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CompTiaNetwork+EXAMSIM > Skillsoft Video Tests > Flashcards

Skillsoft Video Tests Flashcards

Review Course Test Questions

1
Q

Which common services occur at the presentation layer of the OSI Model?

A

Encryption, Compression

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2
Q

What statement correctly characterizes the functions of the OSI Model?

A

It is a method of describing the functions of a networking system to allow communication

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3
Q

The physical address applied by the data link layer of the OSI Model has which features?

A

It is unique to every network interface, It is a static address that can’t be changed, It is expressed using a 12-character hexadecimal value

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4
Q

Which type of traffic management service occurs at the network layer of the OSI Model?

A

Routing

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5
Q

Which command can be used to determine the MTU optimal size?

A

Ping

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6
Q

The TCP header specifies which value to ensure that data is processed by the correct application?

A

Port

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7
Q

Which protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI Model?

A

SMTP, HTTP

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8
Q

Which device or service would not operate at the physical layer of the OSI Model?

A

IP Address

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9
Q

If you needed to be certain that your data transmissions are being received, which type of connection and protocol should be used?

A

Connection-orientated and TCP

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10
Q

Which type of communication would be analogous to a half duplex transmission?

A

Two people using walkie-talkies

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11
Q

Which TCP flag is used to gracefully terminate a session between two systems?

A

FIN

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12
Q

A fixed payload typically has which benefits or characteristics?

A

They are always the same size, They can be more efficient than variable payloads

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13
Q

A SAN would typically be implemented in which type of networking environment?

A

Enterprise-level organisation

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14
Q

If a single link between system A and system B were to fail in a full mesh network with 5 nodes, how would it affect overall communications on the network?

A

All communication among all nodes would still be possible

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15
Q

Which statement best characterizes the route that packets will take when using multiprotocol label switching (MPLS)?

A

Dedicated or specified

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16
Q

A hybrid network topology is created by combining which other topologies?

A

Any combination of two or more topologies of any type

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17
Q

A Workgroup is best described in which manner?

A

A Microsoft implementation of a peer-to-peer network

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18
Q

Based on the graphic, if node 1 of this ring network topology goes down, what happens to communication on the rest of the network?

A

All nodes will lose connectivity

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19
Q

Which statement best characterizes the purpose and functionality of a virtual switch?

A

It allows virtual machines to communicate with the other systems on the real network

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20
Q

In a star network topology, by which means do systems connect to each other?

A

All systems connect to a central connection device

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21
Q

Satellite internet service has which primary advantage over most other types of services?

A

Global availability

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22
Q

In a bus network topology, by which means do systems connect to each other?

A

Each system connects to adjacent systems only in a linear fashion

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23
Q

The use of a smartjack provides which capabilities for a demarcation point?

A

Diagnostic and monitoring

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24
Q

Which type of network provider service was available in both asynchronous and synchronous modes?

A

DSL

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25
Q

In a networking environment with a corporate headquarters, and four branch offices, how many tunnel interfaces would need to be configured so that each branch could connect to headquarters, and to each other if using multipoint generic routing encapsulation?

A

5

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26
Q

Which type of network would typically be used to cover very large geographical areas such as from country to country?

A

WAN

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27
Q

A wired network that is implemented in your home or a small office would be most appropriately categorized as which type of network?

A

PAN

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28
Q

Category 5 cable could also be expressed using which cable specification?

A

100BaseTX

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29
Q

Which type of fiber cabling would be needed to connect two data centers that are 8 km apart?

A

10GBASE-LR

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30
Q

Which categories of UTP cable are able to support speeds of at least 100 Mbps?

A

5, 5e

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31
Q

In which situations would a crossover cable be required?

A

Switch to Switch, PC to PC

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32
Q

Which transceiver would be required to support speeds of 10 Gbps over 4 channels?

A

QSFP+

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33
Q

Which optical multimode fiber specification would be the minimum required to support at least 40 Gbps speeds over distances of 100 meters?

A

OM3

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34
Q

An ST connector would be found on which type of cabling?

A

Fiber

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35
Q

The area of a patch panel where cable connections are hard-wired is referred to as what?

A

Punchdown Block

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36
Q

What is meant by the fact that the IP protocol is characterized as dual stack?

A

It refers to the fact that either version 4 or version 6 can be used to communicate

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37
Q

What is the correct range of possible addresses that can be created for the first subnet based on the expression of 192.168.0.1/26?

A

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.0.63

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38
Q

A subnet mask of 255.255.248.0 accommodates approximately how many hosts per subnet?

A

2000

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39
Q

An IPv4 address that has been assigned through the APIPA process usually indicates what condition on a network?

A

A DHCP server could not be found

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40
Q

Which type of transmission would be used for a client system requesting email from its messaging server?

A

Unicast

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41
Q

What are the benefits of using the IPv6 addressing scheme?

A

It provides capability for automatic configuration of IPs, It provides better routing since the size of routing tables are reduced

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42
Q

By which manner can a subinterface be created?

A

By assigning more that one IP address to a single physical network adapter

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43
Q

Which subnet mask will subdivide a class C network into 8 subnets?

A

255.255.255.224

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44
Q

Which statement best characterizes the function of network address translation?

A

It maps a private IP address to a public IP address, when you need to communicate with another system on the internet

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45
Q

Which address is used as the loopback address in all IPv4 configurations?

A

127.0.0.1

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46
Q

Which subnet mask is required to create a single network from four class C networks?

A

255.255.252.0

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47
Q

Which binary value represents the decimal value of 150?

A

10010110

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48
Q

Which statement best characterizes the purpose and functionality of a virtual IP address?

A

It presents a single IP address to client systems, but it represents multiple IP addresses

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49
Q

Which subnet mask in a class A network will reduce any single subnet to the size of a class C network?

A

255.255.255.0

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50
Q

If a network configuration is expressed by the value 192.168.0.1/24, which characteristics can be ascertained about the state of this network?

A

The network is a class C network, The network has not been subnetted

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51
Q

Which SSH command would be used to establish a session with a specific server using an account other than the account being used to execute the SSH command?

A

ssh remote_host_userID@server.example.org

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52
Q

The secure file transfer protocol runs over which other utility or protocol by default?

A

SSH

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53
Q

Which Syslog severity code would be used for informational messages only?

A

6

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54
Q

What is the default port for SMTP?

A

25

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55
Q

In which situation might FTP need to use a passive mode connection?

A

If a firewall is present on the client system

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56
Q

The IMAP protocol uses which port by default?

A

143

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57
Q

What is the correct configuration of the encryption keys used to secure a transaction such as ordering a product with a credit card on a website?

A

Private Key held by the server - Public key held by the client

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58
Q

Which primary concerns in a networking environment can be addressed by the Network Time Protocol?

A

Performing task sequences or applying updates, Network security

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59
Q

Which port is used to secure IMAP over SSL communications?

A

993

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60
Q

Which telnet command is used to open the help menu?

A

?

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61
Q

Which port is used to secure POP3 over SSL communications?

A

995

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62
Q

The SMB protocol is used primarily for which type of networking service?

A

Sharing resources such as files or printers

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63
Q

The POP3 protocol is used in which manner when exchanging email?

A

A client system receiving email from a server

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64
Q

Which characteristic of the TFTP protocol distinguishes it from FTP?

A

It uses UDP as the transport protocol

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65
Q

Which component of SMTP TLS refers to the fact that users can be assured that the original content of a message has not been altered during transit?

A

Data Integrity

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66
Q

Which HTTP messages are only included in response messages?

A

Status message, Status code

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67
Q

The DNS protocol resolves which types of names and/or addresses?

A

Ip address to domain name

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68
Q

DHCP phases in correct sequence

A

Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement, Address allocation

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69
Q

Which component of SNMP would typically be located on a centralized server?

A

Manager

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70
Q

“Computername=Client1” would represent which component of the Lightweight Directory Access Protocol?

A

Attribute

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71
Q

Secure LDAP would most likely be used in which type of communication?

A

A server in a perimeter network communication with a server in your internal network

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72
Q

Which file is used to configure a database server to accept client requests using SQLnet?

A

listener.ora

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73
Q

The Microsoft implementation of the Structured Query Language operates over which port by default?

A

1433

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74
Q

Which protocol is used as an error messaging standard and can provide feedback as to the state of communications?

A

ICMP

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75
Q

The Remote Desktop Protocol is primarily used for which activities?

A

Accessing a remote system to run an application, Managing and administering a remote computer from your local computer

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76
Q

The MySQL protocol operates over which TCP port?

A

3306

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77
Q

Which types of applications or services make use of the Session Initiation Protocol?

A

Voice over IP devices, Video conferencing applications, Chat or instant messaging applications

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78
Q

What is the primary advantage of using the User Datagram Protocol over a connectionless communication channel?

A

Speed

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79
Q

In which portion of the DNS namespace would you find entries such as .com, .org, or .gov?

A

Top-Level

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80
Q

North-south traffic in a data center refers to which type of communication?

A

Client to server

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81
Q

The spanning-tree protocol sometimes used in the three-tier data center architecture is designed to correct which type of network traffic problem?

A

Looping

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82
Q

The GPS or atomic clocks used for time synchronization in the NTP protocol reside at which stratum?

A

0

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83
Q

Which type of DNS record is actually responsible for recording the hostname to IP address mapping?

A

A or AAAA

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84
Q

The DNS database for the Internet is implemented in a distributed fashion due for which basic reason?

A

There are too many systems on the public internet

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85
Q

The basis of software-defined networking would be most closely associated with which computing method or service?

A

Virtualisation

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86
Q

The authoritative server for your domain is indicated by which type of DNS record?

A

SOA

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87
Q

Which situation or scenario would most closely resemble the use of a colocation data center?

A

Renting out your current house

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88
Q

A client system might receive many of which type of DHCP message if there are several DHCP servers in your network?

A

Offer

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89
Q

A spine and leaf architecture in a data center can alleviate the need for which protocol?

A

STP

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90
Q

Which protocol would you most likely be using to access your SAN if your implementation uses only fiber-optics?

A

FCP

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91
Q

Which feature of the DNS protocol can enhance the speed of name resolution requests?

A

Caching

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92
Q

IPAM is designed to be used to manage which basic types of systems or devices?

A

Servers

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93
Q

A community cloud offers which primary benefits to its users?

A

Shared access, A collaborative environment

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94
Q

Which characteristics of multi-tenancy might be considered to be disadvantages?

A

Security, Performance, Compliance

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95
Q

Which risk factor is typically a primary concern in a Software as a Service implementation?

A

Identity management

96
Q

Which types of services or applications would be classified as Software as a Service?

A

Databases, Customer management applications, Enterprise resource planning applications

97
Q

Which type of connection to your cloud provider typically involves a dedicated connection through your telecommunications provider?

A

Direct Connection

98
Q

Which types of services or applications would be classified as Infrastructure as a Service?

A

Virtual machines or networks, Operating systems

99
Q

Which risk mitigation technique refers to the process of reviewing which users have or have not been able to perform a certain task, or access a certain resource?

A

Auditing

100
Q

Which characteristics about a local resource such as storage are typically enhanced by switching to a cloud-based model?

A

Disaster recovery, Cost

101
Q

Which statements correctly describe the model of public cloud computing?

A

Only pay for what you use, Security and privacy may be a concern

102
Q

Desktop as a Service most closely resembles which type of service or application?

A

Remote desktop

103
Q

A private cloud would most likely be implemented by which type of organization?

A

An existing company with significant resources looking to expand

104
Q

Scalability in terms of cloud services refers to which characteristic?

A

The ability for a solution to have increased or decreased resources as needed

105
Q

The Platform as a Service model is most often implemented for which type of users?

A

Developers

106
Q

Which term would most accurately describe the type environment that is created by using Infrastructure as Code?

A

Repeatable

107
Q

A hybrid cloud deployment refers to which type of implementation?

A

An organisation that has implemented both a public and a private cloud solution

108
Q

Which statement most accurately describes elasticity in cloud computing?

A

Resources are allocated based on demand

109
Q

A layer 3 switch is capable of identifying which networking components and/or able to perform which types of services beyond layer 2 switching?

A

IP addresses, Routing

110
Q

In which type of organizations or institutions would you be most likely to find a SCADA system?

A

Factories or automation plants

111
Q

Which routing protocol would be most accurately described as the “protocol of the internet”?

A

BGP

112
Q

At which layer of the OSI model do hubs operate?

A

1 , Physical

113
Q

Implementing a hosted VoIP solution would indicate that your organization does not have which components?

A

A PBX, An SIP server

114
Q

IoT refers to which characteristics about a networking environment?

A

The ability to gather and analyse large amounts of data

115
Q

In which type of environment would you be most likely to find an implementation of static routing?

A

A small to medium sized business with several routers

116
Q

Which type of networking device is responsible for retrieving web-based content on behalf of other users?

A

Proxy server

117
Q

A distance-vector protocol considers which factors when deciding on the best route for a packet?

A

The number of hops

118
Q

The implementation of physical access controls in a networking environment most commonly refers to which type of system?

A

Door locking systems

119
Q

Which type of firewall controls traffic based on port values?

A

Application-layer

120
Q

Quality of service is designed to provide better traffic management through the use of which primary characteristic?

A

Prioritising applications or services

121
Q

Which type of intrusion detection system operates based on the normal activity of your environment?

A

Anomaly-based

122
Q

Which classification of router would be used to connect your organization to the internet?

A

Edge

123
Q

Power over Ethernet plus (PoE+) is capable of handling what level of power?

A

30 watts

124
Q

Which scenario would most accurately reflect the nature of MU-MIMO in wireless communications?

A

Many people on a conference call

125
Q

Which type of resolution or mapping is performed by the Address Resolution Protocol?

A

IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

126
Q

What is the primary characteristic of 802.11 communications that determines if one variety is compatible with another?

A

Frequency

127
Q

In the 2.4 GHz frequency band, which channels would not overlap with each other?

A

1 an 6, 6 and 11, any 5 apart

128
Q

Which protocol or port configuration option on a switch is typically used for monitoring and diagnostic purposes?

A

Port mirroring

129
Q

The Neighbor Discovery Protocol would be most accurately described in which manner?

A

It is the IPv6 equivalent of the Address Resolution Protocol

130
Q

The SSID of a wireless network would be best described in which manner?

A

The collection of all devices connected to all access points

131
Q

Which type of antenna could be envisioned as producing a “slice” of coverage in front of you, and a slice of coverage behind you?

A

Bi-directional

132
Q

In the event of a collision on an ethernet network, CSMA/CD specifies that which process or procedure take place?

A

Transmitting and receiving devices should retransmit at random intervals

133
Q

The spanning tree protocol addresses which potential issue in a networking environment?

A

Switching or bridging loops

134
Q

Which statements accurately describe the nature of a MAC address?

A

They never change, They operate at the data-link layer of the OSI model, They are written into the code of the interface

135
Q

In the 2.4 GHz frequency band, how many bonded pairs could be configured within the entire range?

A

1

136
Q

VLANs are created and configured in which manner?

A

By configuring switch port interfaces

137
Q

Which encryption standard can provide managed access through a centralized server?

A

WPA2

138
Q

A voice VLAN is typically implemented for which purpose?

A

To give voice packets higher priority than data packets

139
Q

Which benefits did the 2.4 GHz frequency offer over 5 GHz?

A

Better coverage, better penetration of obstacles

140
Q

Which type of multiple access method is used by LTE (4G)?

A

OFDMA

141
Q

Which type of networking statistic would indicate that the integrity of a packet has been compromised?

A

CRC errors

142
Q

The collection of all known attributes and values on a client device using SNMP is known as what?

A

MIB

143
Q

If your network monitoring consistently reveals packets that are 3000 bytes in size, which condition does that indicate?

A

Giants

144
Q

When determining a baseline for your network, which methods should be used?

A

Gather at different times of day, Gather during both busy and slow times

145
Q

Which percentage of service uptime would you most likely see from a reputable network service provider?

A

99.9%

146
Q

Which type of agreement would typically be implemented between two organizations who are forming an initial partnership?

A

MOU

147
Q

If all users within your network report that they are unable to access the internet, which networking issue would be the most likely cause?

A

DNS

148
Q

At which phase of an incident response plan would you detail the severity, priority, and root cause of a problem?

A

Investigation

149
Q

Which type of network documentation or diagram would indicate the means by which your building is wired?

A

MDF/IDF

150
Q

The space between two racks that are rear facing each other is typically referred to in which manner?

A

Hot aisle

151
Q

Which type of policy deals with attempting to ensure that confidential information is not leaked outside of your organization?

A

Data loss prevention

152
Q

Which type of network logging is primarily concerned with security-based events such as resource access?

A

Audit

153
Q

The process of Netflow intervening to produce an output for analysis is known as what?

A

Active Timeout

154
Q

Which value provides an indication of how reliable your equipment or services have been over time?

A

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

155
Q

Which types of backup would you implement when you are more concerned with the configuration of a server rather than the data?

A

Bare Metal

156
Q

Which feature is almost always an advantage of clustering that might not be a feature of redundancy?

A

Automatic Recovery from failure

157
Q

Which type of UPS should be implemented if you require the highest levels of reliability and the cleanest type of power?

A

Double Conversion

158
Q

Which method of dynamic multipathing directs traffic based on specified values as defined by an administrator?

A

Priority

159
Q

Which method of load balancing works based on sequentially directing requests to a group of servers?

A

Round Robin

160
Q

Which NIC teaming configuration would be required if you want to provide both fault tolerance and load balancing?

A

Active/Active

161
Q

Which mitigation technique is most capable of defeating a ransomware attack?

A

Performing regular backups

162
Q

Which type of password attack works on the assumption that a weak password is being used within an organization?

A

Password Spraying

163
Q

In the CIA triad, integrity refers to which aspect of information protection?

A

Ensuring the original version is not modified

164
Q

Which type of Denial-of-Service attack is based on fragmented packets that cannot be reassembled?

A

Teardrop

165
Q

Which common technology-based attack presents a false wireless network to users?

A

Evil twin

166
Q

Security cameras would be considered which type of control in the defence-in-depth model?

A

Physical

167
Q

Which approach to implementing the principle of least privilege grants only the necessary level of access, only when it is necessary?

A

Just-in-time privileges

168
Q

A zero-day vulnerability is characterized by which aspect or component?

A

They have no current patch or fix

169
Q

Which authentication method is based on using keys and tickets?

A

Kerberos

170
Q

When or where would you be most likely to encounter a default password?

A

On a router or a firewall

171
Q

Which component of role-based access control gives a user the abilities of a role?

A

Management role assignment

172
Q

Which type of malware is capable of self-propagation and is most commonly spread via email?

A

Worm

173
Q

Which statements correctly characterize vulnerability assessments and penetration tests?

A

A penetration test attempts to breach your security, Vulnerability assessments are generally performed to gather information only

174
Q

Security Information and Event Management applications would be analogous to which type of operation or process?

A

Writing records to an operational database and querying a data warehouse simultaneously

175
Q

Which statement or scenario best describes the zero-trust security model?

A

No one should be trusted

176
Q

Leaving a flash drive labelled “Confidential” that actually contains malware, in an easily found location would be classified as which type of social engineering?

A

Baiting

177
Q

Which mitigation technique can be used to enhance the security of your email by ensuring that only the intended recipient can access a message, and be assured that the message was not altered?

A

S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose internet Mail Extensions)

178
Q

Which type of external attack is implemented by targeting a specific user or organization with social engineering tactics?

A

Spear Phishing

179
Q

Out-of-band management refers to which process?

A

Implementing redundancy to allow for continued network management in the event of a failure

180
Q

Which wireless authentication method implements two-way or mutual authentication between client and access point?

A

EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol - Transport Layer Security)

181
Q

Which type of wireless security configuration allows you to create two separate networks on the same access point?

A

Guest Network

182
Q

Shining a laser or a bright flashlight directly into a security camera would be classified as which type of interference?

A

Defocusing

183
Q

Which feature of a security camera refers to its ability to store data locally?

A

DVR

184
Q

Network hardening features such as Router Advertisement Guard and DHCP Snooping are implemented where?

A

Switches

185
Q

describe a situation where the Remote Desktop Protocol should be used?

A

When administering a Windows server from a client computer

186
Q

Which statement correctly describes the level of security provided by passwords in a networking environment

A

They are a primary security vulnerability

187
Q

Which encryption algorithm is used by default with the WPA2 protocol?

A

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard)

188
Q

Which type of VPN configuration would be more suitable for a connection between two offices that will be used frequently by multiple users?

A

Site-to-Site

189
Q

In addition to performing remote administration tasks, VNC can be useful for which other purpose in a networking environment?

A

Training

190
Q

Which feature of the Windows Firewall can also implement encryption using IPSec?

A

Connection security rules

191
Q

Which encryption algorithm could be used to configure WPA in a mode that is compatible with WEP?

A

TKIP-RC4

192
Q

Which remote authentication and authorization protocol is not considered to be secure due to its use of clear-text passwords?

A

PAP

193
Q

Which value of an asset tag or inventory record indicates how urgently a device should be replaced?

A

Recovery Priority

194
Q

Which type of wireless transmission would not be able to support an implementation of geofencing?

A

Bluetooth

195
Q

In which type of security system would you be most likely to encounter the use of smart cards?

A

Door-locking systems

196
Q

Which statement correctly characterizes why an IoT implementation poses more of a security threat to an environment?

A

There are far more devices, therefore far more points of attack

197
Q

Which type of firewall action would be used if you only wanted to assess the type of traffic on your network?

A

Log only

198
Q

Which statement correctly describes a situation where the Secure Shell protocol should be used?

A

When establishing a remote session to a Unix server

199
Q

Which statements correctly characterize the differences between throughput and bandwidth?

A

Bandwidth is the measure of how much data can theoretically be transferred, Throughput is the measure of how much data is actually being transferred, The measure of bandwidth does not change without changing your equipment

200
Q

After verifying that system functionality has been restored after implementing your solution, which additional steps should be taken?

A

Implement preventative measures to reduce the chance of the problem reoccurring

201
Q

Which type of data transmission issue can be caused by strong sources of power, magnetism, or radio?

A

Interference

202
Q

If the network adapter of a specific computer is set to half duplex to support a legacy application, which settings would be acceptable on the other system with which is it communicating?

A

Half Duplex, Auto Negotiate

203
Q

Documentation of the history of a problem should include which items?

A

The Outcome, The symptoms that were exhibited, The corrective actions taken

204
Q

Escalation of an issue refers to which approach?

A

Reporting a problem to the closest level of support first, then moving up from there

205
Q

Which type of cabling should be used when connecting a computer to a switch?

A

Straight-Through

206
Q

Which type of network transmission issue may be indicative of a short in your cabling system?

A

Collisions

207
Q

Which type of network cabling typically needs to be installed when running cables between a suspended ceiling and the permanent ceiling?

A

Plenum

208
Q

Establishing a theory of the most probable cause of an issue should involve which steps?

A

Creating a prioritised list of causes, Questioning users

209
Q

Damaged or bent pins will most likely result in which types of network communication issues?

A

Loss of service, Intermittent connectivity

210
Q

Which system configuration settings and/or properties can help to reduce bottlenecks on your network?

A

Use auto-negotiate on adapters, Ensure adequate processing and memory

211
Q

Implementing a troubleshooting methodology should begin with which step?

A

Identifying the problem

212
Q

Which primary mitigation techniques should be implemented to help prevent crosstalk?

A

Install the cables farther apart from each other, Use shielded cable instead of unshielded

213
Q

When a network adapter is connected and communicating normally, what would you most likely see from the LED status light indicator?

A

Solid green light that flashes rapidly and randomly

214
Q

Which testing tool can help you to identify where a wall port connection terminates at the patch panel end?

A

Tone Generator

215
Q

Identifying the potential impact of a plan of action refers to which possibility upon implementation?

A

That the plan may have unforeseen repercussions

216
Q

A scenario whereby packets are leaving your network through one route, indicates which type of issue?

A

Asymmetric routing

217
Q

Installing an antenna in a vertical or upright position as opposed to a horizontal position is an implementation of which characteristic of wireless transmissions?

A

Polarisation

218
Q

Which port scanning technique attempts to fool a target system into believing communications have been occurring by sending an indication that the conversation has ended?

A

FIN scan

219
Q

Which values would indicate that your netmask has been entered or calculated correctly?

A

255.0.0.0, 255.255.0.0, 255.255.255.0

220
Q

If the DHCP scope being used for guest access in the lobby of a hotel is continually running out of IP addresses, what is the most likely cause?

A

The lease duration is too long

221
Q

If you discover that a service has become unresponsive, and its state is set to automatic, by which methods could the service be reset?

A

Restart the service, Reboot the server

222
Q

Effective Isotropic Radiated Power refers to which characteristic of wireless transmission?

A

The strength of transmission emanating from the antenna

223
Q

In a wireless network, which factor would likely have the most noticeable effect on the available bandwidth of a connection?

A

Distance

224
Q

Which implementation can be configured on your switches to prevent the implementation of a rogue DHCP server?

A

DHCP Snooping

225
Q

Which Linux utility would be the best option to use to help troubleshoot issues with the DNS service?

A

dig

226
Q

Which utility is most effective at diagnosing issues with the DNS service?

A

Nslookup

227
Q

When troubleshooting the configuration of a firewall, which values would you expect to see configured for any entries in the Access Control List?

A

Zone, Source and destination IP addresses, Interface on which a rule is placed

228
Q

Your wireless network has grown significantly and all devices have been upgraded to their newest models. Previous tests have revealed that your primary issues with connectivity are slow speeds, high interference, and the use of overlapping channels. Which solution might best address all of these concerns?

A

Switch from the 2.4Ghz band to the 5 Ghz band

229
Q

If your IP address configuration does not include a value for the default gateway, but your address and netmask are correct, which connectivity scenarios will occur?

A

You will only be able to connect to devices on your network, You will not be able to connect to the internet

230
Q

If you plug an ethernet cable into the network adapter of your computer and the LED status light does not activate, what is the most likely cause?

A

Damaged cable

231
Q

If the certificate on a server seems to be intact, but the server that issued the certificate in the first place cannot be verified, how would this error be classified?

A

Missing Chain Certificate

232
Q

Which utility would be the best option to help determine which IP address is currently mapped to any given MAC address?

A

ARP

233
Q

Which statement most accurately characterizes the likelihood of a MAC address conflict in a network?

A

They are very rare

234
Q

A Wi-Fi analyzer would not be effective in determining which characteristic of a wireless network implementation?

A

The security settings to use

235
Q

Which utility would be the best option to use when trying to determine the maximum bandwidth specifications of applications using either the TCP or the UDP transport protocol?

A

iperf

236
Q

A packet sniffer might be used in which situations?

A

Classifying traffic, Identify if weak passwords are being used

CompTiaNetwork+EXAMSIM (5 decks)

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