Skin & Soft Tissue Disorders Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

what is the MC pathogen present in dog/cat bites?

A

pasteurella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

dog bites typically involve the ____ while cat bites involve _____

A

dog = face

cats = UEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is a major complication of a deep cat bite?

A

periosteum = osteomyelitis/septic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the below are three pathogens present in ____ bites

E. corrodens
GAS
staphylococcus

A

human bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

adult bites have a maxilary-intercanaine distance of…

A

> 2.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Clean the surface of bites with…

A

povidone iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the below are indications for what intervention on bites/wounds?

deep wounds involving bone, tendon, joint, major structures

facial lac

neurovasc compromise

infx

A

surgical consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The below require…

Deep puncture wounds

Moderate to severe wounds with associated crush injury

Underlying venous and or lymphatic compromise

Wounds on hands, genitalia, face or in close contact with bone/joint

Wounds requiring closure

Compromised hosts

A

prophylactic abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mgmt of plantar puncture… (4)

A

x-ray
cleansing
FB removal + closure
tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Needle stick wound cleansing…

A

soap, water, alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an important consideration of needle stick injuries?

A

HIV/HBV/HCV status

Post exposure prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the below are indications for _______

•
Extension into sub Q
•
Decrease healing time
•
Reduce likelihood of infection
•
Decrease scar formation
•
Repair loss of structure or function
•
Improve cosmesis
A

wound closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4 C/Is of closure

A

contamination
> 12 hrs
FB
tendon/nerve/artery involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of wound?

•
Surgical incisions
•
No involvement of GU, GI, respiratory
tracts
A

clean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of wound?


Involvement of GU, GI, respiratory tracts

A

clean-contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of wound?

•
Gross spillage into surgical wound (bile,
stool)
•
Traumatic wounds
A

contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of wound?


Established infection (I&D abscess)

Gross contamination

A

infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of wound?

•
All layers closed
•
Best chance for minimal scarring
•
Clean/clean contaminated wounds
A

primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of wound?

•
Deep layers closed
•
Superficial layers left to granulate
•
Can leave wide scar
•
Requires frequent wound care
A

secondary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of wound?

•
Deep layers closed primarily
•
Superficial layers closed in 4 5 days after
infection is not a concern
A

delayed primary intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 absorbable suture types…

A

vicryl

PDS

chromic gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of suture?

absorbable
duration 6 mo

A

PDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of suture

absorbable
duration 60-90 days

A

Vicryl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How long must sutures be dry?

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

signs of infx post-suture…

A

pain, swelling, redness, drainage

26
Q

post-suture activity restriction?

A

PRN

27
Q

analgesia post-suture…

A

OTCs

28
Q

are prophylactic abx indicated for small, uncomplicated lacs?

A

no

29
Q

2 important factors to decrease infx risk…

A

debridement

FB removal

30
Q

shave before suturing?

A

no

31
Q

most important means of decreasing infection risk

A

irrigation

32
Q

What wounds need a re-check in 48-72 hours after closure?

A

highly contaminated wounds

33
Q

In whom would absorbable sutures be favorable?

A

peds and elderly

34
Q

Nonpurulent infection w.:

local pain
swelling
tenderness
erythema
warmth
A

cellulitis

35
Q

The below are signs of what type of infx?

•
Violaceous bullae
•
Cutaneous hemorrhage
•
Skin sloughing
•
Skin anesthesia
•
Rapid progression
•
Gas in tissue
A

severe deep tissue infx

36
Q

3 considerations of outpatient management of cellulitis…

A

elevation
empiric abx
f/u 48-72 hours

37
Q

The below are indications for ____ management of cellulitis

Facial cellulitis of odontogenic origin

Immunocompromised patients

Orbital cellulitis
•
Lymphedema
•
Cardiac, hepatic, or renal failure

Patient with comorbidities:

Cellulitis affecting more than ¼ of an extremity

A

inpatient

38
Q

which abx are mainstay of cellulitis tx?

A

amoxicillin, augmentin (beta lactams)

39
Q

Which abx for cellulitis?

strep or MRSA coverage

A

cephalaxin

40
Q

Which abx for cellulitis?

G- organisms

A

ceftriaxone

41
Q

Which abx for cellulitis?

no MRSA
PCN allergy

A

macrolides (azithro, erythro, clarithro)

42
Q

Which abx for cellulitis?

Broad spectrum

A

FLQs (cipro, levo)

43
Q

duration of tx for non-purulent cellulitis

A

5 days

44
Q

Abx for mild cellulitis infection…(4)

A

PCN
cephalosporin
Diclox
clinda

45
Q

abx for moderate cellulitis infection

A

PCN
Ceftriaxone
cefazolin
clinda

46
Q

Tx for recurrent cellulitis (3-4 episodes a year)

A

PCN or erythro BID x 4-52 weeks

47
Q

The below are at increased risk for what skin infx?

staph carrier
break in skin
immunocompromised

A

abscess

48
Q

the below are indications for what mgmt of abscess?

•
Perirectal abscesses
•
Anterior and lateral neck abscesses
•
Hand abscesses
•
Abscesses adjacent to vital nerves or blood vessels
•
Breast abscesses near areola and nipple
A

surgical

49
Q

abscess f/u

A

24-48 hours

50
Q

how often to change packing in abscess?

A

q 24 hrs

51
Q

if recurrent abscess/infx… what can be done?

A

daily chlorhexidine baths

52
Q

MRSA decolonization procedure… (3)

A

BID nasal mupirocin
QD chlorhexidine wash
daily decon of personal items

53
Q

MC burn wound infection…

A

staph aureus

54
Q

mgmt of burn wound infx… (3)

A

avoid hypothermia
Cx
systemic abx

55
Q

mgmt of MRSA burn wound infx

A

IV cefazolin/clinda/vanco

56
Q

anesthetize before or after wound irrigation?

A

before

57
Q

Necrotising fasciitis spares _______ tissue

A

spares muscle

58
Q

pathogens of necrotising fasciitis…

A

polymicrobial aeurobes/anaerobes

GAS or beta hemolytic strep

59
Q

Infection of perineum involving scrotum…

A

fournier’s gangrene

60
Q

Patient p/w

severe pain in anterior abd. wall

migration to gluteal muscle, scrotum, penis

A

fournier’s gangrene

61
Q

On PE, you notice…

tense edema
crepitus
fever 
tachy
hypotension
A

fournier’s gangrene

62
Q

Tx for fournier’s gangrene…

A

dibridement, broad spectrum abx