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VPH > Slaughter 2 > Flashcards

Slaughter 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does a health mark signify?

A

That food has been produced to current standards of hygienic food production in licensed premises and allows food to be traced back to those premises

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2
Q

On what products is a health mark required?

A

All animal products for human consumption e.g. milk

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3
Q

What information is included on a health mark?

A
  • Country
  • Producer
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4
Q

Who has the responsibility for the health, welfare and food hygiene in the slaughterhouse?

A

The processing company

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5
Q

What is the Clean Livestock Policy?

A
  • Policy that applies to sheep and cattle

- Ensures farmer has the responsibility to bring only clean and dry animals to slaughter

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6
Q

What happens to animals that are identified as not fit for slaughter on AMI?

A

Are killed but disposed of as ABP

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7
Q

What are the requirements regarding slaughter of TB reactors?

A
  • Must be sent to specific approved slaughterhouses
  • Following their slaughter need to clean and disinfect the processing area
  • Place at end of processing line
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8
Q

Outline the responsibilities of the FBO

A
  • Ensure all animals presented to OV
  • Ensure only healthy animals accepted for human slaughter
  • Identification of animals (match to passports and FCI)
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9
Q

Why can animals that are DOA not enter the human food chain?

A

No AMI was carried out

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10
Q

What are the requirements to enable animals to be accepted into the slaughterhouse?

A
  • Proper ID
  • Accompanied by relevant information
  • No movement restrictions (unless permitted by Competent Authority)
  • Clean and healthy
  • Satisfactory welfare
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11
Q

What must be done if requirements for entry into slaughterhouse are not met?

A
  • FBO must notify OV

- Use isolation facilities for suspect animals

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12
Q

What are the roles of the OV in the slaughterhouse?

A
  • Verify FBO compliance
  • AMI
  • PMI in certain conditions
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13
Q

How is cleanliness of animals assessed in slaughterhouses?

A
  • Visual inspection

- Categorised 1-5

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14
Q

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 1 cleanliness animal

A
  • Dry, clean with regard to dung/dirt
  • Very minor amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
  • Accepted for slaughter without any special treatment
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15
Q

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 2 cleanliness animal

A
  • Slightly dirty, dry/damp
  • Light contamination with dirt/dung
  • Small amounts of loosely adherent straw/bedding
  • Accepted for slaughter without special treatment
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16
Q

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 3 cleanliness animal

A
  • Dirty
  • Dry/damp
  • Significant contamination with dirt/dung
  • Significant amounts of adherent straw/bedding
  • rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare grounds, disease control reasons
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17
Q

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 4 cleanliness animal

A
  • Very dirty
  • Dry/damp
  • Heavily contaminated with dirt/dung
  • Significant amounts of adherent bedding
  • Should not enter production line
  • Rejected for slaughter except in exceptional circumstances e.g. animal welfare disease control reasons
  • May have procedures in place to allow slaughter e.g. placing last in slaughter line, slow line to allow staff cleaning between animals, minimise splashing
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18
Q

Describe the appearance and consequences for a category 5 cleanliness animal

A
  • Filthy, wet
  • Very heavy contamination with dirt/dung
  • Lots of adherent bedding
  • Rejected for slaughter, should not be unloaded and sent back to farm, should not have been sent to slaughter
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19
Q

What are the aims of AMI?

A
  • Establish fitness for human consumption
  • Notifiable disease surveillance
  • Animal welfare monitoring
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20
Q

What happens if notifiable disease or welfare issue on farm is suspected?

A

APHA informed

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21
Q

What happens if welfare issue during transport is suspected?

A

Trading Standards Agency informed

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22
Q

What is required by the OV in order to carry out the AMI effectively?

A
  • Light
  • Space
  • Facilities
  • Assistance
  • Time
  • Proper equipment (PPE, torch, thermometer, stethoscope)
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23
Q

Give 4 examples of notifiable diseases that may be identified on AMI in cattle

A
  • Anthrax
  • Aujeszky’s
  • BSE
  • Bluetongue
  • Brucellosis
  • Enzootic bovine leukosis
  • FMD
  • Lumpy skin disease
  • Rift valley fever
  • Rinderpest
  • bTB
  • Vesicular stomatitis
  • Warble fly
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24
Q

Outline the considerations when pneumonia is suspected on AMI

A
  • In cow: discharge from nostrils, foaming at mouth
  • Some respiratory distress
  • Should not have been transported
  • Withdrawal period from drugs a concern
  • Emaciation may occur with systemic disease
  • May have had special certification to allow travel
  • First in line to minimise standing time
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25
Q

Outline the considerations following finding of ringworm on AMI

A
  • Common in cattle
  • Only an issue as potential zoonotic infection via contact
  • Nothing of major concern on AMI
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26
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of orf on AMI

A
  • Zoonotic by contact
  • Extensive/advanced disease highlights welfare issue on farm
  • Likely to be associated with emaciated animal
  • Report to APHA and trading standards if extensive and causing welfare issue
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27
Q

Outline considerations followig sudden death at slaughterhouse

A
  • Anthrax
  • May also be electrocution, clostridial disease
  • May be zoonotic
  • Report to APHA
  • Blood test from ear
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28
Q

What test is used to identify anthrax?

A

Staining of blood sample with polychromemethylene blue (violet pink surrounded by pink halo indicates anthrax)

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29
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of ulcerations and degeneration of tissue in the mouth of cattle/sheep on AMI

A
  • Potentially FMD
  • Notify APHA
  • Sheep lesions not as evident as in cattle
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30
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of ulcerations in pigs mouth/snout

A
  • Could be FMD or vesicular disease
  • Appear the same clinical
  • Notify APHA
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31
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of neurological signs on AMI

A
  • Scrapie/BSE potential, notify APHA
  • Also trading standards as should not have been transported
  • Potential for Listeria (zoonotic)
  • Aujeszky’s disease (exotic to UK, notify APHA)
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32
Q

Describe the clinical signs of Listeria

A
  • Abortion at end of pregnancy
  • Paralysis
  • Salivation
  • Tongue out to side of mouth
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33
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of lesions in mouth, swollen tongue and haemorrhage under the skin on AMI

A
  • Bluetongue potential

- Most signs are non-pathognomic so need to consider time of year and place of origin

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34
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of Actinomyces on AMI

A
  • Can lead to emaciation
  • Welfare issue
  • Potentially zoonotic
  • Only head needs to be rejected
  • No need to notify APHA and Trading standards
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35
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of emaciation on AMI

A
  • Unfit for slaughter, rejection

- Potential referral to APHA and Trading Standards (welfare issue)

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36
Q

Outline the considerations following identification of a severely lame animal on AMI

A
  • Kill in situe, cannot be moved to stunning box
  • Contact APHA and Trading standards
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37
Q

Outline the consideration following identification of abnormal growths/malformations on AMI

A
  • If able to stand/walk independently and no signs of generalised infection, refer to APHA after death of animal for investigation
  • Slaughter permitted with partial rejection where no signs of systemic infection
  • Where systemic infection indicated, entire carcass rejection
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38
Q

What is the purpose of the PMI?

A
  • Supplement AMI
  • Detect diseases, residues, contaminant
  • Identification of other conditions rendering unfit for human consumption
  • Animal welfare
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39
Q

What legislation pertains to PMI?

A
  • EC 853/2004 (FBO standards)

- EC 854/2004 (purpose, procedures, decisions)

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40
Q

Who is the PMI carried out by?

A
  • FBO
  • MHI
  • OV in special circumstances
41
Q

In what circumstances may an OV carry out the PMI?

A
  • Emergency slaughter
  • Unusual conditions
  • Where contacted by MHI during PMI
42
Q

What are the broad features of the PMI?

A
  • Individual inspection of
  • Head (cattle only)
  • Offal (spit into green and red)
  • Carcass
43
Q

What is included in “green” offal?

A

Intestines and stomach

44
Q

What is included in “red” offal?

A

Lungs, heart, liver

45
Q

What should be taken into account during a PMI?

A
  • AMI results
  • All external surfaces
  • FCI
  • Whole carcass and accompanying offal
46
Q

What are the potential outcomes of the PMI?

A
  • Pass meat as fit for human consumption
  • Declare meat unfit for human consumption
  • detain meat for further examination following rectification (trimming, removal of unsuitable parts)
47
Q

When should the PMI take place?

A

Should take place without delay after slaughter

48
Q

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there is history of recent illness?

A
  • Evidence of generalised disease = condemned
  • Evidence of localised disease = trimmed
  • No evidence of disease = passed
49
Q

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there is history of recent medication?

A
  • Positive residue test = condemned

- Negative residue test = passed

50
Q

What are the potential outcomes of a PMI where there are signs indicative of localised disease condition?

A
  • Evidence of localised disease condition = trimmed

- No evidence of localised disease = passed

51
Q

What is assessed on PMI?

A
  • Age and sex of animal
  • State of nutrition
  • Efficacy of bleeding
  • Colour
  • Smell
  • Obvious other abnormalities
52
Q

What conditions of the head in cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

A
  • Cysticercus bovis
  • Hydatid cysts
  • Contamination
  • Other
53
Q

What conditions of the offal of cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Pleurisy
  • Lungworm
  • Liver abscesses
  • Fluke (immature and mature)
  • Hepatic scarring
  • Cysticercus bovis
  • Hydatid cysts
  • Traumatic pericarditis
  • Contamination
  • Other
54
Q

What conditions of the carcass of cattle lead to partial rejection on PMI?

A
  • Localised abscesses (neck, fore/hindquarter)
  • Cysticercus bovis
  • Joint lesion (incl arthritis)
  • Bruising
  • Hydatid cysts
  • Contamination
  • Other
55
Q

What conditions of lead to total rejection of cattle on PMI?

A
  • Oedema/emaciation
  • Generalised TB
  • Pyaemia/multiple abscesses
  • Septicaemia/fever
  • Hydatidosis
  • Jaundice
  • Naval/joint ill in young animals
  • Abnormal odour
  • Uraemia
  • Cysticercus bovis
  • Less than 7 days old
  • Contamination
  • Other
56
Q

What parts of cattle must be inspected on PMI?

A
  • Head
  • Offal
  • Carcass
57
Q

What conditions of offal in sheep and goats on PMI lead to partial rejection?

A
  • Pneumonia, (defined as Mycoplasma like/Pasteruella like on report)
  • Lung abscesses
  • Lung worm
  • Hydatid cysts
  • Fluke (mature/immature)
  • Cysticercus tenuicolls
  • Historic scarring
  • Cysticercus ovis
  • Contamination
  • Other
58
Q

What conditions of the carcass of sheep/goats on PMI lead to partial rejection?

A
  • Abscesses (neck/forequarter/hindquarter)
  • Bruising (traumatic/wool pull)
  • Joint lesions
  • Cysticercus ovis
  • Hydatid cysts
  • Contamination
  • Other
59
Q

What conditions of sheep/goat carcasses on PMI lead to total rejection?

A
  • Septicaemia/fever
  • Jaundice
  • Contamination
  • Cysticercus ovis (generalised)
  • Hydatidosis
  • Emaciation/generalised oedema
  • Multiple abscesses/pyaemia
  • Generalised tuberculosis
  • Polyarthritis
  • Contamination
  • Other
60
Q

Why is the head of pigs not removed for PMI?

A
  • Greatest risk to humans from pork consumption is Salmonella/Yersinia
  • Present in lymph nodes of most pigs (incl. healthy)
  • Removing head for inspection would open these and present contamination risk
61
Q

What conditions of the offal of pigs on PMI would lead to partial rejection?

A
  • Milk spots (Ascaris suum)
  • Peritonitis
  • Pleurisy visceral
  • Pneumonia (mild/severe on report)
  • endocarditis
  • Kidney lesions
  • Pericarditis
  • Abscesses (single/multiple on report)
  • Contamination
  • Other
62
Q

What conditions of the carcass of pigs on PMI lead to partial rejection?

A
  • Joint lesions (single/multiple on report)
  • Abscesses (single/multiple on report)
  • Tail bite
  • Papular dermatitis
  • Erysipelas
  • Pleurisy (parietal/visceral on report)
  • Fight marks
  • Contamination
  • Other
63
Q

What conditions of pigs lead to total rejection of the carcass on PMI?

A
  • Pyaemia/multiple abscesses (+/- tail bite on report)
  • Septic peritonitis and pleurisy
  • Polyarthritis
  • Emaciation/generalised oedema
  • Septic pleurisy
  • Processing fault
  • Badly bled
  • Anaemia
  • Fever/septicaemia/toxaemia
  • Jaundice
  • Cysticercus
  • Contamination
  • Other
64
Q

Other than rejection, what is a potential outcome of identification of emaciation on PMI?

A

May need reporting as welfare issue, especially if high number of flock affected

65
Q

Why is meat with melanosis rejected?

A

Does not present risk, but black meat is unappealing. May be partial or whole rejection depending on degree

66
Q

Why can actinomycosis lead to only partial rejection?

A
  • Is zoonotic but not as a food-borne pathogen

- Fit for slaughter, can go into human food chain with rejection of head alone

67
Q

What may abnormal retropharyngeal lymph nodes in cattle indicate and what are the consequences?

A
  • May indicate bovine TB
  • Need to sample and culture for M. bovis
  • This takes 2 months
  • If lesions are only in the lymph nodes of head, can go for human consumption with rejection of head, but if generalised then whole carcass is rejected
68
Q

What are the consequences of identification of enlarged intestinal lymph nodes in cattle?

A
  • Report to APHA as may be enzootic bovine leukosis
  • May also be Johne’s but this is only notifiable in NI
  • Whole carcass rejection
69
Q

What are the main implications of Fasciola hepatica infestation at slaughter?

A
  • No risk for human consumption, partial rejection
  • However feed conversion will have been poor and so is detrimental to farmer
  • May signify welfare issue
70
Q

What causes “shot-pellet” lesions in sheep lungs and what are the consequences at slaughter?

A
  • Muelleris capillaris parasitic infection

- No risk to human consumption

71
Q

What are the consequences of identification of fly strike on PMI?

A
  • If found out of season, in unusual location, on one animal only then reporting is not necessary
  • The affected region is trimmed and rest of carcass can go for human consumption
72
Q

What are the requirements for performing shechita?

A
  • Jewish religious slaughter
  • Must be Jewish
  • Must have licence from Rabbinical Commission for the Licensing of Shochetim
  • Perform with sharp knife severing the trachea and oesophagus
73
Q

What are the requirements for performing Halal slaughter?

A
  • Must be Muslim
  • Stunning disliked but can use low voltage shock
  • Severe trachea, oesophagus, and jugulars in single stroke
  • Some certification bodes require praying (not official control)
74
Q

What are the official control of religious slaughter?

A
  • Check method of slaughter
  • Law applies to animal welfare
  • Require mechanical restraints
  • Back up stunning method available
  • Certificate of Competence required (not required for Kosher)
75
Q

Where can slaughter without stunning be performed in the UK?

A

In a slaughterhouse approved by the FSA

76
Q

What are the requirements regarding ear tagging in cattle?

A
  • Must have 2 tags (one in each ear)
  • Dairy: one tag within 36 hours of birth, second within 20 days of birth
  • Dairy: both within 20 days of birth
77
Q

What are the steps following identification of an animal missing an ear tag by the FBO?

A
  • Reported to OV
  • Detain animal, inform owner
  • If appropriate, owner has 48hours to arrange correct identification
  • Must give opportunity to establish identity and provide reason for lack of full identification
  • If repeat occurrence at a farm report to LA
  • If no ear tags, unlikely to be able to prove identity, slaughter but not for human consumption
  • Call BCMS to check information matches
  • If 1 official tag + correct passport, OV may allow slaughter
78
Q

What are the identification requirements for sheep?

A
  • 2 ear tags + EID over 12 months old
  • If under 12mo, only need 1 tag
  • Movement documents must include individual ID numbers
79
Q

What are the consequences of a sheep arriving at slaughter with an EID but no tags?

A

Give owner chance to provide tags

80
Q

Name the parasites relevant for PMI in red meat

A
  • Taenia saginata (Cysticercus bovis, cattle)
  • Taenia solium (Cysticercus cellulosae, pigs and humans)
  • Taenia ovis (Cysticercus ovis)
  • Trichinella sprialis (pigs)
81
Q

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus bovis on PMI?

A

Depending on level and type of cysts present, are condemned or partially rejected as humans are definitive host

82
Q

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus cellulosae on PMI?

A

Whole carcass rejected

83
Q

What is the consequence of identification of Cysticercus ovis on PMI?

A
  • Whole carcass and associated offal rejected as unfit for human consumption if cysts found in 3 or more different locations in whole animal
  • Is not a human parasite
84
Q

What is the outcome of identification of Trichinella spiralis on PMI?

A
  • Whole carcass rejection

- Risk to human health, must wear rubber gloves and practice careful hygiene and handwashing

85
Q

Where are Trichinella spiralis lesions usually found?

A
  • Present in any voluntary muscle, best seen in thin muscles e.g. diaphragm, tongue, masseters etc
  • Grey appearance of muscle directly observable
  • Lesions (cysts and larvae) only visible under microscope
86
Q

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Taenia solium?

A
  • Mass drug administration for taeniasis
  • Identificationand treatment of cases
  • Health education, hygiene, food safety
  • Improved sanitation
  • Improved pig husbandry
  • Anthelmintic treatment
  • Vaccination
  • Improved meat inspection and processing of meat products
87
Q

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Taenia ovis?

A
  • Worm dogs on property with praziquantel (~every 4 weeks)
  • Cook/freeze all sheep meat fed to farm dogs
  • Prevent scavenging of carcasses
  • Dispose of dead sheep
  • Do not allow visiting dogs in that have not been treated with praziquantel
  • Manage fox access
  • Praziquantel not effective in sheep
88
Q

What are the best strategies for controlling/reducing the risk of Trichinella spiralis?

A
  • Anthelmintics

- Thoroughly cook meat

89
Q

Where are bovine tuberculosis lesions most likely located in beef carcasses?

A
  • Lungs
  • Retropharyngeal and lung draining lymph nodes
  • Nasopharynx
  • Lower respiratory tract
90
Q

Which tissues are routinely inspected for bovine tuberculosis?

A
  • Retropharyngeal LN
  • Parotid LN
  • Submandibular/submaxillary LN
  • Bronchial, mediastinal LN
  • Lungs
  • Pleura
  • Hepatic LN
  • Liver
  • Mesenteric LN
  • Supramammary LN
  • Udder
91
Q

What additional lymph nodes must be inspected where bovine TB is suspected?

A
  • Prescapular

- Superficial inguinal

92
Q

What actions are taken following identification of a potentially bTB positive carcass on PMI?

A
  • Movement restriction on farm of origin pending lab culture results
  • Remove from food chain
  • Care regarding respiratory transmission to workers
93
Q

When are poultry likely to be handled in their lives?

A
  • Only 3 times
  • As day old chicks, delivery to rearing house
  • As laying hens, transferred to point of lay
  • At the end of their lives when taken to slaughter facilities
94
Q

What are the welfare considerations at bird depopulation/harvesting?

A
  • Big change in usually very controlled lives
  • Very little contact with people otherwise
  • Stressed due to water and food withdrawal 6-12h earlier
  • Difficult to recruit and retain labour
  • Large numbers need to be caught
  • Low individual value (less care)
  • Genetic selection means there are inherent anatomical problems
95
Q

What are some advantages of mechanical harvesting of poultry over manual?

A
  • Reduced labour costs
  • Reduced rejection rates
  • Better conditions for workers
  • Reduced injury and bruising, especially leg injuries
96
Q

Describe the process of harvesting broilers

A
  • Module brought into house (reduce carrying distance)
  • Birds caught by one leg, inverted, dropped into crates
  • Catchers will hold 3-4 birds per hand
  • Considerable injury rates
97
Q

Discuss the welfare issues associated with the harvesting of spent hens

A
  • Low/no economic value so no incentive for careful handling
  • All caught by hand
  • Injuries relating to handling and osteoporosis
  • Carried further distances than broilers
  • Tend to have more depopulation injuries
98
Q

List transport associated factors that may result in compromised welfare of birds

A
  • Handling
  • MIxing/social disruption
  • Food and water withdrawal
  • Movement of vehicle may exacerbate/cause injury
  • Fatigue
  • Noise
  • Novelty/confinement
  • Thermal challenges

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