A
251
Q

What is the etiology of ARE/dysbiosis?

A
252
Q

What are the clinical signs of ARE?dysbiosis? How do we diagnose it?

A
253
Q

What is the treatment for ARE/dysbiosis?

A
254
Q

Describe the relationship between dietary responsive diarrhea and ARE.

A
255
Q

What is the definitive sequence fr therapeutic trails for patients with chronic enteropathies?

A
256
Q

What is the etiology of IBD?

A
257
Q

What are the clinical signs of IBD? How do we diagnose it?

A
258
Q

How do we treat IBD in dogs?

A
259
Q

How do we treat IBD in cats?

A
260
Q

What is the etiology of intestinal lymphangectasia? What breeds are most susceptible?

A
261
Q

What are the clinical signs of intestinal lymphangectasia? How do we diagnose and treat it?

A
262
Q

List some of the different kinds of intestinal obstructions we may find in our small animal patients.

A
263
Q

How do we determine in the small intestine is distended in the radiograph of a canine abdomen?

A
264
Q

How do we determine if the small intestine is distended in the radiograph of a feline abdomen?

A
265
Q

Where is an intussusception most likely to occur in the GIT? What patients is it most likely to occur in a what are the clinical signs?

A
266
Q

Identify the different layers of the intestine.

A
267
Q

If you see this sign on ultrasound, it is indicative of an ______.

A

Intusussception

268
Q

What are some different causes of large intestinal inflammation in our small animal patients?

A
269
Q

What are the different causes, clinical signs, diagnosis, and treatments for acute colitis?

A
270
Q

What are the etiologies, diagnostic tools, and treatments for chronic colitis?

A
271
Q

What is this and why does it happen?

A
272
Q

What is the treatment for a rectal prolapse?

A
273
Q

What is this?

A
274
Q
A
275
Q

What is this?

A
276
Q

What is anal sacculitis? How do we treat it?

A
277
Q

What are the different types of neoplasias we commonly find in the small intestines?

A
278
Q

What are the different types of neoplasias we commonly find in the large intestines?

A
279
Q

What are some different causes of constipation?

A
280
Q

Identify the main pathology in this radiograph.

A
281
Q

Identify the main pathology in this radiograph.

A
282
Q

What is the treatment for constipation?

A
283
Q

Septic peritonitis is usually caused by _____.

A
284
Q

What are the most common causes of septic peritonitis in the dog?

A
285
Q

List some of the most common organisms associated with secondary septic peritonitis.

A
286
Q

What are the most common causes of septic peritonitis in the cat?

A
287
Q

What are the causes/etiologies of primary (spontaneous) bacterial peritonitis in dogs and cats?

A
288
Q

When would you expect to see post operative peritonitis clinically? What are some risk factors?

A
289
Q

What are the clinical signs of septic peritonitis?

A
290
Q

How do we diagnose septic peritonitis?

A
291
Q

Identify the main pathology in this radiograph.

A
292
Q

Identify the main pathology in this radiograph.

A
293
Q

Identify the main pathology.

A
294
Q

What would you expect to see on cytology of abdominal fluid from a patient with septic peritonitis?

A
295
Q

What is the treatment for primary bacterial peritonitis (PBP)?

A
296
Q

What is the treatment for secondary (septic) peritonitis?

A
297
Q

What is a hemoabdomen? What are some causes?

A
298
Q

The number one cause of nontraumatic hemoabdomens is _____.

A

Neoplasia (hemangiosarcomas)

299
Q

Describe hemangiosarcomas as a causative agent of hemoabdomens.

A
300
Q

What is abdominal carcinomatosis? What is the primary complaint/clinical sign and cause?

A
301
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis for abdominal carcinomatosis?

A