Skin Flashcards

1
Q

Skin

Which of the following hereditary disorders is not associated with the development of skin cancer?

Xeroderma pigmentosum
Basal cell nevus syndrome
Neurofibromatosis type I
Albinism
Congenital epidermolysis bullosa
A

NF1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Skin

What is the most common risk factor for the development of skin cancer?

A

sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Skin

Skin cancer incidence increases with increasing Fitzpatrick skin type.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

False.

Increasing fitzpatrick type is associated with lesser burns and tans with sun exposure hence lesser incidence of skin cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Skin

Which of the following immune disorders is not associated with the development of skin cancer?

Myasthenia gravis
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Solid organ transplant patients
Discoid lupus erythematosus

A

MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Skin

Enumerate the layers of the epidermis from superficial to deep.

A
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale

(CLGSB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Skin

Which is/are true regarding the epidermis?

I. The epidermis is thinner in the face than in most portions of the body, measuring
approximately 1 mm.

II. The epidermis gets thinner with increasing age.

III. Men have thicker epidermis than women.

A

None

I. 0.04 mm
II. No change
III. No difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Skin

Which is/are true regarding the epidermis?

I. The dermis, which contains the blood and lymphatic vessels, adnexa, hair
follicles, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands, is 1 to 2 mm thick

II. the dermis of
the eyelid is thinner, ≤0.6 mm

III. No distinct transition occurs from
the dermis to the subcutaneous layer

A

All

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Skin

The density of the capillary lymphatics has been noted to be about the same in all areas, except the palms and soles, where it is denser.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Skin

What is the most common histology of skin cancers?

A

BCC (>60%)

followed by SCC (≥30%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Skin

What histologic subtype of BCC shows little surface disease and a marked infiltrating pattern; it is an important subtype because of the higher risk for recurrence.?

A

morphea type (sclerosing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Skin

Most SCCs are well-differentated.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Skin

Fill in the blanks.

_________ is a benign tumor of the skin that grossly resembles ________ and microscopically resembles _________.

A

Keratoacanthoma

cystic BCC

SCC or squamous papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Skin

“The diagnosis of keratoacanthoma can only be made with absolute certainty by biologic behavior in the form of __________.”

A

eventual involution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Skin

What virus is associated with Merkel cell carcinoma?

This is associated with worse prognosis. TRUE or FALSE?

A

Polyomavirus

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Skin

SCC vs. BCC

___ occurs more frequently around the central portion of the face, whereas ___ occurs more often on the ears, preauricular and temporal area,
scalp, and skin of the neck.

A

BCC

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Skin

SCC vs. BCC

Which is prone to enter the lymphatics?

A

SCC

Of note, BCCs rarely metastasize in the lymph nodes. When they do, it’s usually during a recurrence.

It is common for SCC and BCC to have a delayed lymphatic spread (>5 years) and is often missed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Skin

SCC vs. BCC

Which is prone to develop distant metastasis?

A

SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Skin

What cranial nerves are most commonly affected by PNI?

A

V2 and VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Skin

Biopsy should be performed on the majority of lesions before deciding on treatment.

Based on Perez’ chapter on skin, the exception is:

A

for elderly patients who have a

typical skin carcinoma and are to be treated by RT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Skin

Small lesions occurring on the free skin areas usually can undergo biopsy and be treated
simultaneously with surgical excision.

When is simultaneous excision not advisable?

A

larger lesions

lesions involving areas of potential functional/cosmetic deficit might occur from excision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Skin

Shave biopsies are
also often used, except in pigmented lesions where a _____ is suspected.

A

melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Skin

What type of biopsy is usually advised/preferred for melanoma?

A

full-thickness skin biopsy (punch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Skin

What are the three stages of MCC based on the Yiengpruksawan system?

A

I - localized
II - regional nodes
III - distant metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage and why?:

3 cm

A

T2

Tumor 2 cm or larger, but smaller than 4 cm in greatest dimension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage and why?:

1 cm with PNI

A

T3

Tumor 4 cm or larger in maximum dimension of minor bone erosion or perineural
invasion or deep invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage and why?:

1 cm

A

T1

Tumor smaller than 2 cm in greatest dimension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage:

gross cortical bone invasion

A

T4a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage:

base of skull foramina involvement

A

T4b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage:

gross marrow involvement

A

T4a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the T-stage:

1 cm
but with 3 mm invasion beyond the subcutaneous fat (as measured from
the granular layer of adjacent normal epidermis to the base of the tumor)

A

T1

still not deep invasion
deep invasion is >6 mm
then this tumor will be staged as T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:

ENE+

A

N3b

32
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:
(assuming ENE-)

7 cm

A

N3a

33
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:
(assuming ENE-)

1 cm bilateral

A

N2c

34
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:
(assuming ENE-)

<3 cm, multiple ipsilateral

A

N2b

as long as ipsilateral and <6 cm

35
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:
(assuming ENE-)

<3 cm, single ipsilateral

A

N1

36
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the N-stage:
(assuming ENE-)

> 3 and <6 cm, single ipsilateral

A

N2

37
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the stage group.

T4 N0 M0

(also identify other combinations that would be classified in the same stage as with this combination)

A

Stage IV

T4 N0 M0
any N2
any M1

38
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for head and neck SCC

Identify the stage group.

T3 N0 M0

(also identify other combinations that would be classified in the same stage as with this combination)

A

Stage III

T3 N0 M0
T1-3 N1 M0

39
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.
(A is always without ulceration;
B is with ulceration)

> 4mm

A

T4

40
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.
(A is always without ulceration;
B is with ulceration)

> 1 to 2 mm

A

T2

41
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.
(A is always without ulceration;
B is with ulceration)

> 2 to 4 mm

A

T3

42
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.
(A is always without ulceration;
B is with ulceration)

<0.8 mm

A

T1

43
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.

> 0.8 to 1 mm

A

T1b with or without ulceration

44
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the T stage based on size.

Diagnosis by curettage

A

TX

45
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.
What are included in the subset N_“a”?

A

clinically occult nodes (i.e., detected by biopsy)

N1a - 1
N2a - 2-3
N3a - >4

46
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.
What are included in the subset N_“b”?

A

clinically detected

N1b - 1
N2b - 2-3 (at least one)
N3b - >4 (at least one)

47
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.
What are included in the subset N_“c”?

A

Presence of in-transit,
satellite, and/or
microsatellite metastases
+ tumor involved nodes

N1c - 0
N2c - 1
N3c - >2

48
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the M stage.
(0 for normal LDH; 1 for elevated LDH)

distant metastasis to:
non-regional nodes
muscles
skin

A

M1a

49
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the M stage.
(0 for normal LDH; 1 for elevated LDH)

distant metastasis to:
lung

A

M1b

50
Q

Skin

AJCC TNM for melanoma.

Identify the M stage.
(0 for normal LDH; 1 for elevated LDH)

distant metastasis to:
CNS

A

M1b
***

M1c is non-CNS visceral sites other than lung

51
Q

Skin

What is the initial treatment for small cancers located on free skin (forehead/cheek)

A

excision

52
Q

Skin

What is the initial treatment for small cancers located on eyelids, external ears, nose, especially in the elderly and growing children?

A

RT
***
It is also desirable to avoid RT in young patients because the late effects
of irradiation progress gradually with time and, with very long-term follow-up,
may be associated with a suboptimal cosmetic result compared with resection
and reconstruction. In contrast, resection of an early-stage skin cancer of the
eyelid, external ear, or nose may result in a significant cosmetic deformity and
necessitate complex reconstruction that compares unfavorably with RT. This is
particularly relevant in the case of older patients who have a limited life
expectancy and who are at higher risk for a perioperative complication if the
lesion is large and general anesthesia is required

53
Q

Skin

What is the treatment preferred for patients with lesions associated with clinical PNI with gross tumor
extending to sites that render complete resection unlikely or unfeasible, such as
the cavernous sinus?

A

RT alone

54
Q

Skin

What are the the indications for PORT in SCC?

A

close or + margins

invasion of nerve

invasion of bone or cartilage.

55
Q

Skin

What are the situation when the patient may be observed/PORT may be withheld?

A

if the lesion is BCC

primary site on free-skin

patient is available for follow-up

higher likelihood of salvage with good cosmetic and oncologic results

  • (also for the elderly with poor medical condition/short life expectancy)
  • BCC/SCC focal incidental PNI (
56
Q

Skin

In BCC, PORT/re-excision may be withheld except in what locations if the margins are positive because of higher risk of recurrences?

A

nose, ears, eyelid

locations that have immediate access to major nerve trunks

57
Q

Skin

What is the management for skin cancer with metastasis to the parotid gland nodes.

A

parotidectomy + PORT to the parotid and neck

treated as high-grade parotid neoplasm

58
Q

Skin

For skin cancer with metastasis to the parotid gland, the management is usually surgery and RT.

When can RT be withheld?

A

if only one node is involved and without ECE

however, if this recurs, salvage is remot, hence, do not withhold

59
Q

Skin

For skin cancer with metastasis to the parotid gland, the management is usually surgery and RT.

When can surgery be delayed and what is the RT dose?

A

of course if the lesion is unresectable/fixed lymph node

60 to 70 Gy

followed by parotidectomy (if the patient is medically operable)

60
Q

Skin

What is the management for skin cancer with metastasis to the parotid gland nodes with one ipsilateral neck node.

A

parotidectomy + PORT
+neck dissection alone.

PORT to the neck is added if 2 or more cervical nodes are positive.

61
Q

Skin
MCC

What is the preferred treatment for MCC?

A

resection with wide margins (2-3 cm) + SLNB + PORT to primary and neck.

62
Q

Skin
MCC

When is adjuvant chemotherapy indicated?

What drugs are often employed?

A

+ nodes

EP (cis-etop)

63
Q

Skin
Melanoma

What is the preferred treatment for Melanoma?

A

resection of primary +/- SLNB

64
Q

Skin
Melanoma

When is SLNB indicated?

A

-T2 lesions (>1 mm) with clinically negative nodes

65
Q

Skin
Melanoma

What are the indications for SLNB in 0.75 to 1 mm lesions?

A
  • ulceration (T1b)
  • regression (T0)
  • invasion into Clark level IV or V
  • deep margin positive
  • young age
66
Q

Skin
Melanoma

Indications for PORT to the primary site

A

PNI along a named nerve

equivocal margins

+in-transit nodes (Nxc)
+regional nodes

67
Q

Skin
Melanoma

Indications for ENI

A

high-risk for nodal metastases but are unable to undergo SLNB.

68
Q

Skin
Melanoma

RT dose for ENI (both conventional & hypofractionated)

A

30Gy/5 fx
with off-cord/CNS at 24 Gy

50 to 60/2/25-30

69
Q

Skin

All of the following are advantages of using orthovoltage RT except?

A. maximum dose is just below the skin surface; bolus is not required.

B. less beam constriction both at the surface and deapth so that smaller fields can be used.

C. eye shielding is easier to accomplish

D. less expensive

E. higher likelihood of control due to higher RBE.

A

A. “at the skin surface” not below

70
Q

Skin

One of the disadvantage of this modality is that it delivers a higher dose to deeper tissues and to underlying bone and cartilage.

A. Orthovoltage x-rays
B. Electron beam

A

A. The disadvantages of orthovoltage x-rays, compared with electron beam, are that
there is a higher dose to deeper tissues and to underlying bone and cartilage. The
latter problem can be largely eliminated by using heavily filtered orthovoltage
beams for tumors involving or overlying cartilage or bone. Another significant
problem associated with orthovoltage RT is that most radiation oncology
departments do not have an orthovoltage machine, and thus it is unavailable.

71
Q

Skin

Parotid RT:
Total dose for negative and positive margins?

A

The final dose for patients treated at 200 cGy per
fraction with negative margins is 6,000 cGy; with positive margins, 6,600 cGy;
and with gross residual disease, 7,000 cGy. If the dose per fraction is reduced to
180 cGy, the total dose is increased by 500 cGy.

72
Q

Skin

Follow-up schedule

A

every 2-3 months for the first 2 years

every 4 months for year 3

every 6 months for the years 4-5
then annually.

73
Q

Skin

Local control is better for BCC than SCCs in general.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

74
Q

Skin

Local control is similar for previously untreated and recurrent BCCs.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

False.

Local control is better for previously untreated

75
Q

Skin

Local control is inversely-related to PNI.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True.

Balamucki et al.