Palliation of Bone Metastases Flashcards

1
Q

Bone Metastases

What are the most common cancers which metastasize frequently to bone?

A

breast and prostate (70%)
lung…

others: thyroid, melanoma, kidney
rare: GI

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2
Q

Bone Metastases

What are the most common sites?

A

axial skeleton

spine particularly (lumbar), pelvis, and ribs

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3
Q

Bone Metastases

What is the most commonly involved part of the appendicular skeleton?

A

proximal femurs

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4
Q

Bone Metastases
Pathophysiology

All of the following are true, EXCEPT?

I. Osteoblasts originate from osteogenic cells, found in
the periosteum or endosteum.

II. The cells differentiate into osteoblasts when there is a mechanical or chemical stimulus for remodeling or repair.

III. The osteoblasts build bone by depositing collagen type II into the extracellular space.

IV. An inorganic complex of calcium and phosphate (hydroxyapatite) is laid down
within this organic matrix to provide the strength and density of the bone.

V. The osteoblasts then mature into osteocytes, which maintain the bone structure.

A

III.

collagen type I

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5
Q

Bone Metastases
Pathophysiology

Osteoclasts are multinucleated giant cells that originate from osteogenic progenitor cells and adhere to the bone surface.

These cells
create an acidophilic environment that causes dissolution of the hydroxyapatite
crystals and proteolysis of the bone matrix.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

False
***

originate from pluripotent
hematopoietic bone marrow

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6
Q

Bone Metastases
Pathophysiology

All of the following are true, EXCEPT?

I. The RANKL on osteoblasts binds to the RANK receptor on osteoclast
precursors, which then induces the formation of mature osteoclasts.

II. Osteoprotegerin is a decoy receptor for RANKL and
inhibits the differentiation and activation of osteoclasts.

III. The destruction of
bone by osteolytic metastases does not involve the osteoclasts and is directly mediated by tumor cells

A

III. The destruction of
bone by osteolytic metastases is mediated by the osteoclasts, not by the tumor
cells. However, the factors that activate the osteoclasts are likely produced by the
tumor cells, including RANKL, interleukin-1, interleukin-6, parathyroid
hormone-related peptide (PTHrP), transforming growth factor β (TGF-β), and
macrophage inflammatory protein 1α.

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7
Q

Bone Metastases

Normal bone is constantly being remodeled in a cycle.

How long is a normal bone cycle?

A

120-200 days

For the first 20 to 40 days of the cycle, the bone is
resorbed by osteoclasts. The bone is then rebuilt by osteoblasts during the next
100 to 150 days

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8
Q

Bone Metastases

What malignancy/tumor is associated with purely
osteolytic lesions?

A

myeloma

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9
Q

Bone Metastases

Bone scintigraphy is an indicator of osteoblastic activity and therefore may give false-negative readings in highly-aggressive tumors if the lesions are mainly osteolytic.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True.

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10
Q

Bone Metastases

When using plain radiographs, it is important to bear in mind that approximately __to__% of the bone mineral content must be lost before the lesion will be apparent on x-rays.

A

Approximately 30% to 50% of the bone mineral content must be lost before the lesion will be apparent on x-rays.

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11
Q

Bone Metastases

All of the following are true, EXCEPT?

I. CT may be useful in defining the extent of cortical destruction and helping to assess the risk of a pathologic
fracture.

II. CT scan may be used to guide needle biopsies to
obtain a tissue diagnosis

III. CT scan’s ultimate value is its usefulness in
detecting marrow involvement and are much better than plain radiographs at
evaluating soft tissue extension of disease.

A

III.

It’s of lesser usefulness for detecting marrow involvement.

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12
Q

Bone Metastases

All of the following are true, EXCEPT?

I. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is no better than plain radiography or
nuclear medicine bone scintigraphy at assessing the involvement of trabecular
bone and bone marrow, especially in the vertebral bodies

II. MRI scans are useful in determining the
involvement of neurovascular structures.

III. MRI images can help distinguish whether a vertebral body compression fracture is from malignancy or from osteoporosis.

A

I
***
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is better than plain radiography or
nuclear medicine bone scintigraphy at assessing the involvement of trabecular
bone and bone marrow, especially in the vertebral bodies.
The findings are typically best seen on T1 contrast-enhanced images and shorttau
inversion recovery (STIR) images. Metastatic prostate cancer is visible as
high-intensity lesions on the STIR images and is visible prior to its appearance
on bone scintigraphy.
In addition, MRI scans are useful in determining the
involvement of neurovascular structures. MRI scans are not useful as a screening
tool for bone metastases because of the high cost and lengthy time of the exam.
However, MRI scans may be more sensitive than bone scintigraphy in the
vertebral body region. The sensitivity of MRI scanning has been reported as
91% to 100%, compared with 62% to 85% for bone scintigraphy.
In
addition, MRI images can help distinguish whether a vertebral body
compression fracture is from malignancy or from osteoporosis.

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13
Q

Bone Metastases

Which is more FDG avid? osteolytic or osteoblastic?

A

lytic.

in contrast to bone scan where blastic lesions are seen better than lytic.

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14
Q

Pain Management

What are the three steps of the WHO analgesic ladder?

A

step 1 - nonopioid (acetaminophen, NSAIDs)

step 2 - weak opioid (codeine)

step 3 - strong opioid (morphine and oxycodone)

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15
Q

Bone Metastases

Which bone has the propensity to cause morbidity and functional deficits due to fracture risk, necessitating surgical internventions?

A

pretrochanteric (proximal) femur

65% requires surgical intervention

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16
Q

Bone Metastases

What is the measurement usually predictive of pathologic fracture? (plain radiograph)

A

≥2.5 cm in the cortex

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17
Q

Bone Metastases

How much cortical bone destruction is usually predictive of pathologic fracture?

A

> 50% destruction

risk is 80% if >70% destruction
Also, femoral
lesions with axial cortical destruction >30 mm had a 23% risk of pathologic
fracture, compared with 3% risk of fracture for cortical destruction ≤30 mm.

18
Q

Bone Metastases

What score on the Mirel’s system is an indication of prophylactic fixation?

A

≥9

given that the patient has a longer expected life expectancy.

19
Q

Bone Metastases

Mirel’s scoring
1

A

mild pain
upper limb
<1/3 destruction
blastic

20
Q

Bone Metastases

Mirel’s scoring
2

A

moderate pain
lower limb
1/3-2/3 destruction
mixed lytic-blastic

21
Q

Bone Metastases

Mirel’s scoring
3

A

severe pain
peritrochanteric
>2/3
lytic

22
Q

Bone Metastases

What is the definition of a complete response in bone metastases?

A

complete disappearance of “all” lesions for at least 4 weeks.

23
Q

Bone Metastases

Biochemistry

What enzyme in which pathway is inhibited by bisphospohonates hence subsequent inhibition of bone resortption.

A

farnesyl diphosphate (FDP) synthase

mevalonate pathway

24
Q

Bone Metastases

Why is zoledronic acid more potent than the other bisphosphonates in the treatment of bone metastases?

A

because it also inhibits tumor cell adhesion to the

extracellular matrix

25
Q

Bone Metastases

bisphosphonates induce
apoptosis in cancer cells.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

26
Q

Bone Metastases

What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?

A

The antibody binds to RANKL and thus inhibits the formation, activation, maturation, and survival of osteoclasts.

27
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

The response to
treatment depends on a large number of factors, including sex, primary site and
histology, performance status, type of lesion (osteolytic vs. osteoblastic),
location of the metastases, weight-bearing versus non–weight-bearing site,
extent of disease, number of painful sites, marital status, and level of pain prior
to treatment,

whereas

the effectiveness of the treatment also depends on the goal:
palliation of pain, prevention of pathologic fracture, avoidance of future
treatments, or local control of the disease

TRUE or FALSE?

A

True

28
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

In Tong’s analysis of RTOG 74-02, there was no statistically significant difference in response rates between any of
the treatment arms, with complete responses in 49% to 61% of patients.

However, upon exclusion of retreatment (Blitzer), and redefinition of complete response as no pain and no analgesic use, there was a significant difference in response, favoring which arms?

A

longer treatment courses:

40.5/15 for solitary
30/10 for multiple

This was
offered as evidence that higher doses were necessary for optimal palliation, even
though one of the highest biologic doses for multiple fractions (25 Gy in 5
fractions) had one of the lower response rates.

29
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

One of the large studies comparing short and long courses of RT is the Dutch trial, comparing 4Gyx6 and 8Gyx1.

What are the two significant differences in outcomes?

A

higher rate of pathologic fracture

and

higher/earlier retreatment rates

for the single fraction arm

30
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

In RTOG 9714, comparing 30/10 and 8/1, higher retreatment rate was seen for the single fraction arm.

This disparity in the rate of retreatment occurred despite nearly identical rates of stable (26% vs. 24%) or progressive pain scores (9% vs. 10%) and similar rates of narcotic use between the two groups.

What could be the reason behind this (similar findings with the Dutch trial)?

A

greater willingness to reirradiate after a single dose of 8 Gy or more
reluctance to give retreatment after a higher initial dose of radiation therapy

31
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

In RTOG 9714, which arm had significantly higher rates of pathologic fracture?

A

None.

In contrast to the Dutch trial, there was no difference in the rate of pathologic
fractures between the two groups (5% for 8 Gy vs. 4% for 30 Gy).

32
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

Comparing RTOG 9714 and the Dutch trial, which one treated the patients when their pain is moderate rather than severe, accounting for higher response rates?

A

Dutch

33
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

Pain relief after RT (especially the lower doses) is mostly attributed to decreased tumor burden.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

False

The lack of a dose–response relationship suggests that the mechanism of
initial pain relief is not a reduction in tumor burden but more likely a change in
the local environment that has caused activation of bone resorption by
osteoclasts

34
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

single-dose treatment to longer courses of radiation therapy can be substituted for longer courses, in the “retreatment” of previously irradiated painful metastatic bone cancer.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

Yes.

It is noninferior

35
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

What are the superior and inferior boundaries of upper HBI?

What is the maximum tolerated dose based on RTOG 78-10?

A

neck to top of iliac crests

6 Gy (uncorrected lung dose)
7 Gy (corrected lung dose)
36
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

What are the superior and inferior boundaries of midbody HBI?

What is the maximum tolerated dose based on RTOG 78-10?

A

diaphragm to ischial tuberosities

8 Gy

37
Q

Bone Metastases
RT

What are the superior and inferior boundaries of lower HBI?

What is the maximum tolerated dose based on RTOG 78-10?

A

top of pelvis to the inferior portion of the femur

8 Gy

38
Q

Bone Metastases
Radiopharmaceuticals

What is the only bone-directed radionuclide, which has shown improvement not only in pain and quality of life but also in overall survival?

A

Radium-223

an alpha emitter

39
Q

Bone Metastases
Radiopharmaceuticals

What is the primary advantage of Sm-153 over Sr-90?

A

shorter half-life (46.3 hours vs. 50.6 days) hence decreased radiation safety issues

Sm-153 distribution can be imaged

40
Q

Bone Metastases
Radiopharmaceuticals

Radiopharmaceuticals are more active in osteolytic lesions.

TRUE or FALSE?

A

False.

blastic